Assessment Test One Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these terms describes a critical task path?

A

Tasks with zero float are critical path tasks and if delayed, they’ll cause the delay of the project completion date. (Chapter Four)

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2
Q

When would you use your negotiation skills on a project that’s in Executing process group?

A

Negotiating in Executing is used as a conflict-resolution technique. (Chapter Seven)

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3
Q

This tool is often used in the vendor selection process

A

A weighted scoring model is a tool that weighs evaluation criteria and provides a way to score vendor responses, Bidder conferences, IFB and SOW are all used during vendor solicitations. (Chapter Five)

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4
Q

From the following list of options, select three of the five common stages of development that cohesive project teams progress through. Choose three

A

Forming,Storming,Norming

Chapter Eight

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5
Q

In this organizational structure, you report to the director of project management and your team members report to their area of responsibility ( account, human resources and IT) You will have complete control of the projects team assignments once the project is underway. Which type of organization does this describe?

A

This describes a strong matrix organization because the project manager works in a division whose sole responsibility is project management. ( Chapter One)

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6
Q

This is how you know the completed tasks are satisfactory.

A

Acceptance criteria describe how to determine whether the deliverables are complete and meet the requirements of the project . (Chapter Three)

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7
Q

Which of the following describes the responsibilities of the project sponsor?

A

A project sponsor is responsible for obtaining financial resources for the project,monitoring the progress of the project and handling escalations from the project manager

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8
Q

Project managers may spend up to 90 percent of their time doing this

A

A project manager may spend up to 90 percent of their time communicating. (Chapter One)

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9
Q

This type of estimate is predicted on historical data and expert judgement

A

A top-down estimate relies on historical data and expert judgement. It’s also known as analogous estimating. (Chapter Six)

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10
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a project selection method?

a. Cost-benefit analysis b. Expert Judgement
c. Top-down estimating e. Scoring model

A

Cost benefit analysis, expert judgement, and scoring are all project selection techniques. Top-down estimating is a type of cost estimating. (Chapter One)

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11
Q

You’re the project manager on a project where the scope has expanded. The change has been approved by the change control board (CCB). What steps must you take to acknowledge the expansion?

A

Anytime there is a significant expansion or modification to the project, the project scope statement must be modified and agreed to in writing by obtaining a sign off (Chapter Eight)

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12
Q

Ishikawa diagrams,Pareto diagrams, trend analysis,flowcharts,statistical sampling and run charts are tools and techniques used in which process?

A

Quality Control concerns reviewing project results and determining whether they comply with the standards documented in the quality management plan. This process uses several tools and techniques, as stated in the question. For more information, please see
(Chapter Nine)

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13
Q

Which project document is created in the project Closing process group and describes what went well and what didn’t go well on the project?

A

Lessons learned describe what went well and what didn’t go well on the project. Lessons learned are included in the project close report, the post - mortem report, and the post - project review. Chapter 10.

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14
Q

Some team members on your team are driving each other crazy. They have different ways of organizing the tasks they are both assigned to, and the disparity in styles is causing them to bicker.Which of the following describes this situation?
A. This is a situation the project manager should resolve as soon as possible.
B. This should be escalated to the project sponsor.
C. This is a common cause of conflict.
D. This is a team formation stage that will pass as they get to know each other better

A

This situation describes varying work styles that are a common cause of conflict.
Competing resource demands and expert judgment are also common causes of conflict. This isn’t a situation the project manager should jump into immediately. It ’ s better if the project team members can work this out on their own first. And issues like this should
almost never have to be escalated to the project sponsor.Chapter 7.

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15
Q

This document authorizes the project to begin

A

The project charter authorizes the project to begin

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16
Q

Which of these can convey that you’ve achieved the completion of an interim key
deliverable?

A

Milestones signal that you ’ ve completed one of the key deliverables on the project

17
Q

When should you seek recommendations from the sponsor to either kill a project or come
up with alternative strategies? Choose three.
A. When costs far outreach the budgeted amount that the project was originally given
B. When an activity is insurmountable
C. When the elapsed time used for one or more tasks far exceeds time estimates
D. When the enthusiasm of the project sponsor wanes

A

When the project ’ s costs exceed its budget, you have to go to the sponsor and get input on what to do next. When the elapsed time taken for one or more tasks far exceeds your initial time estimates or you find that the project activity is insurmountable, it’s time to visit with the stakeholders and project sponsor to see whether you need an extension or whether it’s time to kill the project. If the sponsor loses interest, it’s time to talk with the sponsor, not necessarily to pull the plug on the project.

18
Q

This process defines what people or groups need information regarding the project, when the information should be distributed, how often it should be distributed, and the format it should be delivered in.

A

Communications planning defi nes the type of information, frequency, format, and method of distribution the project stakeholders require during the course of the project

19
Q

This type of analysis is performed during procurement planning to determine cost
effectiveness

A

Make - or - buy analysis is performed during procurement planning to determine the cost - effectiveness of either making the goods and services in - house or procuring them from an outside vendor

20
Q

What is one important step that new project managers might overlook when faced with a
possible scope change?

A

When faced with the possibility of a scope change, the project manager should determine whether there are alternatives that would lessen the impact of the proposed change.

21
Q

What signals the end of the Planning phase?

A

After the sponsor has formally signed the project management plan, you ’ ve fi nished the Planning stage and now move into the Executing process

22
Q

The last document you’ll prepare during scope definition is which of the following?

A

The WBS is a deliverables - oriented hierarchy that defi nes all the project work and is completed after the scope management plan and scope statement are completed

23
Q

Which cost - estimating technique relies on estimating work packages and then rolling up these estimates to come up with a total cost estimate?

A

The bottom-up cost-estimating method is the most precise because you begin your
estimating at the activities in the work package and roll them up for a total estimate

24
Q

In project management, the process of taking high - level project requirements and breaking them down into the tasks that will generate the deliverables is called what?

A

Decomposition is the process of analyzing the requirements of the project in such a way
that you reduce the requirements down to the steps and tasks needed to produce them

25
Q

Who is responsible for assembling the project’s team members?

A

The project manager assembles the team members for the project. The project manager may get input from the sponsor, stakeholders, or customers, but it is the project manager who decides what the formation of the team should be.