ASP136 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Define asexual reproduction

A

The copying and proliferation of an organisms own genetic material. This DOESN’T involve the fusion of gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Suggest advantages of asexual reproduction.

A
  • It is simple and fast, because it only involves the participation of one organism; the parent organism.
  • It involves less wastage of genetic material. As many sperm are lost during sexual reproduction as only one is required to fertilize the egg.
  • Reproduction is always guaranteed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Successful Fertilization?

A

When an intact single parental genome is passed on to the progeny.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 organisms which reproduce asexually.

A
  • Sponges
  • Cnidaria
  • Plathyhelminthes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are males produced from asexual reproduction?

A

One chromosome is randomly inactivated (XX = Females) (XO = Males)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name two ways an organism reproduces asexually

A

Fragmentation/Regeneration and Budding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factor limits whether an organism is generated through fragmentation?

A

The size of the fragment which was cut off the parent organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Binary Fission and in what organisms does it occur?

A

When an individual organism duplicates its genetic material and splits into two, generating two daughter organisms of the same size. This commonly occurs in Prokaryotes and some single celled Eukaryotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the process of fragmentation/regeneration

A

Fragmentation is the process by which a body part of the parent organism is removed. Each individual fragment then has the potential to generate an adult however this is limited by the size of the fragement initially cut off. Regeneration follows fragmentation as the body part removed from the parent grows back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the process of budding.

A

Budding is the process by which and organism grows out of the body of the parent. This occurs as a specialized mass of cells develops on the parent organism forming the bud, the offspring then develops from the bud eventually detaching or remaining attached to form aggregates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Parthenogenesis and how does it occur?

A

The process of reproduction which doesn’t involve fertilization. This occurs as the females have unfertilized eggs that are not haploid thus generate offspring. This occurs as the females DNA is Diploidised (Duplicated) producing a diploid egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why doesn’t Pathenogenesis occur in humans?

A

Humans have imprinted genes. This follows that humand inherit two copies of a gene (one maternal and one paternal chromosome) and only one is expressed (the working gene). If humans were to reproduce via parthenogensis then we would inherit either two maternal genes or two paternal genes. These may then not be expressed or they may both be expressed, thus causing problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What two factors of sexual reproduction allow variation?

A

Recombination and Segregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gametes are produced by what type of cellular division?

A

Meiosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 3 phenomena are key for Sexual Reproduction?

A

Gametogenesis
Mating
Fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is more efficient, Internal or External reproduction and why?

A

Internal reproduction. External reproduction requires the gametes to be transported in a liquid medium, usually water. This gives rise to a variety of transportation difficulties influenced by factors such as Wave motion, Wave speed, predation (as eggs are rich in protein) ect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between indirect and direct internal fertilization?

A

Indirect fertilization involves the male depositing a sperm packet, called a spermatophore, on the ground for the female to ‘pick up’.
Direct fertilization involves the copulation of the male and female allowing the direct transfer of sperm to the egg, either freely or in a spermatophore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Haemocoelic penetration/Traumatic insemination.

A

The process by which sperm is injected into the femal abdominal cavity (Haemocoel) to then travel to the reproductive system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do octopuses reproduce?

A

Direct reproduction. The third arm of the octopus is inserted into the female. Sperm then travels along the arm to the tip. The tip breaks off inside the female once the sperm has travelled to the then. The male often cannot survive losing the arm and if it does it is often killed by the female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the Lucerne flea (Sminthorius Viridis) reproduce?

A

Indirect reproduction. The male deposits a spermatophore on the ground. The spermatophore is a stalk with a liquid packet on the top containing the sperm and some nutritional fluid to prevent desication (drying up). The males then direct the females towards the spermatophore. She then moves back onto it to achieve fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do Hermaphrodites reproduce? Specifically Leopard Slugs.

A

Hermaphrodites are often not self fertilizing, they often exchange sperm with a mate as eggs are too expensive (require a lot of energy to make). They then use the sperm from the mate to fertilize their own eggs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why would you see black spots in the reproductive tract of a female Bean Weevil?

A

The male Bean Weevils have spikes on their penises, as a result the female becomes incredibly damaged during copulation. The black spots are sites of Melanin as insects use melanin to repair wounds. Virgin females dont have these spots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is sexually antagonistic co-evolution? Give an example where this is seen.

A

It is an ‘arms race’ as such between the sexes to ensure maximum frequency of fertilization. It is seen in Bean Weevils as the males damage the female reproductive tract during copulation due to spikes on the penis. This means the female is less likes to reproduce again, therefore the female only uses that one males sperm to fertilize her eggs before she dies. This is described as being sexually antagonistic co-evolution as mating behaviour is detremental to the females fitness, as male fitness increases, female fitness decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is paternal monopulization and how could it be prevented? give an example.

A

The black widow spider. After copulation the female black widow spider eats the male (cannibalism). This could be for nourishment to ensure the maximum survival rate for the female and the offspring or it could be to prevent paternal monopulization. This is the process by which many females are injected with the same males sperm thus cannibalism ensures genetic variability in the entire population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is sexual reproduction hijacking? give an example where this occurs.

A

When the sexual reproduction of one species is prevented (hijacked) by that of another. This occurs as a result of the bacterium Wolbacha. Wolbacha kill the males in an infected species or they induce parthenogenisis allowing them to become present in the progeny. These can be treated suing antibiotics as they’re bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does spermatogenesis take place?

A

Seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe spermatogenesis

A

Primordial germ cells migrate into the gonad during Embryogenesis. They then differentiate into Spermatogonia. Spermatogonia proliferate by mitosis next to the basement membrane of the stratified epithelium lining the seminiferous tubules. Spermatogonia undergo meiosis 1. In the prophase of meiosis 1, Primary Spermatocytes are produced, here crossing over occurs. Upon completion of meiosis 1 secondary spermatocytes are produced containing a haploid number of duplicated chromosomes. Meiosis 2 then occurs producing early spermatids containing a haploid number of unduplicated chromosomes. These differentiate by Spermiogenesis into mature sperm cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Spermiogensis

A

This is the differentiation of the early spermatid into a sperm cell. Here, there is a reduction in the quantity of cytoplasm in the early spermatid and and elongation of the head to form the flagella. The sperm are then released into the lumen where they travel up the Vas deferens into the widened ampulla. The sperm then travel to the seminal vesicles where they’re stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Sperm hetromorphism and why may it be useful?

A

This is when the male produces two types of sperm with different phenotypes. Usually one form is complete whilst the other is incomplete. This could be useful as it makes the female think she has a lot of sperm so she wont mate with other males. Also some female reproductive systems have hostile parts which attack invading cells so the incomplete sperm act as shields to allow the complete sperm to travel through the reproductive tract safely.

30
Q

What controls Spermatogenesis?

A

Hormones. Gn-HR is secreted by the Hypothalamus. This stimulates the production of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary gland.
LH stimulates leydig cells to secrete testosterone which stimulates spermatogenesis.
FSH stimulates the development of seminiferous tubules, along with stimulated spermatogenesis due to the secretion of testosterone from leydig cells.

31
Q

What controls oogenesis?

A

Hormones. Gn-RH is secreted by the hypothalamus. This stimulates the production of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary gland.
LH stimulates maturation of follicles, estrogen and progesterone and ovulation.
FSH stimulates the development of follicles and secretion of estrogen.

32
Q

Where is the nucleus of the egg?

A

The Animal hemisphere

33
Q

Where are the nutrients for the egg?

A

The Vegetal hemisphere

34
Q

What hemishphere does sperm enter in amphibians and what process occurs?

A

The Animal hemisphere. The cortex then rotates, exposing the gray crescent.

35
Q

What are the 3 patterns of embryonic cleavage?

A
  • Complete
  • Incomplete-discoidal
  • Incomplete-superficial
36
Q

What factors influence the pattern of embryonic cleavage?

A

The amount of yolk and the position of the mitotic spindle.

37
Q

Define radial cleavage

A

Mitotic spindles form at right angles or parallel to animal-vegital axis

38
Q

Define spiral cleavage

A

mitotic spindles form at diagonal angles to the a/v axis

39
Q

Define rotational cleavage

A

First division is parallel, second is at right angle ect.

40
Q

Where in the embryo does gas/water exchange occur?

A

Chorion

41
Q

Where in the embryo is waste stored?

A

Allantois

42
Q

Why is early development under maternal control?

A

Because zygotic cytoplasm comes from the mother.

43
Q

What is Genomic Activation?

A

The transition from maternal control to zygotic control.

44
Q

Give an example of induction in Amphibians

A

Cells moving over the dorsal lip of the blastopore (Spemann organiser) induce underlying ectoderm to form neural tissue.

45
Q

Give an example of induction in Birds

A

Cells moving over Hensen’s Node are induced to form the CNS

46
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome occurs due to…

A

Deletion of Paternal chromosome 15

47
Q

Angelman Syndrome occurs due to…

A

Deletion of Maternal chromosome 15

48
Q

What two features allow cloning by nuclear transfer?

A

The nucleus of every somatic cell contains a complete copy of the individual’s genome.
A fertilised egg is totipotent.

49
Q

What 3 factors can cause morphological changes?

A
  • Mutations in genes that regulate development.
  • Changes in the spatial expression of developmental genes.
  • Changes in the temporal expression of developmental genes.
50
Q

What is heterochrony?

A

Developmental change in the rate and time of events.

51
Q

Define physiology

A

Analysis of the function of living organisms.

52
Q

What is the medical term for a problem due to low atmospheric oxygen concentrations?

A

Hypoxia

53
Q

How have colonies at high altitudes adapted to low oxygen concentrations?

A

They’re able to increase RBCs through erythropoiesis by making EPO (erythropoietin)

54
Q

Where and when is EPO secreted?

A

Secreted by the kidneys during low Oxygen concentrations. Secreted in the proximal and distal convoluted tubules and the collecting duct.

55
Q

Why do diuretics cause weight loss?

A

Due to an increased rate of urine flow and sodium excretion to adjust volume and compensation of body fluids.

56
Q

Name two aspects of physics that effect physiology.

A

Gravity

SA:V ratio

57
Q

What is allometry

A

the study of differential growth. Deciphers how physiological processes scale with body size and with eachother.

58
Q

What is ontogenetic allometry?

A

The allometry during the growth of a single organism.

59
Q

What is static allometry?

A

The allometry between different organisms within a species

60
Q

What is evolutionary allometry?

A

The allometry between different organisms of different species.

61
Q

Name 4 ways what heat diffuses from the body.

A

Radiation (60%)
Conduction (3%)
Convection (15%)
Evaporation (22%)

62
Q

What is the difference in body temperature in poikilotherms and homeotherms?

A

Poikilotherms’ body temperature fluctuates with changes to the external environment. Homeotherms body temperature is held constant across a range of external temperatures.

63
Q

What is the difference between ectotherms and endotherms.

A

in ectotherms the majority of body heat is derived from the environment. In endotherms, the body heat is generated from the organisms own metabolism.

64
Q

How does countercurrent heat exchange help warm the body?

A

Warm blood in arteries passed by cold blood in veins, the heat is transferred so cold blood isn’t returned to the heart.

65
Q

What is thermogenin

A

A protein found in brown fat which allows mitochondria to use a different energy route that bypasses ATP production so the energy is released as heat.

66
Q

What does thyroxin do and where is it released?

A

Hypothalamus. Increases metabolic rate.

67
Q

What’s the difference between hypertonic and hypotonic?

A

A hypertonic solution is more concentrated so water moves out of cells causing them to shrink.
A hypotonic solution is less concentrated than inside the cell so water moves into the cells by osmosis causing them to swell.
Isotonic is balanced.

68
Q

Factors affecting the speed of osmosis.

A

The size of ions passing through the membrane.
Temperature.
Electrical conduction.
Concentration gradient.

69
Q

What does TMAO do in sharks?

A

TMAO acts as a counteracting solute to preserve protein functions in high concentrations of urea.

70
Q

Whats the difference between stenohaline and euryhaline?

A

Stenohaline means they can tolerate a narrow range of salinities in the external environment.
Euryhaline means they can tolerate a wide range of salainites of the external environment.