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textbook > assessment + human disease > Flashcards

assessment + human disease Flashcards

1
Q

what does paralysis of lower face indicate?

A

upper motor neurone (contralateral side)

e.g. stroke, cerebral tumour, trauma

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2
Q

what does paralysis of complete side of face indicate?

A

lower motor neurone (ipsilateral side)

e.g. bells palsy, parotid tumour, misplaced IDB, trauma

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3
Q

describing a lump/swelling

A 
site
shape
size
single/multiple
texture
warmth
tenderness
fluctuation
sensation/pulsation
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4
Q

describing an ulcer

A 
site
shape
size
single/multple
base
edge
pain
time
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5
Q

suspicious findings of an ulcer

A 
rolled edges
firm/hard/attached
necrotic friable tissue in base
bleeding on light pressure
painless in early stages
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6
Q

where are minor aphthae ulcers located

A

lining mucosa - not hard palate/gingiva

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7
Q

2 main purposes of microbiology in dentristry

A

diagnosis

so can treat with best pharmocotherapeutic agents

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8
Q

added technique for FNA

A

ultrasound used to guide

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9
Q

disadvantage of fine needle aspiration

A

infection afterwards - usually only used for suspicious lesions

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10
Q

normal size for incisional biopsy of ulcer

A

10mmx10mm - must include border + sound tissue

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11
Q

what tissues does CBCT pick up?

A

hard tissue

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12
Q

indications for ultrasound use

A

lymph nodes

salivary glands

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13
Q

contraindication for MRI scan

A

fixed metal appliances/implants e.g. pacemaker

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14
Q

3 conditions at increased risk of infective endo

A

prosthetic valve
previous IE
cyanotic CHD

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15
Q

dose for IE prophylaxis

A

amoxicillin 3g 60 mins before
or
clindamycin 600mg 60mins before

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16
Q

dental relevance of hypertension

A

increased stoke/MI risk
should be managed before GA
local anaesthetic adrenaline - aspiration important to reduce intravascular risk

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17
Q

leading cardiac cause of stroke

A

atrial fibrillation

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18
Q

which common medications should not be prescribed to patient with asthma?

A

NSAIDs

may be allergic

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19
Q

why should NSAIDs be avoided in leukaemia?

A

increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

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20
Q

3 step to haemostasis

A

vessel constriction
platelet plug
coagulation cascade

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21
Q

what LA should be avoided in pts with increased risk of bleeding?

A

IDB

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22
Q

safe level for platelet count before invasive dental treatment

A

50x10^9 /l

lower would require platelet diffusion

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23
Q

pre-op treatment for haemophilia A

A 
mild = DDAVP infusion - VIII + vWF
severe = VIII/IX replacement
24
Q

pre-op treatment for haemophilia B

A

IX infusion

25
Q

how long does is take warfarin to peak anti-coagulate

A

48hrs or longer

26
Q

what does the INR compare

A

pts PT (prothrombin) time with the average

27
Q

which factor do rivaroxaban + apixaban inhibit?

A

Xa

28
Q

which factor does dabigatran inhibit?

A

IIa (direct thrombin)

29
Q

what is clopidogrel?

A

anti platelet - doesn’t need altering pre surgery

30
Q

dental relevance of diabetes

A

immunocompromised
appointment times to interfere less with schedule
GA/sedation
medical emergency

31
Q

normal blood glucose level

A

5-10mmol/l

32
Q

how is GFR measured?

A

creatine clearance

33
Q

3 dental importance of liver disease

A

bleeding
metabolism
infection control

34
Q

what does the INR compare

A

pts PT (prothrombin) time with the average

35
Q

which factor do rivaroxaban + apixaban inhibit?

A

Xa

36
Q

which factor does dabigatran inhibit?

A

IIa (direct thrombin)

37
Q

what is clopidogrel?

A

anti platelet - doesn’t need altering pre surgery

38
Q

dental relevance of patient with crohns?

A

will be taking steroids/immunosuppressants - need extensive management of infection

39
Q

normal blood glucose level

A

5-10mmol/l

40
Q

how is GFR measured?

A

creatine clearance

41
Q

how to lie pregnant woman

A

on left side

42
Q

signs of hypoglycaemia

A

shaking/trembling
sweating
hunger
confusion/slurred speech

43
Q

what common drug should be avoided in renal disease?

A

NSAIDs

44
Q

when should kidney dialysis patients receive dental care?

A

day after - when heparin reduced but maximum benefit from dialysis

45
Q

what common drug can exacerbate peptic ulceration?

A

NSAIDs

46
Q

4 steps to reduce risk of osteoradionecrosis

A

prep CHX
prophylactic Abxs
atraumatic
follow-up

47
Q

what type of antidepressant needs withdrawn before GA?

A

MAOIs due to interaction - withdraw slowly for 3 weeks

48
Q

how to lie preganant woman

A

on left side

49
Q

signs of hypoglycaemia

A

shaking/trembling
sweating
hunger
confusion/slurred speech

50
Q

how much glucagon to give unconscious hypoglycaemic pt?

A

1mg/ml intramuscular

51
Q

3 signs of adrenal insufficiency

A

pallor
confusion
hypotension

52
Q

signs of acute severe asthma

A

shortness of breath/can’t complete sentence
RR >25/min
tachycardia >110/min

53
Q

signs of life-threatening asthma

A

cyanosis RR<8/min
restlessness, confusion, exhaustion
bradycardia <50/min

54
Q

how to treat oversadation by midazolam

A

flumenazil - 200microg over 15 seconds IV then 100microg every min up to 1mg

maintain airway
give o2

55
Q

why are intramuscular injections faster acting than subcutaneous

A

muscle very vascular

textbook (15 decks)

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