APS MCC Flashcards

1
Q

How does the pressurization system work in normal operation?

A

Fully automatic

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2
Q

In the Cabin Pressurization System, the function of the safety valve is;

A

To protect against excessive differential pressure.

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3
Q

The bleed air needed for the aircraft can be obtained from:

A

Engine bleed, APU Bleed, Ground High pressure connector

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4
Q

How can the yellow hydraulic line pressurized?

A

Through an engine driven pump, With an electric pump, Manually with a handpump (on the ground)

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5
Q

What’s the normal pressure in the hydraulic System?

A

3000psi

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6
Q

The PTU transfers;

A

Pressure from one system to other system in case of loss of pressure.

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7
Q

Which is the correct priority for electrical sources regarding A320?

A

Engine generators, External Power, APU Generator

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8
Q

How many electrical generators are in an Airbus a320?

A

2 AC generators from the engines, An auxiliary AC generator from the APU, An emergency generator from the RAT

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9
Q

In normal flight conditions, the BLUE hydraulic system is powered by;

A

An electrically driven pump

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10
Q

How can we insert a holding in a certain point in the FPLN page?

A

Using the lateral revision function in a point

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11
Q

To modify a constraint in the FPLN page of the MCDU, it is done:

A

With a vertical revision in a point

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12
Q

How is the A/THR disconnected?

A

Setting Thrust levers to IDLE, Using the instinctive PB

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13
Q

Regarding flight control laws protections (in normal law, no failures)…

A

In normal law, if we enter an overspeed condition, the high speed protection will activate and command a pitch up to exit the overspeed condition.

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14
Q

Rudder will only be used for…

A

runway centerline alignment during a crosswind takeoff and landing and in case of engine failure for yaw compensation

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15
Q

Choose the correct answer regarding the “Minimum Fuel” declaration:

A

The PIC shall declare Minimum Fuel when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, any change or further delay may result in landing with less than the final reserve

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16
Q

For the A320 family, which of these protections are available in normal law?

A

Load factor, Bank Angle, Overspeed protection, High angle of attack, Pitch protection

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17
Q

You are expecting a VOR app at your Destination Alternate. For planning purposes, which planning minima should you consider?

A

Required RVR/VIS +800m and required DH/MDH +200ft

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18
Q

You are in-flight descending towards Destination. When reaching the IAF, the reported RVR/VIS is below the applicable minima for the type of approach you are going to perform.

A

You may start the approach regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. However, the approach should not be continued below 1000ft AAL unless the RVR/VIS is reported to be above the required minima

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19
Q

Which is the priority on managing errors?

A

Avoid, trap and mitigate

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20
Q

Acquisition of situational awareness is a process of 3 stages. The correct order is:

A

Perception, comprehension and prediction

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21
Q

Which are the available barriers against errors and threats:

A

SOPs, checklists and callouts.

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22
Q

Which is the correct definition for startle effect?

A

It is a reflex action of the body towards an unexpected stimulus.

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23
Q

What is important in a briefing?

A

to create an environment without distractions, to create a shared situational awareness, to identify possible threats and create means to mitigate their possible consequences

24
Q

Regarding the Decision-Making Process Guide:

A

we must always prioritize ensuring a safe flight path prior to executing the ECAM

25
Q

Which of these statements is true regarding a flexible takeoff?

A

Flexible takeoff is a method to reduce the thrust that the engine will provide for takeoff by assuming a thrust that the engine would give for a specific OAT (flexible temperature).

26
Q

When should you not perform a Flex T/O?

A

On contaminated runways, When Windshear is reported, When the calculated Flex Temperature is below Tref

27
Q

In normal operation, the PF is mainly responsible for;

A

Flight path management and navigation

28
Q

Normal checklists shall normally be initiated by;

A

PF request

29
Q

As a general rule, when the autopilot is not engaged, the Autoflight system control panel selections should be done by;

A

The PM upon PF request

30
Q

When could the “Cockpit preparation” checklist be requested?

A

TO Briefing performed

31
Q

What is the correct sequence of actions during the “before start” phase, “at pushback/start procedure”:

A

Confirm Ground Crew is ready, Obtain ATC Clearance, Beacon light ON

32
Q

When can the “After Start Checklist” be requested?

A

After Ground Crew hand signal confirmation

33
Q

With line-up or take-off clearance, who gives the call out to the cabin crew “CABIN CREW TAKE YOUR SEATS FOR TAKE OFF”?

34
Q

When can the “Acceleration flow pattern” be performed during the take off phase?

A

After cleaning up the flaps to 0

35
Q

While climbing, at 10.000 ft , the SEAT BEATS sign should be set to:

36
Q

The approach preparation shall ideally be started:

A

Around 80NM before the TOD

37
Q

When can the “Approach Checklist” be requested?

A

After the altimeters crosscheck when setting QNH and with the “FL100 checks” performed

38
Q

Regarding aircraft configuration during the approach, Flaps 2 must be set at last at altitude:

A

At 2000 ft at the latest

39
Q

For the stabilization criteria, the following shall be satisfied;

A

Aircraft on the correct lateral and vertical flight path, in the desired landing configuration, thrust is stabilized above idle and landing checklist is complete

40
Q

During the After Landing phase, what is the trigger action from the PF for the initiation of the PM’s flow?

A

When exterior lights are set, When disarming the GRND SPLRS

41
Q

During the landing, if the attitude reaches 11°, the PM should:

A

Call “PITCH”

42
Q

What should be the standard Call Out to transfer control to the other pilot:

A

“YOU HAVE CONTROL”

43
Q

What should be the standard Call Out from the PF when he/she decides to initiate a Go -Around?

A

“GO AROUND - FLAPS”

44
Q

Performing ECAM actions, the ECAM requests the following action “THR LEVER 2 ….. IDLE “, this action is:

A

Performed by the PF with PM confirmation

45
Q

While performing ECAM actions, after the STATUS page is read by the PM and confirmed by the PF:

A

ECAM actions are completed at this stage

46
Q

The Memory Items of an Emergency Descent are:

A

Crew Oxy Masks, Signs On, Emer Descent Initiate. If the A/THR is not active, THR Levers Idle, SPD BRK FULL

47
Q

Who is responsible of switching ON or OFF the exterior lights when airborne?

48
Q

Before starting the departure or approach briefing, the PM shall check all the data inserted in the FMGS by PF.

A

True. MCDU pages will not be deeply checked during the briefing. The briefing is used to highlight important information or threats.

49
Q

How is the Autobrake disconnected?

A

Braking using the pedals

50
Q

The Captain, using the PA system, announces “PURSER TO COCKPIT, PLEASE!” in order to:

A

Brief the Purser about any abnormality or emergency on board, using NITS

51
Q

When informing about an abnormal situation to the Senior Cabin Crew member, N.I.T.S. is used. This acronym stands for:

A

Nature, Intentions, Time, Special instructions

52
Q

Regarding the SUPPLEMENTARY procedures of normal operations:

A

These are READ & DO, and it is recommended to make comprehensive entire reading before the application of the procedure, which may be included during the briefing

53
Q

If SAT is -50°C and visible moisture during cruise phase, engine anti ice shall be:

54
Q

The first step when facing an abnormal situation is:

A

Fly, navigate, communicate

55
Q

When it is necessary to select Engine mode selector IGNITION during take off or landing?

A

When severe turbulence or heavy rain are expected

56
Q

When CPT says “STOP” during a rejected take off, PF will be: