Assessment and Criteria Flashcards

1
Q

modified dukes criteria

A

infective endocarditis if

  • pathological criteria
  • 2 major
  • 1 major and 3 minor
  • 5 minor

major criteria

  • positive blood cultures with typical organisms; strep viridians or hacek group
  • presistent bacteraemia
  • positive serology
  • positive molecular assays
  • positive echo findings
  • new valvular regurgitation

minor criteria

  • predisposing heart condition or ivdu
  • micro evidence does not meet major criteria
  • fever greater than 38
  • vascular phenomena; major emboli, splenomegaly, clubbing, splinter haemorrhages, janeway lesions, pettechiae or purpura
  • immunological phenomena; glomerulonephritis, oselr’s nodes, roth spots
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2
Q

lights criteria

A
exudate = protein >2.9g/dL (inflammation and increased vascular permeability)
transudate = protein <2.5 g/dL (increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased colloid osmotic pressure)

criteria for exudate

  • fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
  • fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
  • fluid LDH >2/3 the upper limit of normal serum LDH
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3
Q

glasgow blatchford

A

assessing need for intervention in upper gi bleed

blood urea

  • 6.5-8 = 2
  • 8-10 = 3
  • 10-25 = 4
  • > 25 = 6

haemoglobin (men)

  • 12.0-12.9 = 1
  • 10.0-11.9 = 3
  • <10 = 6

haemoglobin (women)

  • 10.0-11.9 = 1
  • <10.0 = 6

systolic blood pressure

  • 100-109 = 1
  • 90-99 = 2
  • <90 = 3

other markers

  • pulse >100 = 1
  • presentation with melaena = 1
  • presentation with syncope = 2
  • hepatic disease = 2
  • cardiac failure = 2

score or 6 or more equivalent to 50%, or higher, risk of intervention

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4
Q

rai criteria

A

staging of chronic lymphoid leukaemia

Rai stage 0

  • low risk
  • lymphocytosis: a high lymphocyte count defined as more than 15,000 lymphocytes per cubic millimeter (> 15,000/mm3)

Rai stage I

  • intermediate risk
  • lymphocytosis and lymphadenopathy

Rai stage II

  • patients are also intermediate risk
  • lymphocytosis plus an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) or enlarged spleen (splenomegaly), with or without lymphadenopathy

Rai stage III

  • patients are high-risk
  • lymphocytosis plus anaemia with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, or splenomegaly

Rai stage IV

  • high-risk
  • lymphocytosis + thrombocytopenia (< 100-103 /dL)
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5
Q

aki

A

stage 1 = 1.5-fold increase in the serum creatinine, or glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decrease by 25 percent, or urine output <0.5 mL/kg per hour for six hours

stage 2 = Two-fold increase in the serum creatinine, or GFR decrease by 50 percent, or urine output <0.5 mL/kg per hour for 12 hours

stage 3 = Three-fold increase in the serum creatinine, or GFR decrease by 75 percent, or urine output of <0.3 mL/kg per hour for 24 hours, or no urine output (anuria) for 12 hours

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6
Q

nephritic syndrome

A
  • haematuria
  • proteinuria
  • hypertension
  • oliguria
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7
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A
  • proteinuria >3.5g/24hours
  • hypoalbunimaemia <2.5g/L
  • oedema
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8
Q

glasgow pancreas score

A

3 or more positive factors detected within 48 hours of onset suggests severe pancreatitis and should prompt transfer to itu/hdu

  • Pa02 <8kpa
  • Age >55
  • Neutrophilia wbc >15
  • Calcium <2
  • Renal function, urea >16
  • Enzymes, LDH >600, AST >200
  • Albumin <32
  • Sugar, blood glucose >10
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9
Q

kings college criteria

A

liver transplant

poor prognosis if arterial ph <7.3 or all of the following;

  • INR greater than 6.5
  • serum creatinine greater than 300
  • presence of grade 3/4 encephalopathy
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10
Q

child-pugh score

A

prognosis of chronic liver disease (1,2,3 respectively)

  • total bilirubin; <34, 35-50, >50
  • serum albumin; >35, 28-35, <28
  • prothrombin time; <4, 4-6, >6
  • ascites; none, mild, moderate-severe
  • encephalopathy; none, grade 1/2, grade 3/4

one year and two year survival respectively

child-pugh A (5-6) = 100%, 85%

child-pugh B (7-9) = 81%, 57%

child-pugh C (10-15) = 45%, 35%

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11
Q

nyha functional classification

A

class 1 = Cardiac disease, but no symptoms and no limitation in ordinary physical activity, e.g. no shortness of breath when walking, climbing stairs etc.

class 2 = Mild symptoms (mild shortness of breath and/or angina) and slight limitation during ordinary activity.

class 3 = Marked limitation in activity due to symptoms, even during less-than-ordinary activity, e.g. walking short distances (20–100 m), comfortable only at rest

class 4 = Severe limitations. Experiences symptoms even while at rest. Mostly bedbound patients.

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12
Q

ckd classification

A

based on glomerular filtration rate (ml/min/1.73m2)

stage 1 - >= 90
stage 2 - 60-89
stage 3a - 45-59
stage 3b - 30-44
stage 4 - 15-29
stage 5 - <15
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13
Q

curb 65

A
  • C Confusion (abbreviated mental test score <= 8/10)
  • U Urea >7 mmol/L
  • R Respiration rate >= 30/min
  • B Blood pressure: systolic <= 90 mmHg and/or diastolic <= 60 mmHg
  • 65 Aged >= 65 years
  • score of 0 should be managed in the community
  • score of 1 should have their Sa02 assessed which should be >92% to be safely managed in the community and a CXR performed. If the CXR shows bilateral/multilobar shadowing hospital admission is advised.
  • score of 2 or more should be managed in hospital as this represents a severe community acquired pneumonia.
  • score of 4 approaching a 30% mortality rate at 30 days.
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14
Q

blood loss

A

class 1

  • blood loss <750ml
  • pulse <100bpm
  • bp same
  • pulse pressure same or increased
  • respirations 14-20/min
  • urine output >30ml/hour
  • mental state slightly anxious

class 2

  • blood loss 750-1500ml
  • > 100bpm
  • bp same
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • respirations 20-30/min
  • urine output 20-30ml/hour
  • mental state anxious

class 3

  • blood loss 1500-2000ml
  • pulse >120bpm
  • bp decreased
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • respirations 30-40/min
  • urine output 5-15ml/hour
  • mental state confused

class 4

  • blood loss >2000ml
  • pulse >140bpm
  • bp decreased
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • respirations >35/min
  • urine output negligible
  • mental state lethargic
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15
Q

centor criteria

A

sore throat antibiotic prescribing

  • history of fever
  • tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • absence of cough
  • tonsillar exudates

modified; +1 for under 15, -1 for over 44

  • less than 2 = no antibiotic or throat culture
  • 2-3 = throat culture and treat if culture positive
  • 4-5 = consider rapid strep testing and/or culture, no empiric treatment based on symptomatology alone
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16
Q

ottawa ankle rules

A

Ankle x ray required if pain in the malleolar region plus;

  • Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or tip of the medial malleolus, OR
  • Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula or tip of the lateral malleolus, OR
  • An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps.

Foot x ray series if pain in the midfoot zone plus;

  • Bone tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal (for foot injuries), OR
  • Bone tenderness at the navicular bone (for foot injuries), OR
  • An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps
17
Q

garden classification

A

hip fractures

1 - incomplete stable fracture
2- complete but not displaced
3 - complete with displacement
4 - complete with no contact between fragments

18
Q

salter harris classification

A

growth plate fractures in children

  • 1; slipped, along growth plate
  • 2; above, through growth plate and above through metaphysis, by far the most common
  • 3; lower, through growth plate and down through epiphysis
  • 4; through, passes from metaphysis through growth plate to epiphysis
  • 5; rammed, compression, worst prognosis, rare
19
Q

abcd2

A

transient ischaemic attack

  • age =>60
  • bp =>140mmhg
  • clinical features; unilateral weakness = 2, speech disturbance but no weakness = 1
  • duration of symptoms; > 60 minutes = 2, 10-59 minutes = 1
  • diabetes mellitus

score => 4

  • aspirin 300mg daily started immediately
  • specialist assessment and investigations within 24 hours of symptom onset
  • measures for secondary prevention introduced

score =< 3

  • specialist assessment within 1 week of symptom onset including decision on brain imaging
  • if vascular territory or pathology is uncertain, refer for brain imaging

crescendo TIAs are treated as high risk; 2 or more in a week

20
Q

hasbled

A
  • hypertension uncontrolled; >160 mmhg
  • abnormal renal function; dialysis, transplant or creatinine >200
  • abnormal liver function; cirrhosis, bilirubin >2 times normal or alp/ast/alt >3 times normal
  • stroke; prior history of stroke
  • bleeding; prior major bleeding or predisposition to bleeding
  • labile inr; time in therapeutic range <60%
  • elderly; age >65
  • prior alcohol or drug usage history
  • medication; antiplatelets, nsaids

score => 3 is high risk

21
Q

chads2vasc

A
  • congestive hear failure of lv dysfunction = 1
  • hypertension; treated or above 140/90 = 1
  • age >= 75 = 2
  • diabetes mellitus = 1
  • prior stroke, tia or thromboembolism = 2
  • vascular disease = 1
  • age 65-74 = 1
  • sex; female = 1

0 (male) or 1 (female) = low risk therefore no oral anticoagulation

1 (male) = moderate risk therefore oral anticoagulation should be considered

2 = high risk therefore oral anticoagulation is recommended

22
Q

west haven classification system

A

hepatic encephalopathy

  • grade 0; no clinically overt cognitive dysfunction
  • grade 1; altered mood/behaviour, sleep disturbance, impaired performance
  • grade 2; lethargy or apathy, disorientation, asterixis, ataxia
  • grade 3; somnolence, semi-stupor, responsive to verbal stimuli, hyper-reflexia
  • grade 4; coma with/without response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture