Assignments and quizzes for test 3 Flashcards
(172 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following tissues can be classified as an endocrine gland?
A
adipose tissue
1
Q
Which region of the brain is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways
A
Hypothalamus
2
Q
In response to the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes
A
Oxytocin and ADH
3
Q
What is the basic action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
A
Stimulates secretory activity and synthesis of corticosteroids in adrenal cortex
4
Q
The primary hormones produced by the thyroid are
A
thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin
5
Q
Which of the following hormone’s basic action is calcium and phosphorus metabolism, construct bone, and reduce serum calcium
A
Calcitonin
6
Q
Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system
A
Hyperthyroidism
6
Q
Myxedema is the clinical manifestation of
A
hypothyroidism
7
Q
Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that
A
disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism
8
Q
Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs because of a disorder within the adrenal gland itself, with insufficient cortisol release from the adrenal glands causing a wide range of problems
A
Addison disease
9
Q
Hypercortisolism resulting from adrenal gland oversecretion or from hyperphysiologic doses of corticosteroid medications is called .
A
Cushing syndrome
10
Q
Which of the following hormones is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress?
A
Cortisol
10
Q
Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone, the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids?
A
Conn syndrome
11
Q
Which of the following is the characteristic of hypoparathyroidism
A
Decreased bone resorption
12
Q
What is the hallmark of Addison disease
A
Decreased serum cortisol levels
13
Q
Which of the following is the characteristic of hyperparathyrodism
A
Increased bone resorption
14
Q
In response to the hypothalamus the anterior pituitary secretes
A
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
15
Q
Which of the following can be a cause for Cushing disease
A
An excess of corticosteroids medication
16
Q
What is true for cortisol
A
It is essential to norepinephrine induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress
17
Q
What is the hallmark of Addison disease
A
Decreased serum cortisol levels
18
Q
Which of the following lab blood tests is relevant to diagnose hyperthyroidism
A
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
19
Q
Flexor tenosynovitis with stiffness can accompany carpal tunnel syndrome in persons with
A
Hypothyroidism
20
Q
Dec levels of thyroid hormones lead to an overall slowing of the basal metabolic rate. This slowing of all body processes leads to
A
Bradycardia
Dec GI tract motility
Slowed neurological functioning
21
Q
Which of the following occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldesterone the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids
A
Conn syndrome
22
Which region of the brain is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways?
Hypothalamus
23
Which of the following tissues can be classified as an endocrine gland
Adipose tissue
24
In response to the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes
Oxytocin and ADH
25
What is the basic action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Stimulates secretory activity and synthesis of corticosteroids in adrenal cortex
25
The primary hormones produced by the thyroid are
thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin
26
Which of the following hormone’s basic action is calcium and phosphorus metabolism, construct bone, and reduce serum calcium
Calcitonin
27
Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that
disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism
27
Myxedema is the clinical manifestation of
hypothyroidism
28
Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system
Hyperthyroidism
29
Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs because of a disorder within the adrenal gland itself, with insufficient cortisol release from the adrenal glands causing a wide range of problems?
Addison disease
30
Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes
Impaired cognitive function
Infection
Balance and gait abnormalitites
31
When a person has hypoglycemia episode, what clinical manifestation he/she may have
Tachycardia and shallow respirations
32
What is TRUE about insulin resistance
The endogenous insulin levels can be high during the diagnosis, and it may become low as the diabetes progress
33
Which of the following is TRUE in a person with hyperglycemia
High Ketones
34
What will be an ideal A1C target for a person with type 2 diabetes
< 7.0%
35
Which of the following is TRUE on diabetes
Type 2 diabetes can develop at any age.
36
Which of the following decreases blood glucose levels?
Insulin released by beta cells in the islet of Langerhans
37
If an individual has a fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dL, what can physical therapist infer from this information
Normal fasting plasma glucose level
38
The National Institutes of Health clinical guidelines and the WHO define overweight in adults as a BMI equal to or greater than
25 kg/m2
39
Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with an A1C greater than or equal to but less than or equal to .
5.7% ; 6.4%
40
In children, BMI greater than or equal to the percentile signifies risk for being obese
95th
41
What is metabolic syndrome?
Abdominal obesity and atherogenic dyslipidemia
Elevated blood pressure and insulin resistance
Prothrombotic and proinflammatory state of the blood
42
Which of the following is precipitating causes of diabetic ketoacidosis?
Trauma
Medications i.e., Beta blockers
Pregnancy
43
In the United States, about have been diagnosed with diabetes.
1 in every 10 people
44
In diabetes,_____ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _____ .
polyuria; polydipsia
45
According to the natural history of type 2 diabetes, which of the following complications may already exist when people are diagnosed with diabetes?
Macrovascular
46
Hulk checked his blood glucose levels two hours after eating a Chinese buffet last night. The glucometer showed 299 mg/dL. What would be the clinical indication from this information?
Hulk may have developed hyperglycemia
47
Which of the following diseases is considered a microvascular complication for diabetes?
Retinopathy
48
Which of the following are precipitation causes of diabetic ketoacidosis
Trauma
Inadequate insulin under stressful conditions
Medications such as beta blockers
49
What is true about insulin resistance
Commonly being seen in people with type 2 diabetes
50
Which of the following clinical manifestation is commonly seen in a person with diabetes
Numbness of the limbs
51
What clinical manifestation may a patient have if his/her blood glucose is 62mg/dL
Convulsion coma
52
What is the A1C recommendation for non pregnant adults with diabetes
Less than 7.0%
53
Releasing a series of multiple function mediators,_______ is involved in a wide spectrum of diseases including not only cardiovascular and metabolic conditions, such as atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes but also inflammatory and immune related disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis
White fat
54
Fat accumulated in the lower body results _____ figure, whereas fat in the abdominal area produces more of an ______
Pear shape, apple shaped
55
_____ is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity
Bariatrics
56
In children BMI greater than or equal to the _______ percentile signifies risk of being obese
95th
57
Which of the following islet cells produce insulin in the pancreas
Beta cells
58
Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune type of diabetes that begins in middle to late adulthood, also referred to as latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)?
Type 1.5
59
Pre-diabetic is diagnosed in people with a fasting glucose greater than or equal to______ but less than or equal to ________
100mg/dl; 125 mg/dl
60
How to manage diabetes
Work with a health professional
Eat healthy
Stay active
61
In diabetes, _______ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called______
Polyuria; polydipsia
62
The term was often applied to opioid compounds because when taken, they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects, and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
narcotic
63
The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic) analgesics is from
the opium poppy
64
Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as
endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)
65
Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the
mu opioid receptor
66
Drugs such as butorphanol, nalbuphine, and pentazocine may stimulate certain opioid receptors while blocking or only partially activating other receptors. These drugs
may produce more psychotropic effects (hallucinations, vivid dreams) than other opioids
may have fewer addictive qualities than strong opioids such as morphine
may produce adequate analgesia with less risk of side effects such as respiratory depression
are known as mixed agonist-antagonists
67
By blocking all opioid receptors, opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to
treat opioid overdose
68
Opioid drugs exert their effects on afferent pain pathways by binding to neuronal receptors that in turn
decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals
69
Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g., injected into an inflamed joint) because
opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.
70
When used to treat pain, opioids can be administered by all the following routes EXCEPT
inhalation
71
In addition to their use as analgesics, opioid drugs can also be administered
as a preoperative medication
as a general anesthetic
as a cough suppressant
to treat severe diarrhea
72
Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?
increased respiration
73
Certain patients can develop “tolerance” to opioid analgesics, which is indicated by
the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods
74
Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone
has mild withdrawal symptoms
75
The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches, shivering, sweating, and so forth) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of
physical dependence
76
Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia) when given opioid drugs. This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due to _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.
increased activity of glutamate
77
NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT
the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma
78
Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of
prostaglandins
79
Prostaglandins are
a group of lipidlike compounds that exhibit a wide range of physiological activities
80
NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
81
The _____ form of the cyclooxygenase enzyme seems to be responsible for producing beneficial prostaglandins that help maintain or protect function in specific tissues such as the stomach and kidneys.
COX-1
82
In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent
Ischemic strokes
Heart attacks
Colorectal cancer
83
In theory, a COX-2 selective drug such as celecoxib will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because
COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach.
83
Aspirin ______ be used to treat fever in children because this drug may cause _____
should not; Reye syndrome
84
It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.
should not; inhibit bone healing
85
Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx) and valdecoxib (Bextra) have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as
heart attack and stroke
86
Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with
Drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec])
Histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)
Gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium)
87
Which of the following is a commonly encountered problem with the use of corticosteroids?
Hyperglycemia
88
The lower GI tract includes the .
small and large intestines
89
occurs when nerve endings in the stomach and other parts of the body are irritated and usually precedes vomiting.
Nausea
90
Which of the following is a gastrointestinal sign or symptom associated with strenuous exercise?
Abdominal cramping
91
Which of the following is the most common neurogenic cause of diarrhea?
Hyperthyroidism
92
Which of the following medications is a common cause of constipation?
Diuretics and opioids
93
What drugs are the most common causes of reactive gastritis?
Aspirin and NSAIDs
94
Which of the following is a failure to relax the smooth muscle fibers of the gastrointestinal tract?
Achalasia
95
Which of the following is least likely to refer pain to the left shoulder?
Liver cancer
96
What type of hiatal hernia is the most common?
Sliding
97
What types of exercise would increase intraabdominal pressure?
Straining
Lifting
Bending over
98
One of the most common symptoms of a hiatal hernia is .
heartburn or reflux
99
Which of the following exercises is contraindicated for an individual with a known hiatal hernia?
Any exercise that causes Valsalva in the supine position
100
What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Carbonated drinks, alcohol and coffee
Nicotine or cigarette smoke
Peppermint, fatty foods, citrus products (including tomatoes), spicy foods, garlic, onions
101
What type of medication is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, blocks acid pumps and prevent stomach acid production?
Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
102
Which of the following is not considered an extraesophageal manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Heartburn
103
occurs when the peptic ulcer erodes into adjacent organs such as the small bowel, pancreas, or liver.
Penetration
104
is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the mucosa of the colon, typically involving the rectum, which can then advance proximally in a continuous manner to involve the entire colon.
Ulcerative colitis
105
In ulcerative colitis, intestinal lesions are usually found in which locations?
Rectum and left colon
106
What is the most common extraintestinal finding in inflammatory bowel disease?
Arthritis
107
What is the primary indication or desired effect of Omeprazole?
To treat gastric ulcers
108
Which of the following is Bisphosphonates that can treat osteoporosis?
Alendronate
109
What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Calcium channel blockers
Pregnancy (last trimester)
Caffeine
110
What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Scleroderma
Central nervous system depressants
Estrogen therapy
111
What is the primary indication of proton pump inhibitors
Gastric ulcers
111
Which of the following is the most common causes of constipation
Hydrocodone (semi-synthetic opioid)
112
Opioid drugs exert their effects on afferent pain pathways by binding to neuronal receptors that in turn
decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals
112
Which of the following medications is a common cause of diarrhea?
Antibiotics
113
Which of the following are the most common symptoms of a hiatal hernia?
Heartburn
114
The most common presenting symptoms of acute appendicitis occur in a classic sequence of abdominal pain over .
right lower quadrant
115
Why is the stool normally brown?
Bile converted from bilirubin causes brown coloration of the stool
115
What do light-colored stools and urine the color of tea or cola most likely indicate?
Liver dysfunction
116
Which of the following is one of the most common signs and symptoms of hepatic disease?
Hepatic osteodystrophy
117
What is the cause of jaundice?
Defects in bilirubin metabolism (in uptake by the liver or conjugation)
118
Progressive loss of normal tissue that is replaced with fibrosis and nodular regeneration is a characteristic of .
Cirrhosis
119
Bile helps in alkalinizing the intestinal contents and plays a role in the emulsification, absorption, and digestion of .
fat
120
What is the treatment of choice for tense ascites?
Paracentesis and diuretics
121
What is the 5-year survival rate for compensated cirrhosis?
Greater than 90%
121
Which of the following occur in association with jaundice?
Dark urine and light stools
122
The liver is the major site of production proteins that are associated with _____
acute inflammatory reactions
122
Which of the following is associated with overproduction of bilirubin?
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
123
What type of hepatitis virus currently has no vaccine available?
Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
124
What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatitis?
Acetaminophen toxicity
125
Which of the following laboratory tests are both for liver function?
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
126
Which of the following is true when a person ages?
Liver requires more time to process medications
127
What is also called flapping tremors or liver flap?
Asterixis
128
What is Cholecystitis?
Inflammation of gallbladder
129
Skin is the largest body organ, constituting ________ of the body weight.
15% to 20%
130
What is the primary function of fibroblasts in the dermis?
Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing
131
Which of the following is true about skin lesions?
Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.
132
Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?
Prealbumin and hematocrit
132
Which of the following is true about aging and the integumentary system?
For women, excessive facial hair may occur along the upper lip and around the chin.
Gray hair and balding are visible indications of skin changes associated with aging.
With aging, blood vessels within the dermis are reduced in number, and the walls are thinned.
133
Which of the following is true for first-degree burn?
Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause
133
Which of the following is true about skin infection?
Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.
134
You are working in an ICU and treating a 34-year-old female patient who has sustained second- and third-degree burns over her front chest, abdomen, and front left upper extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is
22.5%
135
account for approximately 75% (43% flame or fire; 34% scalding) of all burn center admissions
Thermal burns
136
Extensive burns result in generalized body ______ in both burned and nonburned tissues and a ______ in circulating intravascular blood volume
edema;decrease
137
is the most common and life-threatening complication of burn injuries.
infection
138
Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?
Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics
139
What are the three classic determinants of burn mortality?
TBSA, age, and inhalation injury
140
Which of the following are the common medical complications of gastrointestinal system on a person with burn?
paralytic ileus
141
Which of the following body parts would get pressure injuries the most easily?
Scapula and elbow
142
Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is considered ______ pressure injury.
Stage 2
143
Which of the following patient populations may have higher risk of infection if they develop pressure injuries on the skin, because they are unable to mount a sufficient inflammatory response to start the healing?
Type 2 diabetes
144
Which of the following is appropriate medical management for a patient with pressure injuries?
Negative pressure wound therapy
Adequately redistribute the pressure
Electrical stimulation
145
Which if the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn
Autographs are the persons own skin
146
The two primary causative factors for the development of pressure injuries are
Interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces
147
Whichbof the following is true about clinical manifestation for pressure injuries
Pressure injuries occur over bony prominence
Proteolytic enzymes from bacteria and macrophages dissolve necrotic tissue which can lead to foul smelling discharge
Pressure injuries often manifest with a circular pattern shaped like an inverted volcano
148
Which if the following are intrinsic factors most associated with pressure injury development
Impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, and impaired nutritional status
149
Which of the following is true about treatment for pressure injuries
Therauptiic modalities such as ultrasound and electrical stimulation can be used
Elimination or limiting associated risk factors as much as possible is the first step in preventing the occurrence of pressure injuries
In stage 3 pressure injuries undamaged tissue near the wound can be rotated to cover the ulcer
150
What is the primary function of mast cells in the dermis
Provide histamine for vasodialation and chemotatic factors for inflammatory responses
151
Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing
Hemoglobin and totoal protein
152
Which of the following is true about integumentary system
Epidermis is one of the body's principal supplier of vitamin D
Wrinkling signifies loss of elastic fibers weakened collagen and Dec subcutaneous fat
Hormonal abnormalities may result in excessive facial and body hair and male pattern baldness in men
153
Which of the following is true about skin infection
Impetigo is bacterial infection
154
Which kf the following js true for partial thickness burn
Painful
155
A 42 yr old male with history of schizophrenia suffered extensive burns after pouring gasoline down his pants and lightning a match. The self-inflicted injury resulted in full thickness burns on his bilateral lower extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA)
Over 30%
156
Why do children have a higher risk of burns
Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries
157
Obscured full thickness skin and tissue loss us considered ______ pressure injury
Unstagable
158
Fir bed bound and chair bound patients with impaired ability to reposition themselves which of the following tools can be used for risk assessment evaluating both sensation and physiologic risk of pressure injuries
Braden scale
159
Which of the following are the common medical complication in a burn injured adult
Stres induced gastric ulcer
