Comptia Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for a leftover risk after a risk event has occurred or that remains after risk responses have been planned?

A

Residual Risks

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2
Q

Describe post-mortem analysis.

A

Post-mortem analysis is conducted for any project that is canceled or ends prematurely.

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3
Q

What is the lowest level of the WBS?

A

The work package

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4
Q

A well-managed change control process can help stop this phenomenon.

A

Scope Creep

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5
Q

This process formally reviews the project at specific points such as milestone completion or phase completion to determine whether the project should proceed.

A

Phase gate approvals

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6
Q

Name the three types of matrix organizations

A

Strong, weak, and balanced

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7
Q

Name four types of documents you could use during the vendor solicitation process.

A

RFI, RFP, RFQ, and RFB (or IFB)

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8
Q

Name the three common causes of variance.

A

Random variances, known or predictable variances, and variances always present in the process

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9
Q

What costs are included in AC?

A

Direct and indirect costs

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10
Q

What is it called when you apply more resources to a project in order to complete it more quickly?

A

Crashing the project

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11
Q

This funding allocation is set aside by the management team to cover future expenses on the project that can’t be planned for.

A

Management reserve

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12
Q

Name the project process group that begins when the project charter is approved.

A

Planning

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13
Q

This procurement document details the deliverables the vendor must provide, the characteristics of the deliverables, and other information similar to the scope statement.

A

Statement of work (SOW)

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14
Q

This estimating technique calculates the expected value based on the most likely, pessimistic, and optimistic estimates.

A

PERT

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15
Q

Describe what occurs when performing administrative closure procedures.

A

Project documents are gathered and centralized, a post-project review is performed, and the final project closeout report is created.

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16
Q

Consensus on a WBS should be obtained from which group?

A

Stakeholders

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17
Q

These help you determine whether the project is progressing as planned.

A

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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18
Q

Name the components of the communication exchange model.

A

Sender- Message- Receiver

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19
Q

What is the term for a symptom that means a risk event is about to occur?

A

Risk Trigger

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20
Q

Task estimating by using people who are familiar with the tasks is called what?

A

Expert Judgement

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21
Q

What event should you coordinate after completing the project charter and before beginning the scope statement?

A

The project kickoff meeting

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22
Q

What is the most often used logical relationship?

A

Finish to start

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23
Q

Name the PMI standard that denotes all of the institute’s project management wisdom.

A

A guide to PMBOK

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24
Q

A grouping of projects that are working toward a common goal is called what?

A

Program

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25
Q

What describes each of the deliverables and their components, the code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, and criteria for acceptance?

A

WBS Dictionary

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26
Q

Name the process group that obtains sign-off of a successful project.

A

Closing

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27
Q

Define how a project ends through starvation.

A

Starvation happens when the project resources are cut off from the project.

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28
Q

What type of change request is implemented to help reduce the probability of a negative risk event?

A

Preventive action

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29
Q

What are the three types of costs associated with quality?

A

Prevention, appraisal, and failure

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30
Q

Describe some examples of the environmental factors you should consider during human resource planning.

A

Organizational factors, technical factors, personnel policies, location and logistics, and interpersonal factors

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31
Q

Define AC.

A

AC (actual cost) is the actual cost of completing the work component in a given time period. This is a figure used in EVM formulas.

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32
Q

Describe the purpose of verifying scope.

A

Verifying scope formally accepts the completed deliverables and obtains sign-off on the deliverables from the stakeholders, indicating they are satisfactory and that they meet stakeholders’ expectations.

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33
Q

Three-point estimates use which three estimates to calculate the average estimate?

A

Most likely, pessimistic,optimistic

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34
Q

Which process collects documents and reports on project baseline data?

A

Report Performance

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35
Q

Some companies have a centralized area where all formal project activities take place. What is this area called?

A

PMO- Project Management Office

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36
Q

This system assures the project doesn’t deviate from the planned requirements.

A

Change control system

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37
Q

Which element of the scope statement documents the process and criteria you’ll use to determine whether deliverables are complete and satisfactory?

A

Success criteria, also known as acceptance criteria

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38
Q

Name the four elements or organizational governance used during the Executing process group.

A

Standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval

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39
Q

Name three types of change requests that occur during the Monitoring and Controlling processes.

A

Corrective actions, preventive actions, and defect repairs

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40
Q

Name the three common causes of conflict according to CompTIA.

A

Competing resource demands, expert judgment, and varying work styles

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41
Q

Which chart type is useful for showing the dependency relationships between tasks?

A

Network Diagrams

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42
Q

Placing activities into a logical sequence and determining their dependencies is called what?

A

Activity sequencing

43
Q

State the purpose of the change request log.

A

The change request log records change requests and their dispositions. It should include an identifying number, date, description, requestor, status, and final disposition.

44
Q

Name the purpose for archiving project documents.

A

Archiving helps you produce proof the project was accepted and signed off, and it gives others access to the project documents so they can be used as a reference on future projects.

45
Q

Name the steps to preproject setup.

A

Identify the project, validate the project, write the project charter, and obtain the approval of the project charter.

46
Q

Describe float.

A

Float is the difference in length of time between the early start and late start (or the early finish and late finish) of an activity on the project.

47
Q

What plan documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project team?

A

Staff management plan

48
Q

Describe product verification.

A

Product verification is performed in the Close Procurements process and determines whether the work was completed accurately and satisfactorily.

49
Q

Explain the purpose for the Distribute Information process.

A

This process is concerned with getting stakeholders the information about the project in a timely manner. This is accomplished using status reports, project meetings, review meetings, and so on.

50
Q

Name the term that describes processes that are repeated.

A

Iterative

51
Q

What type of requirement describes the elements required for a business process?

A

Business requirements

52
Q

Name the stages of team development.

A

Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning

53
Q

Name four types of project endings.

A

Addition,Starvation,Integration,Extinction

54
Q

Describe some examples of informal communications.

A

Phone calls, emails, hallway conversations, and impromptu meetings

55
Q

Why is project sign-off important?

A

Sign-off signals the acceptance of the final product, service, or result of the project and turns the product over to the organization.

56
Q

Describe organizational planning.

A

Organizational planning is the process of addressing the factors that may impact how you manage your project team; it defines roles and responsibilities for project team members, identifies how the team will be organized, and documents the staffing management plan.

57
Q

Name the positive risk response strategies.

A

Exploit,Share,Enhance,Accept

58
Q

Before assembling the project team, what needs must the project manager assess first?

A

Skills required by team members

59
Q

Name the two significant processes you’ll perform within the human resources–planning process.

A

Organizational planning and staff acqusition

60
Q

What type of scheduling chart represents task durations on a timeline and typically displays dependencies?

A

GANTT

61
Q

What type of requirement indicates a system process?

A

Functional

62
Q

Name the two risk analysis techniques.

A

Qualitative and Quantitative

63
Q

Name the types of barriers a project manager might face when managing teams.

A

Time zones, language and communication, cultural, hierarchical, and technological

64
Q

Define how a project ends through extinction.

A

Extinction occurs when the project has been completed and accepted by the stakeholders.

65
Q

Describe some examples of formal communications.

A

Team status meetings, kickoff meetings, written status reports, and team-building sessions

66
Q

Name the types of resources planned for in the resource-planning process.

A

Human, Material,Equipment

67
Q

What document represents the decomposition of the deliverables and work required for a project?

A

Work Breakdown Schedule

68
Q

What are the triple constraints according to CompTIA?

A

Scope, time, quality

69
Q

Define the purpose for the Close Procurements process.

A

Close Procurements is the process of completing and settling the terms of the contract and documenting acceptance.

70
Q

What two things are most important when releasing team members from the project?

A
  1. Communicating with both the team member and their functional manager
  2. Providing the team member with a final performance appraisal
71
Q

Name the major elements of a scope document.

A

Product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints

72
Q

Name the two types of schedule formats used on most projects.

A

Milestones and Gantts

73
Q

This is the term for a risk that occurs as a result of the original risk event or as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

A

Secondary Risks

74
Q

Define how a project ends through integration.

A

Integration occurs when the resources of the project are distributed to other areas in the organization or assigned to other projects.

75
Q

Name the estimating technique that is a quantitatively based estimating method.

A

Parametric estimating

76
Q

This is the total, approved, expected cost for the project.

A

Cost Baseline

77
Q

Name the negative risk response strategies.

A

Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept

78
Q

This quality-planning technique compares and measures similar activities.

A

Benchmarking

79
Q

Name the six conflict resolution techniques

A

Smoothing,forcing,avoiding,confronting,negotiating

80
Q

Describe fast tracking.

A

Fast tracking is beginning two tasks at the same time that were previously scheduled to begin sequentially.

81
Q

Performing this function on deliverables results in the WBS.

A

Decomposition

82
Q

Define how a project ends through addition.

A

Addition happens when projects evolve into ongoing operations.

83
Q

Describe a post-project review.

A

The post-project review is held at the end of the project, and its primary purpose is to collect lessons learned.

84
Q

What formal document contains all of the plans created during the project process group?

A

Project management plan

85
Q

What funding allocation is an amount of money set aside to deal with the cost of possible adverse events?

A

Contingency reserve

86
Q

Name the nine Knowledge Areas outlined in the PMBOK Guide.

A

Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, Human Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, and Integration Management

87
Q

Name the activities required to properly manage stakeholder expectations.

A

This involves communicating, resolving issues, improving project performance by implementing change requests, and managing concerns.

88
Q

Name the three categories of contracts.

A

Fixed price, cost reimbursable, and time and materials

89
Q

What is a major characteristic of a matrix organization?

A

What is a major characteristic of a matrix organization?

90
Q

Name the steps in validating a business case.

A

Feasibility study, justification, and alignment to the strategic plan

91
Q

This type of change request brings the work of the project into alignment with the project plan.

A

Corrective actions

92
Q

Describe the purpose for monitoring and controlling risks.

A

Monitoring and controlling risk involves implementing the risk response plan, tracking and monitoring identified risks, and identifying and responding to new risks as they occur.

93
Q

What entity is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving, denying, or delaying their implementation?

A

The Change Control Board

94
Q

Describe lessons learned.

A

Lessons learned describe the successes and failures of the project and should never be used to place blame.

95
Q

What is the final, approved schedule that will be used to monitor and track all the work of the project?

A

Schedule baseline

96
Q

What is the purpose of the project charter?

A

The project charter normally approves the project and authorizes it to begin.

97
Q

What chart tracks tasks, resource requirements, and quantity of resources?

A

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

98
Q

State the purpose for performing quality control.

A

This involves monitoring work results to determine whether they comply with the standards set out in the quality management plan.

99
Q

State the purpose for performing quality control.

A

This involves monitoring work results to determine whether they comply with the standards set out in the quality management plan.

100
Q

Name the three constraints you should be aware of in human resource planning.

A

Labor union agreements, organizational structure, and economic conditions

101
Q

What type of change request is implemented to correct or replace components that are substandard or are malfunctioning?

A

Defect repairs

102
Q

Name the estimating technique that bases estimates on past projects of similar size and scope.

A

Analogous estimating

103
Q

What is the first step in examining a scope deviation request?

A

Identifying the cause

104
Q

Name the steps in validating a project.

A

Validate the business case, and then identify and analyze stakeholders.