Articles PE Flashcards

1
Q

What can be found out comparing IRRs of Global Private Equity and the MSCI ACWI by Vintage Year?

A

Private equity returns have been higher than the MSCI for every single vintage year.

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2
Q

MSCI ACWI

A

The MSCI ACWI is a market capitalization weighted index designed to provide a broad measure of equity-market performance throughout the world. The MSCI ACWI is maintained by Morgan Stanley Capital International (MSCI) and is comprised of stocks from 23 developed countries and 24 emerging markets.

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3
Q

What is the largest part of global private equity?

A

U.S. buyout funds

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4
Q

How have U.S. buyout funds performed?

A
  • they have outperformed the S&P 500 by a fairly wide margin.
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5
Q

What is an appropriate benchmark to use for buyout find investments?

A
  • The S&P 500.

- Assume that the market risk inherent in a portfolio of buyout funds is equivalent to having a beta of 1.2

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6
Q

How are the expected returns for buyout funds going to be?

A
  • expected to be lower than the past (buyout earnings yields are relatively low today)
  • buyout fundraising has been substantial over the last five year and the higher fundraising has been associated with lower subsequent returns
  • probably buyout firms will now be still able to outperform the S&P 500, they have been able to do so the last 25 years.
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7
Q

Have buyout funds historically outperformed public market indices?

A

Yes, even more recently. The remains true even after making reasonable adjustments for leverage (beta).

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8
Q

What is the relation of a fund’s track record to capital flows into individual GPs and the overall GP survival?

A
  • fund flows are positively related to past performance
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9
Q

What happens in boom times of the PE industry?

A
  • new partnerships are more likely to be started in periods after the industry has performed especially well.
  • funds that were started boom times, however, are less likely to raise follow-on funds.
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10
Q

Which factors make it difficult for new funds to compete with existing funds and what explains the heterogeneity in performance of the existing funds?

A
  • many practitioners assert that private equity investors have proprietary access to particular transactions. (Better GPs may be able to invest in better investments)
  • Good GPs provide better management or advisory input
  • better VCs get better deal terms (e.g. lower valuations) when negotiating with startups because the startup accepts these terms for getting superior management, advisory, or repetitional inputs.
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11
Q

TVPI

A

cumulative total value to paid-in capital

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12
Q

DPI

A

distributed total value to paid-in capital

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13
Q

When does performance of PE increase in the cross-section?

A
  • performance increases with the GP’s experience and decreases with funds size (concave relation to size)
  • GP’s track record is positively related to the GP’s ability to attract capital into new funds.
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14
Q

Would a successful GP chose to grow the fund?

A
  • not necessarily because GPs might not easily scale up investments by putting more money in any particular deal or investing in more companies because other inputs such as time and advice are more important.
  • could be difficult to hire partners of the same quality as the existing partners
  • number of good startups in the economy is limited at each point in time.
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15
Q

PIPOs

A

private IPO transactions

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16
Q

What do managers do so that a company becomes a unicorn? (Unicorn is good for the company for PR reasons etc.)

A

At some companies managers manipulate the market valuation by acquiescing (hinnehmen) to complicated and onerous (mühsam) financing conditions from VC firms that enable them to attract a sufficient amount of new capital.

17
Q

How is the value of a start-up boosted?

A

In exchange for receiving terms that eliminate much of their downside risk, the participants in this new funding round may be wiling to accept higher valuations than would be justified by the fundamental economic activity of the firm.

18
Q

What are the disadvantages of complex financing terms?

A
  • complications for the firm to raise additional capital in further rounds
  • potential investors in subsequent funding rounds will pressure the firm to offer them similar or even more favorable terms than those provided to earlier investors.
19
Q

What is the advantage of complex financing terms?

A
  • most cost-effective way for the firm to raise capital as long as the value of the new venture continues to increase
20
Q

What is a ratchet? = Anti-Dilution Provision

A
  • adjusts the conversion ratio from preferred stock to common stock and provides additional share to the investor if certain pricing benchmarks in the IPO are not achieved.
  • protect investors against share price declines that occur during subsequent fundraising rounds or an IPO
21
Q

What is a drawback of a ratchet for the venture?

A
  • because the ratchet provides a return guarantee the ratchet moves some investors which have a ratchet to want the venture to sell less than the anticipated IPO value
22
Q

Primary documents that determine the structure of VC investments?

A

term sheet and the definitive agreements.

23
Q

term sheets

A

non-binding agreements between the investors and the company that mark the formalization of negotiations.
- provide an outline of the major terms that will be incorporated into the definitive agreements

24
Q

definitive agreements

A

final contracts that govern the terms and conditions that legally bind the company and the investors in a VC transaction
- specification of the securities

25
Q

Who are common stockholders?

A
  • residual claimants in the sense that their claims on the company’s cash flows are subordinated to government claims, taxes, pensions and other regulated employee claims, accounts payable, debt payments, and preferred stock
  • not used by VC because downside risk of acquisition offer to venture which is below price they invested
26
Q

what is preferred stock?

A

provides an ownership position in the company that is senior in priority to common stock holders

27
Q

redeemable preferred stock

A

= straight preferred stock

  • FV (initial investment) that must be repaid upon maturity
  • usually provides a dividend payment in cash or PIK shares of preferred stock (in growth stages, venture-backed companies rarely pay cash dividends, which are instead accrued and paid out upon the successful completion of a liquidation event
  • not convertible into common stock –> no participation in any increases in company value –> VS rarely commit their capital using preferred security
28
Q

convertible preferred stock

A
  • can be exchanged for common stock –> protection from downside risk and upside potential in the firm
  • usually carries a mandatory conversion provision that becomes effective if the company completes a successful IPO exceeding the minimum price
29
Q

participating convertible preferred stock (PCPS)

A
  • gives investors a preference payment and a payout tied to their percentage of net proceeds
  • preference payment = FV of preferred stock + dividends that accrued –> PCPS converts into common stock –» (FV of sec + ownership% in firm *(acquisition offer-preference payment)
  • mandatory conversion upon the completion of a successful IPO
30
Q

What harm can the rights of preferred shareholders create?

A
  • transfer wealth, but also destroy wealth by:
  • delaying future fundraising
  • causing distractions for management
  • diminishing managers’ incentives to remain with the firm (waterfall analysis could lead management finding out that they will not get good compensation)
  • -> loss of key management can destroy firm value
31
Q

Contracting terms for VC used in practice?

A
  • many firms provide VCs with liquidation preferences over common stocks
  • some IPO protection terms
  • almost none full ratchet, many weighted average protection
32
Q

What can be done to not destroy value?

A
  • caps on preference payments to VCs
  • eliminate preference payments upon the achievement of certain operating objectives
  • amendments after the fact (after the waterfall analysis)
  • -> bonus plan (carve out) to provide financial incentive for management or regreenings for all the employees
  • -> enlargement of the option pool combined with the issuance of new options
33
Q

Which VCs are especially active?

A
  • VCs with partners that have prior business experience are more active recruiting managers and directors, helping with fundraising and interacting more frequently with their portfolio companies.
  • independent VC firms are also more active than captive VC like banks, corporate or government owned firms.
34
Q

Four measures of activism

A
  • recruiting the management team
  • assembling the company’s board of directors
  • provides assistance with obtaining additional financing
  • how often it interacts with a portfolio company
35
Q

Is there a relationship btw. investor activism and the success of portfolio companies?

A

Yes there is a positive relationship

36
Q

Which funds are likely to outperform the industry in the future?

A

Those which have done so in the past. Funds are positively related to past performance.

  • This is because private equity investors have proprietary access to particular transactions (Better GPs are able to invest in better investments).
  • GPs provide advisory inputs and some GPs are better than others in doing so
  • better VCs get better deal terms (e.g. lower valuation) when negotiating with startups. A startup would be wiling to accept these terms if some investors provide superior management, advisory or reputational inputs.
37
Q

When are new partnerships likely to be started?

A

In periods after the industry has performed especially ell. But funds and partnerships that are raised in boom times are less likely to raise follow-on funds suggesting that these funds perform poorly.

38
Q

How is performance linked to find size?

A

It is concave. Decreasing returns to scale.

39
Q

Why are some gains in operating CF greater for some VC firms?

A

because they replace the CEO soon after the buyout.

- larger the debt the more tax benefits, reduction in agency costs