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Spring 2024 > Assessment Exam II > Flashcards

Assessment Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred pathway for the passage of nasal air devices?

A

Inferior Meatus

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2
Q

What makes up the anterior 2/3rds of the of the mouth?

A

Hard Palate

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3
Q

What are the subdivisions of the pharyx? Which one gives us the most problems?

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Hypopharynx

Oropharynx

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4
Q

What is one of the primary causes of upper airway obstruction during anesthesia?

A

Loss of pharyngeal muscle tone

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5
Q

What is a common site of airway obstruction in both awake and anesthetized patients?

A

Velopharynx

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6
Q

What joins the nasal and oral cavaties with the larynx and esophagus?

A

Pharynx

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7
Q

What counteracts the collapse of the pharyngeal airway?

A

Chin lift with mouth closure

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8
Q

Where is the end of the cricoid cartilage?

A

6th cervical vertebra

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9
Q

What are the unpaired laryngeal cartilages?

A

Thyroid
Cricoid - complete ring
Epiglottis

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10
Q

What are the paired larygneal cartilages?

A

Arytenoid
Corniculate
Cuneiform

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11
Q

Extends from the inferior cricoid membrane to the carina

A

Trachea

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12
Q

What is normal tracheal diameter?

A

10-15 cm

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13
Q

What is more valuable than any test?

A

History

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14
Q

What are the basic decisions?

A

Can I ventilate/intubate??

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15
Q

What’s the most predictve factor of a difficult airway?

A

Previously documented difficult airway

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16
Q

A neck greater than ______ cm indicates a difficult intubation.

A

43 cm

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17
Q

What’s the preferred inter-incisor distance?

A

> 6 cm (3 finger breadths)

Less than this is indicative of a difficult airway

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18
Q

What is macroglossia?

A

enlarged tongue

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19
Q

What teeth are the most frequently injured during endotracheal intubation?

A

Anterior maxillary central and lateral incisors

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20
Q

What causes negative pressure pulmonary edema?

A

Pulling enough pressure on the tube by putting it down that it causes pulmonary edema

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21
Q

What is the anatomical position for sniffing position?

A

Cervical flexion and atlanto-occipital extension

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22
Q

What structures does sniffing position align?

A

Aligns oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axis

Want all three in perfect alignment

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23
Q

What is the perferred distance for sternomental distance?

A

> 12.5 cm

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24
Q

What are the most common risk factors for ischemic heart disease?

A
  1. Age
  2. Male
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25
Q

Most common reason for impaired coronary blood flow resulting in angina?

A

Atherosclerosis

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26
Q

What are the (3) primary stressors that induce angina?

A
  1. Physical exertion
  2. Emotional tension
  3. Cold weather
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27
Q

Chest pain that does NOT change in frequency or severity in a 2-month period.

A

Chronic stable angina

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28
Q

Chest pain increasing in frequency and/or severity without increase in cardiac biomarkers.

A

Unstable angina

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29
Q

What is the A-OK protocol?

A

Treats amniotic fluid embolism with zofran and toradol.

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30
Q

Who is the typical gallbladder patient?

A

Fat, fertile, female

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31
Q

Which test allows us to directly visualize coronary perfusion?

A

Nuclear stress imaging

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32
Q

Size of perfusion abnormality = ?

A

significance of CAD detected

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33
Q

How long does aspirin inhibit the platelet?

A

Lifespan of the platelet (7-14 days)

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34
Q

Why are nitrates contraindicated in patients with AS and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Need to maintain afterload in patients with AS

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35
Q

What is the only drug that prolongs the life of CAD patients?

A

B-blockers

Decreases risk of death and reinfarction in MI patients

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36
Q

What are the 3 principal effects of beta blockers?

A
  1. Anti-ischemic
  2. Anti-hypertensive
  3. Anti-dysrhythmic
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37
Q

Which cardiac drug is also used as an anxiolytic?

A

Propranolol

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38
Q

What is one of the primary differences between Ca2+ blockers and B-blockers?

A

Ca2+ blockers have more vascular smooth muscle tone relaxation

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39
Q

What is the primary downside of ACE-Is?

A

Patients taking ACE-Is have an exagerated response to systemic changes (hypo, hypertension)

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40
Q

What are the 3 types of ACS?

A
  1. STEMI
  2. NSTEMI
  3. Unstable angina
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41
Q

Emergency CABG is reserved for what type of patients?

A

Failed angioplasty
Ventricle rupture
Mitral Regurg
Anatomy that inhibits PCI

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42
Q

What is the most significant predictor of stent thrombosis?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor discontinuation

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43
Q

How long do patients need to wait for elective surgery after drug-eluting stent placement?

A

1 year

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44
Q

How long do patients need to wait for elective surgery post CABG?

A

At least 6 weeks; 12 weeks is preferred

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45
Q

What are the 2 non-cardiac diseases we need to worry about for cardiac patients?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hypertension
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46
Q

Which B-blocker can reduce anesthetic requirements?

A

Esmolol

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47
Q

Which drug is given for refactory hypotension?

A

Vasopressin

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48
Q

What two drugs can be used to treat excessive bradycardia caused by B-blockers during the perioperative period?

A

Atropine or glycopyrrolate

Glycopyrrolate is preferred/better

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49
Q

What are the 6 independent predictors of major cardiac complications in the RCRI?

A
  1. High-risk surgery
  2. Ischemic heart disease
  3. CHF
  4. CVA/TIA
  5. Insulin-dependent DM
  6. Preoperative serum creatinine > 2mg/dL
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50
Q

What drug would you give a hypotensive AS patient?

A

Phenylephrine

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51
Q

What is the benefit of volatile anesthetics with ischemic heart disease?

A

Decrease myocardial oxygen requirements and may precondition the myocardium to tolerate ischemic events

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52
Q

What is the dentrimental effect of volatile anesthetics with ischemic heart disease?

A

Lead to a decrease in blood pressure and an associated reduction in coronary perfusion pressure.

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53
Q

Why is glycopyrrolate preferred over atropine?

A

Less chronotropy and central effect than atropine

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54
Q

What are the two most commonly used leads for monitoring? Why?

A

II, V5 because it gives us the best picture of the heart.

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55
Q

What are the leads for the circumflex?

A

I, aVL

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56
Q

What are the leads for the RCA?

A

II, III, aVF

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57
Q

What are the leads for the LAD?

A

V3-V5

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58
Q

Name several criteria associated with difficult airway?

A
  1. Large upper incisors
  2. Strong overbite
  3. Inability to protrude mandible
  4. Small-incisor distance (<6 cm)
  5. Mallampati 3 or 4
  6. Large tongue
  7. Narrow or high-arched palate
  8. Short thyromental distance (<6.5 cm)
  9. Excessive mandibular soft tissue
  10. Short, thick neck
  11. Decreased cervical ROM
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59
Q

What four things would warrant an awake intubation?

A
  1. Suspected difficult ventilation with face mask/supraglottic airway
  2. Significant increased risk of aspiration
  3. Increased risk of rapid desaturation
  4. Suspected difficult emergency invasive airway
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60
Q

What should you do first if you cant ventlate or intubate?

A

Put in a supraglottic airway

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61
Q

In what 3 situations would you alwayas intubate early and quickly?

A
  1. Bullets (neck trauma)
  2. Bites (anaphylaxis)
  3. Burns (thermal and caustic airway injury)
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62
Q

Which blade goes in the vallecula? Which blade goes on the epiglottis?

A

MAC ; Miller

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63
Q

What can you do to improve your view?

A

Ventilate

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64
Q

What does the black stripe on the bougie indicate?

A

25cm at the lips = mid trachea in an adult male

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65
Q

What views does the bougie help intubate?

A

Epiglottis only views (class 3 & 4 mallampati)

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66
Q

Etomidate is contraindicated in which patients or conditions?

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Hemorrhagic Shock
  3. Epilepsy
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67
Q

What are contraindications for ketamine?

A
  1. Hypertensive
  2. Tachycardic
  3. High ICP
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68
Q

Ketamine is indicated for which patients and conditions?

A
  1. Reactive airways
  2. Asthmatics
  3. Hypotension/sepsis
  4. IM RSI
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69
Q

What are the 3 physiologic killers?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Hypoxemia
  3. H+ (metabolic acidosis)
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70
Q

What BP should we shoot for before intubating?

A

SBP > 140 mmHg

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71
Q

What is the dose for rocuronium?

A

1.6 mg/kg

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72
Q

What is NO DESAT? How is it performed?

A

Nasal Oxygen During Efforts Securing A Tube; NC at 15 LPM + NRB at 15 LPM

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73
Q

What is intervention 2? What is it for?

A

Delayed Sequence Intubation

  1. Give 0.5-1 mg/kg Ketamine
  2. Preoxygenate
  3. Paralyze
  4. Apneic Oxygenation
  5. Intubate

Used for uncooperative, hypoxic, and critically ill patients

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74
Q

What is intervention one?

A

NC 15 LPM + BVM 15 LPM + PEEP (APL) Valve 5-15 cmH2O

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75
Q

What is intervention three?

A

Back Up-Head Elevated (BUHE); Don’t insist on laying everyone supine

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76
Q

When do you not move the neck to intubate?

A

Diagnosed (CT/MRI) cervical spine injury. Use fiberoptic scope and then direct larygnospy as a 3rd choice.

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77
Q

Before doing RSI on patients with high aspiration risk (GI bleed, SBO, Vomitting), what should we do?

A

NGT prior to intubation and put it to suction

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78
Q

What are the two interventions for acidosis?

A
  1. Bicarbonate
  2. Ventilator Assisted Pre-oxygenation (VAPOX)
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79
Q

What’s the first sign of MH?

A

Increased ETCO2

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80
Q

What are the key differentials that mimic MH?

A

CATS
1. Catecholamine tremor from pheochromocytoma
2. Acute porphyria crisis
3. Thyrotoxicosis (Thyroid storm)
4. Sepsis

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81
Q

How do we manage MH?

A

SHADE
1. Stop inhaled agent
2. Heat control - cold IV fluids,
3. Activated charcoal to remove residual agents from aneshetic work station
4. Dantrolene
5. Electrolytes (check!)

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82
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A

Calcionosis - Ca2+ deposits in skin
Raynaud’s - spasm of blodo vessels in response to cold or stress
Esophageal dysfxn - acid refleux, decrease in motility of esophagus
Sclerodactyly - thickening and tightening of fingers and hands, skin taut
Telangiectasias - dilation of caps causing red marks on surface of skin like freckles

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83
Q

What are some unique S/S of scleroderma?

A
  1. Limited mobility/contractures
  2. Trigeminal neuralgia
  3. Keratoconjuctivitis sicca
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84
Q

How do treat a vasospasm in the small arteries of the fingers?

A

Localize the area, Na+ channel blockade to prevent spasm
Give lido or NS

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85
Q

What is the Edrophonium/Tensilon test?

A

Improves myasthenic crisis and makes cholinergic crisis worse

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86
Q

What muscleoskeletal disease would you avoid succinylcholine and do regional over GA?

A

Pseudohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy (Duchenne’s)

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87
Q

What muscleoskeletal disease will have a serum CK 20-100x normal and weakened respiratory muscles and cough, poor reserve, and OSA?

A

Psuedohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy

88
Q

What muscleoskeletal disease is associated with fatty infiltration, waddling gait, and primarily affects boys?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

89
Q

Degenerative process affecting articular cartilage, pain relieved by rest

A

Osteoarthritis

90
Q

Which musckeloskeletal disease is degenerative and has Heberden nodes?

A

Osteoarthritis

91
Q

What type of arthritis affects proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

92
Q

What type of arthritis affects weight bearing and distal interphalangeal joints?

A

Osteoarthritis

93
Q

What joints does rheumatoid arthritis not affect?

A

T and L spines are unaffected

94
Q

What characterizes an acute cricoarytenoid arthritis?

A

Swelling and redness of the arytenoids

95
Q

What characterizes chronic arytenoid arthritis?

A

High risk for upper airway obstruction

96
Q

What musculoskeletal disease is characterized by symmetrical arthritis, polyarthritis, avascular necrosis, and no spinal involvement?

A

Lupus

97
Q

Thromobombolism, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia characterize what musculoskeletal disease?

A

Lupus

98
Q

C1-C4

A

Cervical plexus

99
Q

C5-C7

A

Interscalene

100
Q

L4-S4

A

Sacral Plexus

101
Q

How long are troponin levels elevated for?

A

Initial bump is in 3-4 hours and remains elevated for up to 2 weeks.

102
Q

Which chest pain differential has tearing back pain with EKG changes?

A

AAA

103
Q

What substances stimulate cardiac nociceptive and mechanosensitive receptors resulting in chest pain in angina pectoris?

A

Adenosine and bradykinin

104
Q

What medications are examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists?

A

Abciximab, eptifibatide (Integrillin), tirofiban

105
Q

What medication is uniquely effective for decreasing frequency/severity of spasm in Prizmental’s/variant angina?

A

Ca2+ channel blockers

106
Q

What medications are used in reperfusion therapy?

A

tPA, streptokinase, reteplase, or tenecteplase

107
Q

How long do do patients need to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty without stenting?

A

2-4 weeks

108
Q

How much is 1 MET?

A

3.5 mL/kg/min

109
Q

What are the two principal issues related to PCI with stent placement?

A
  1. Thrombosis
  2. Bleeding due to DAPT
110
Q

When should thromboyltic therapy be initiated?

A

Within 30-60 minutes of hospital arrival and within 12 hours of symptom onset.

111
Q

What is the specific pharmacologic antagonist for excessive B-blocker activity?

A

Isoproterenol

112
Q

What 2 things result from the neuroendocrine stress response from surgery?

A
  1. ↑ Heart rate
  2. Metabolic changes
113
Q

What 2 things result from the inflammatory response from surgery?

A
  1. Hypercoagulable state
  2. Plaque rupture
114
Q

The ACC/AHA algorithm recommends that a patient with a functional capacity of ____ or more METs should proceed directly to surgery.

A

4

115
Q

Which types of vWF disorder cannot be treated by DDAVP?

A

2B, 2N, and 3

116
Q

What are the CNS and ECG changes at a Na+ level of 110?

A

Seizures, coma; Vtach or Vfib

117
Q

What are the CNS and ECG changes of a Na+ level of 115?

A

Somnolence, nausea; Elevated ST segment, widened QRS

118
Q

What are the CNS and ECG changes associated with a Na+ level of 120?

A

Confusion, restlessness; widening of the QRS

119
Q

What is the normal dose for DDAVP?

A

0.3 mcg/kg in 50mL NS ovr 15-20 minutes

120
Q

What clotting labs are normal in patients with vWF disease?

A

PT and aPTT are normal in patients with vWD

121
Q

What does vWF do?

A

Plays a critical role in platelet adherence/adhesion

122
Q

What is one of the major side effects of DDAVP?

A

Hyponatremia

123
Q

Which blood product has an increased risk of infection?

A

Cryoprecipitate; Not submitted to viral attenuation

124
Q

1 unit of Cryo increases fibrinogen levels by how much?

A

50 mg/dL

125
Q

How long before surgery should DDAVP be given?

A

60 minutes

126
Q

What drugs are antifibrolytic?

A
  1. Transexamic Acid
  2. Amiocaproic acid (Amicar)
  3. Aprotinin
127
Q

What blood disease has a resistance to activated protein C?

A

Factor V Leiden

128
Q

What diagnosis should be entertained for any patient experiencing thrombosis or thrombocytopenia during or after heparin administration?

A

HIT

129
Q

How long do PF4/heparin immune complexes clear from the circulation?

A

Within 3 months

130
Q

What is the universal donor? Recipient?

A

O- ; AB+

131
Q

What are the components of whole blood?

A

cells, platelets, clotting factors, and plasma

132
Q

What are the components of packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

A

RBCs and some plasma

133
Q

What are the components of FFP?

A

Plasma, a combination of fluids, clotting factors, and proteins

134
Q

What are the components of platelet-rich plasma (PRP)?

A

platelet rich plasma.

135
Q

What is added to blood to preserve it?

A

CPDA-1
1. Citrate
2. Phosphate
3. Dextrpse
4. Adenine

136
Q

How much does Hgb and Hct increase after 1 unit?

A
  1. Increase Hgb 1g/dL (10g/L)
  2. Hct by 3%
137
Q

What is the dose for FFP?

A

10-15 mL/kg

138
Q

How much does 1 unit of FFP increase the clotting factors?

A

2-3%

139
Q

What is cryoprecipitate?

A

Protein fraction taken off the top of FFP when being thawed

140
Q

What factors does cryo contain?

A
  1. VIII: C
  2. VIII: vWF
  3. XIII
  4. Fibrinogen
141
Q

How much does 1 unit of platelets increase platelet count?

A

5,000-10,000

142
Q

How much cryo is required to raise fibrinogen concentration by 100 mg/dL?

A

2 units / 10kg of body weight

143
Q

What is the pH of plasmalyte/normosol?

A

7.4

144
Q

When would whole blood be indicated?

A

Actively bleeding > 20% of body blood volume

145
Q

What mediates a nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reaction?

A

A/b to HLA Class I Ag

146
Q

What are the mediators of hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

IgM A/b (ABO), complement

147
Q

What is the primary symptom of noncardiogenic pulmonary transfusion reaction?

A

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

148
Q

What blood products is TRALI typicaly associated with?

A

FFP, platelets, PRBCs

149
Q

What are the 5 criteria for TRALI?

A
  1. Acute onset hypoxemia
  2. Ratio of PaO2/FiO2 < 300 or spO2 < 90% on RA.
  3. Occurs within 6 hours of transfusion
  4. B/L diffuse pulmonary infiltrates
  5. No evidence of LA hypertension
150
Q

What is TACO?

A

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload

151
Q

Iron Overload

A

Transfusion-induced hemosiderosis

152
Q

What is the volume of blood loss (mL and %) in a class I hemorrhage?

A

750mL; 15%

153
Q

What is the volume of blood loss (mL and %) in a class II hemorrhage?

A

750-1500 mL; 15-30%

154
Q

What is the volume of blood loss (mL and %) in a class III hemorrhage?

A

1500-2000 mL; 30-40%

155
Q

What is the volume of blood loss (mL and %) in a class IV hemorrhage?

A

> 2000 mL; > 40%

156
Q

What is LTOWB?

A

Low-Titer O Whole Blood

157
Q

What is the definition of MTP?

A

Replacement of total blood volume in 24 hours.

158
Q

What are the fibrinogen levels of LTOWB, FFP, and Cryo?

A

LTOWB - 1000mg
FFP - 400mg
Cryo - 250mg

159
Q

What Rh is the product of choice for males?

A

Rh+

160
Q

What’s the difference between Ca2+ gluconate and Ca2+ chloride?

A

3x the amount of elemental Ca2+ in chloride than gluconate.

161
Q

Where is citrate metabolized?

A

Liver

162
Q

What decreases citrate metabolism?

A

Liver injury
Hypothermia

163
Q

How much Ca2+ do you give for a patient recieving blood transfusions?

A

1g Ca2+ for every 4-8 products

164
Q

TEG Interpretation: R

A

Reaction time, first significant clot formation
How long does it take to clot

165
Q

TEG Interpretation: a-Angle

A

Kinetics of clot development
How significant the clot becomes

166
Q

TEG Interpretation: K

A

Achievement of certain clot firmness

167
Q

TEG Interpretation: MA

A

Maximum amplitude - maxiumum strength of clot

168
Q

TEG Interpretation: LY30

A

Percent lysis 30 minutes after MA
How long does it stay in place

169
Q

TEG Interpretation: R time > 10 mins indicates a need for what type of blood product?

A

FFP

170
Q

TEG Interpretation: K time > 3 min indicates a need for what blood product?

A

Cryo

171
Q

TEG Interpretation: TEG-ACT >140 sec indicates a need for what blood product?

A

FFP

172
Q

TEG Interpretation: a-angle < 53° indicates a need for what blood product?

A

Cryo +/- platelets

173
Q

TEG Interpretation: MA < 50 mm indicates a need for what blood product?

A

platelets

174
Q

TEG Interpretation: LY30 > 3% indicates a need for what?

A

Tranexamic Acid

175
Q

A heart murmur that is primarily due to physiologic conditions outside the heart, as opposed to structural defects in the heart itself

A

Functional, physiologic, or innocent

176
Q

What murmur merges with S1 and S2?

A

Holosystolic murmur

177
Q

What murmur occurs between S1 and S2?

A

Midsystolic murmur

178
Q

What murmur follows S2?

A

diastolic murmur

179
Q

Auscultatory sites: Aortic

A

2nd ICS RSB

180
Q

Auscultatory sites: Pulmonic

A

2nd ICS LSB

181
Q

Auscultatory sites: Erb’s Point

A

3rd ICS LSB

182
Q

Auscultatory sites: Tricuspid

A

5th ICS MCL

183
Q

Auscultatory sites: AS

A

right upper sternal border

184
Q

Auscultatory sites: AR

A

left sternal border

185
Q

Auscultatory sites: MS

A

Apex

186
Q

Auscultatory sites: MR

A

Apex

187
Q

Auscultatory sites: TR

A

lower left sternal border

188
Q

What inhibits views on an echocardiogram?

A

ASD
VSD
Vegetation
Obese

189
Q

The most frequently encountered cardiac valve lesions produce ______ overload or ________ overload on the left atrium or left ventricle.

A

pressure; volume

190
Q

Symptoms of a compensatory increase in sympathetic nervous activity may manifest as _______, ________, and resting ________.

A

anxiety, diaphoresis, and resting tachycardia

191
Q

What are 3 assessment findings that are indicative of heart failre?

A
  1. Basilar rales
  2. JVD
  3. 3rd Heart Sound
192
Q

What valvular problem is associated with atrial fibrillation?

A

Mitral Stenosis

193
Q

What murmurs are heard during diastole?

A
  1. Stenosis of the mitral or tricuspid valves
  2. Incompetence of the aortic or pulmonic valves
194
Q

What murmurs are heard during systole?

A
  1. Incompetence of the mitral or tricuspid valves
  2. Stenosis of the aortic or pulmonic valves
195
Q

What does enlargement of the left atrium result in?

A

Elevation of the left mainstem bronchus

196
Q

What does a midsystolic murmur indicate?

A

Aortic Stenosis

197
Q

What does a holosystolic murmur indicate?

A

Mitral Regurgitation

198
Q

Discontinuation of anticoagulant therapy puts patients at an increased risk of thromboembolisum due to a what?

A

Rebound hypercoaguable state

199
Q

What valvular problem pimarily affects women?

A

Mitral Stenosis

200
Q

What is the normal mitral valve orifice area? At what size would symptoms develop?

A

4-6 cm2 ; <2 cm2

201
Q

What valvular problem is indicated by a rumbling diastolic mumur at the apex and an opening snap early in diastole?

A

Mitral Stenosis

202
Q

What’s the anesthetic goal for mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Normal HR
  2. Normal volume
  3. Normal aterload
203
Q

What is the primary pharmacological treatment for MS?

A
  1. Rate control - b-blockers, Ca2+ channel blockers, digoxin
  2. Left atrial pressure - diuretics
  3. Anticoagulation
204
Q

What two drugs do we avoid in mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Ketamine
  2. Histamine releasing NMBs (Pan, atra)
205
Q

What 4 heart issues is mitral regurgitation associated with?

A
  1. IHD
  2. Ruptured papillary muscle
  3. Mitral valve prolapse
  4. Cardiomyopathy
206
Q

What is the goal of anesthetic considerations for mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Improve forward LV SV
  2. Decrease regurgitant fraction
207
Q

What is the normal valve area of the aortic valve? What area would be considered severe AS?

A

2.5-3.5 cm2 ; < 1 cm2

208
Q

What’s the hallmark symptom of AS?

A

Syncope

209
Q

Thickening of the LV d/t chronic pressure overload is known as

A

concentric hypertrophy

210
Q

What ECG changes indicate possible AS?

A
  1. ST depression
  2. T wave inversion
211
Q

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is typically ineffective in patients with what valvular disorder?

A

AS

212
Q

What are the goals of anesthetic considerations for AS?

A

Prevention/avoidance of hypotension
Prevension/avoidance of decreased CO (preload dependent)
Maintain NSR

213
Q

What decreases the magnitude of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Peripheral vasodilation
214
Q

What substances can lead to morpholgy changes in the leaflets that leads to AR?

A

Anorexigenic drugs (phentermine, methamphetamine)

215
Q

What valvular problem is indicated by an early or mid-diastolic murmur and a low pitched diastolic rumble?

A

AR

216
Q

What are the three most common AR symptoms?

A

Hyperdynamic circulation

  1. Widened pulse pressure
  2. Decreased DBP
  3. Bounding pulses
217
Q

What is the primary anesthestic goal for AR?

A

Maintain forward foward LV SV

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Spring 2024 (9 decks)

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