Arrhythmias & EKG (Giudici) Flashcards

1
Q

Class 1a antiarrhythmic drug that blocks the fast inward sodium channel, prolonging the action potential duration and QT interval

A

quinidine; used primarily for atrial fibrilation and ventricular tachycardia, causes diarrhea, metabolized in the liver by cyt p450

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2
Q

drug with similar uses as quinidine, that is primarily a sodium channel blocker but may also block outward potassium channels

A

procainamide; used for acute atrial fibrilation (especially WPW syndrome) and “VT storm” but may cause rashes, myalgias, lupus

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3
Q

class 1a drug that is a sodium channel blocker, and shows vagolytic activity (ie, can increase SA and AV nodes)

A

disopyramide; used for atrial fibrilation (especially hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) and has anticholinergic side effects (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention)

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4
Q

drug used to treat brugada syndrome and early repolarization syndrome

A

quinidine

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5
Q

drug formerly used to treat VT, still an option for bedside conversion of AFib or VT storm when other options fail

A

procainamide

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6
Q

good drug in women over 40 with atrial tachyarrhythmias, esp if bradycardic

A

disopyramide

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7
Q

class 1b drug used acutely for arrhythmias associated with acute MI and is given only intravenously

A

lidocaine; very narrow therapeutic window and shortens QT interval

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8
Q

drug used in adjunct with amiodarone or sotalol, and works to shorten the QT interval

A

lidocaine

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9
Q

considered the oral form of lidocaine - used with amiodarone or sotalol and in automatic arrhythmias and it works to shorten the QT interval

A

mexilitine; liver metabilized, take with meals

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10
Q

sodium channel blocker that has use-dependence, is good for women, and is metabolized in the liver

A

propafenone

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11
Q

Which two heart rhythm drugs can raise your INR, making warfarin more effective?

A

amiodarone and propafenone

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12
Q

used in healthy people for premature atrial/ventricular contractions, AFib and outflow tract arrhythmias (NOT FLUTTER); has both renal and hepatic metabolism

A

flecainide

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13
Q

drug that has sodium, potassium and calcium channel blocking properties which was developed as an antianginal

A

ranolazine

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14
Q

class of drugs that is lipophilic and hydrophilic, and has a variety of uses including hypertension and cardiac arrythmias

A

beta blockers

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15
Q

what are the benefits of the beta blocker nadolol?

A

long half life and low lipophilicity (no CNS side effects)

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16
Q

drug with intrinsic sypathomimetic activity, used for its beta nonselectivity to treat conditions in young healthy people (ie neurogenic syncope)

A

pindolol

17
Q

first beta blocker, heavy hitter psych drug and also used for tremors

A

propranolol

18
Q

alpha and beta blocker used for the treatment of HTN for its vasodilation and sympathomimetic activity; safe for use during pregnancy

A

labetolol

19
Q

one drawback of many beta blockers is that they have ____ effects, including weight gain, inhibition of lypolysis, and insulin resistance

A

metabolic

20
Q

major advantage of this alpha/beta blocker is that it improves insulin sensitivity compared with metoprolol and atenolol

A

carvedilol

21
Q

major advantage of this beta blocker is that it improves cardiac output, ejection fraction and stroke volume when compared to atenolol

A

nebivolol

22
Q

Which of the following beta blockers is INCORRECTLY matched with its FDA approved use?

A. Propranolol: urgent treatment of tachycardia

B. Acebutalol: pre-ventricular contraction control

C. Esmolol: Perioperative supraventricular tachys

D. Sotalol: Recurrent AF

E. Atenolol: hypertension

A

A. Propanolol is used for general tachycardia, ventricular rate control in AF, PVC control and drug-induced tachycardia

Esmolol, in addition to perioperative SVTs, is indicated for urgent treatment of tachycardia.

23
Q

Which of the following drugs does NOT have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A. Pindolol

B. Acebutolol

C. Nadolol

D. Alprenolol

E. Carteolol

A

C

24
Q

alpha/beta blocker with ISA used to treat HTN, malignant HTN and pheochromocytoma

A

labetalol

25
Q

pulmonary-friendly calcium channel blocker metabolized in the liver that blocks AV node and is used for multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)

A

verapamil

26
Q

renal metabolized calcium channel blocker that is readily available in IV and PO and is very synergistic with beta blockers

A

diltiazem

27
Q

type of tachycardia that is most common in children and women and can be treated with beta blockers or antiarrhythmics (e.g., flecainide, propafenone, disopyaramide, verapamil)

A

automatic atrial tachycardia

28
Q

type of tachycardia most often seen in kids that is difficult to treat, may be able to treat successfully with verapamil, flecainide or carefully performed ablation therapy

A

junctional tachycardia

29
Q

type of tachycardia that is usually present in young women that is usually treated successfully with ISA beta blockers and ivabradine

A

sinus tachycardia. can treat with adenosine, verapamil, and dilitiazem (also ibutilide used for conversion of actue atrial flutter). nonpharmacological interventions - ice water, valsalva, carotid sinus massage

30
Q

drug best used to treat multifocal atrial tachycardia (various p wave morphologies)

A

verapamil

31
Q

At this point i’m checking out. But Giudici just said if it’s more than 150 bpm, it’s _____ flutter. And you should always look for P waves. (Uh, ok, great.)

A

atrial