APS Flashcards

1
Q

What methods of identification can be used when using PSR

A

The turn method
The departing aircraft method
Position report method

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2
Q

How do you identify Aircraft using the Turn method?

A

An aircraft may be identified by ascertaining its heading and, following a period of track observation, correlating the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with:
(1) the acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30°;
(2) one or more changes of heading of at least 30°‚ as instructed by another controller;
(3) one or more changes of heading of at least 30° reported by the pilot.
A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service. However, controllers should take into consideration, terrain, other surveillance returns, PSR coverage and the RoA Regulations before instructing an aircraft to alter heading.
In using the turn method the controller shall:
(1) verify that the movements of not more than one Position Indication correspond with those of the aircraft;
(2) exercise caution particularly when employing this method in areas where changes of aircraft heading are commonly made as a navigational routine.

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3
Q

How do you identify Aircraft using the Departing Aircraft method?

A

By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.

Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome.

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4
Q

How do you identify Aircraft using the Position Report method?

A

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:
(1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 NM on a particular radial from a colocated VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
(3) over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.
This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:
(1) the close proximity of other returns; or
(2) inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.
A pilot is to be informed as soon as their aircraft has been identified. When operating inside controlled airspace, the pilot of an aircraft need only be so informed if the identification is achieved by the turn method.

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5
Q

How do you identify aircraft using SSR

A

When using Mode A to identify aircraft, one of the following methods is to be employed:
(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete fourdigit code;
(2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;
(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.
Caution must be exercised when employing this method because simultaneous requests for SPI transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification.
Unless MATS Pt 2 states otherwise, aircraft displaying a conspicuity or special purpose code are not to be identified by this method.

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6
Q

When do you inform pilots of their identification and pass position information

A

SSR: inform identified, no position.

Turn method: inform identified, position required.

Position report: inform identified, no position.

Departing Aircraft: inform identified, no position.

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7
Q

How do you identify aircraft using Mode S?

A

Direct recognition of the Aircraft Identification Feature on the situation display may be used to establish surveillance identification, subject to either:
(1) correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft identification entered in the flight plan and displayed to controllers on flight progress strips; or
(2) correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft’s callsign used in a directed RTF transmission to the controller. However, controllers shall exercise particular caution when there are aircraft with similar callsigns on the frequency and shall utilise an alternative method if they have any doubt about the surveillance identification.

Whenever it is observed on the situation display that the down-linked Aircraft Identification Feature is different from that expected from the aircraft, the pilot shall be requested to confirm and, if necessary, re- enter the Aircraft Identification Feature.
If the discrepancy continues to exist following confirmation by the pilot that the correct aircraft identification has been set in the Aircraft Identification Feature, the controller shall take the following minimum actions:
(1) inform the pilot of the persistent discrepancy;
(2) assign a discrete Mode A code; and
(3) notify the erroneous Aircraft Identification Feature transmitted by the aircraft to the next control position or unit.
Transfer of identification using the Mode S Aircraft Identification Feature relies on both units having appropriate Mode S surveillance capability; therefore, it shall only be conducted in accordance with locally agreed arrangements and specified in MATS Part 2.

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8
Q

Using mode C, when is an aircraft considered to be at an assigned level?

A

An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200 ft or less from that level

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9
Q

Using mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have left a level?

A

An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400 ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;

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10
Q

What is the definition of a basic service

A

A Basic Service is an ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

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11
Q

What is the definition of a Traffic service

A

A Traffic Service is a surveillance based ATS, where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic. Controllers may provide headings and/or levels for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing; however, the controller is not required to achieve deconfliction minima, and the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance.

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12
Q

Under a TS what is normally considered to be relevant traffic?

A

Traffic is normally considered to be relevant when, in the judgement of the controller, the conflicting aircraft’s observed flight profile indicates that it will pass within 3 NM and, where level information is available, 3,000 ft of the aircraft in receipt of the Traffic Service or its level-band if manoeuvring within a level block. However, controllers may also use their judgment to decide on occasions when such traffic is not relevant, e.g. passing behind or within the parameters but diverging. Controllers shall aim to pass information on relevant traffic before the conflicting aircraft is within 5 NM, in order to give the pilot sufficient time to meet their collision avoidance responsibilities and to allow for an update in traffic information if considered necessary.

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13
Q

Can you provide a TS below the terrain safe level?

A

Subject to ATS surveillance system coverage, Traffic Service may be provided below ATC unit terrain safe levels; however, pilots remain responsible for terrain clearance at all times. Other than when following a notified instrument flight procedure, a pilot intending to descend below the ATC unit terrain safe level shall be reminded that they remain responsible for terrain clearance.

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14
Q

What is the definition of a deconfliction service?

A

A Deconfliction Service is a surveillance based ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance derived traffic information and issues headings and/or levels aimed at achieving planned deconfliction minima, or for positioning and/ or sequencing. However, the avoidance of other traffic is ultimately the pilot’s responsibility.

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15
Q

What are deconfliction minimum against uncoordinated traffic when providing a DS?

A

The deconfliction minima against unco-ordinated traffic are:
 5 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or
 3,000 ft vertically and, unless the SSR code indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge. (Note: Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code. The Mode C data of aircraft transponding code 0000 is not to be utilised in assessing deconfliction minima).
The deconfliction minima against aircraft that are being provided with an ATS by the same controller, or that have been subject to co-ordination, are:
 3 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or
 1,000 ft vertically; (2,000 ft within active MDA/MTA above FL410, and above FL290 where both aircraft are not RVSM approved); or
 500 ft vertically (subject to regulatory approval).

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16
Q

Can you provide a DS below the terrain safe level?

A

A Deconfliction Service shall only be provided to aircraft operating at or above the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, other than when a controller at an Approach Control unit provides an ATS to aircraft on departure from an aerodrome and climbing to the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, or to aircraft following notified instrument approach procedures. In all other circumstances, if a pilot requests descent below ATC unit terrain safe levels, controllers shall no longer provide a Deconfliction Service but should instead, subject to surveillance and RTF coverage, apply a Traffic Service and inform the pilot.

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17
Q

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

A

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that visual reference to the surface can be maintained and:
(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers shall not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m, controllers shall inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

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18
Q

What are the following frequencies (1) Oxford Tower (2) Oxford Ground (3) Oxford Approach/Radar (4) Oxford Director (5) D+D VHF and UHF (4) Oxford Fire.

A

Oxford Tower 133.430
Oxford Ground 121.955
Oxford Approach /Radar 125.090
Oxford Director 119.980
D+D VHF & UHF 121.5 & 243.0
Oxford Fire 121.6

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19
Q

What precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

ILS/DME/NDB Runway 19

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20
Q

What non-precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

NDB Runway 01
LOC/DME/NDB Runway 19
NDB Runway 19

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21
Q

When shall APS transmit IRVR to aircraft?

A

RVR reporting to aircraft is started:
(1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1,500 metres;
(2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system;
(3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast.

IRVR values are to be passed to aircraft at the beginning of each approach for landing and, thereafter, whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the aircraft have landed. A significant change is defined as a change in value of one increment or more. The current RVR value is also to be passed to aircraft before take-off.

Even though a pilot may have received an IRVR value from the ATIS broadcast, controllers must ensure that they pass the current value as specified above.

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22
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:
(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

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23
Q

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of an Aerodrome?

A

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation.

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24
Q

What are the threshold elevations for Runways 01 and 19? and what is the aerodrome elevation?

A

Runway 01: 249ft
Runway 19: 258ft
Aerodrome elevation: 263ft

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25
Q

What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation:

A

Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516
Frequency monitoring code: 4517
Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520

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26
Q

What is the standard missed approach to runway 19?

A

Climb straight ahead to NDB (L) OX, on passing NDB (L) OX, continue climb on QDR 166. At I-OXF DME 4 turn left to NDB (L) OX climbing as necessary to hold at 2500ft, or as directed

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27
Q

What is the standard missed approach to runway 01?

A

Climb on track 358to 1000 then climbing left turn onto track 276 to 2500 then turn left to NDB (L) OX to join hold at 2500, or as directed.

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28
Q

Describe in detail the ILS?

A

ILS/LLZ: IOXF, 108.350MHz, Runway 19

ILS/GP: IOXF, 333.950MHz, 3° glidepath, ILS Ref Datum Hgt 41 FT. ILS glidepath is not suitable for auto-coupled approaches.

DME: IOXF, 20Y 108.350MHz, (RWY 19) Zero range is indicated at THR of Runway 01 and 19. DME frequency paired with ILS I-OXF.

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29
Q

What is the NDB ident, frequency, availability, position and range?

A

Ident: OX
Frequency: 367.5kHz
Availability: 06:30-22:30 (05:30 – 21:30) Except Christmas and New Year
Position and Range: On Aerodrome, Range 25NM

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30
Q

Describe in Detail the Runway lighting for runway 01?

A

Approach lighting: Omni-directional variable intensity RTIL either side of threshold.

Threshold Lighting: Green, Light intensity high with elev green wingbars

PAPI, MEHT, Dist from THR: PAPI, Left/3°, 29 FT, 140 M

Runway Edge Lighting: Bi-directional Lighting intensity high

Runway End Lighting: HI Red

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31
Q

Describe in Detail the Runway lighting for runway 19?

A

Approach lighting: Omni-directional variable intensity RTIL either side of threshold. Coded centre-line with three crossbars. 454 M Light intensity high.

Threshold Lighting: Green, Light intensity high with elev green wingbars

PAPI, MEHT, Dist from THR: PAPI, Left/3°, 41 FT, 245 M

Runway Edge Lighting: Bi-directional Lighting intensity high

Runway End Lighting: HI Red

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32
Q

What are the runway directions and dimensions?

A

Runway 01, 1526 x 30 M - Threshold displaced by 123 M

Runway 19, 1526 x 30 M - Threshold displaced by 64 M

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33
Q

What is the published RFFS crash category ?

A

RFF Category A6

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34
Q

Describe the Oxford ATZ?

A

A circle, 2 NM radius, centred on longest notified runway (01/19),
Upper limit: 2000 FT AGL, Lower limit: SFC

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35
Q

Give examples of a category A flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill
passenger).
Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of
life is involved.

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36
Q

Give examples of a category B flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian
reasons.
Police flights under normal operational priority.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.

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37
Q

Give examples of a category C flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Royal Flights
Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

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38
Q

Give examples of a category D flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Flights carrying the:
(1) Prime Minister,
(2) Chancellor of the Exchequer,
(3) Home Secretary, or
(4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and
Development Affairs.
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.

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39
Q

Give examples of a category E flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft
engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

40
Q

What are classed as ‘normal flights’ in regard to flight priorities?

A

NORMAL FLIGHTS
* Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming
with normal routing procedures.
* Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit.
(RTF callsign “EXAM”)

41
Q

Give examples of a category Z flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Training, non-standard and other flights.

42
Q

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

A

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning
Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of
TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot
looks for conflicting aircraft visually.
Does NOT manoeuvre.

Typically 45
seconds before
the assumed
collision

43
Q

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

A

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning
Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their
existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be
given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have
been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum
necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as
soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight
path as soon as it is safe to do so.

Typically 30
seconds before
the assumed
collision

44
Q

When may approach control/APS instruct IFR flights to establish communications with Aerodrome control?

A

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

45
Q

When shall an aircraft be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft shall be instructed to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:
(1) On instructions from Approach/Aerodrome Control;
(2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 NM from touchdown (or such other range agreed with Aerodrome Control);
(3) When it appears to be dangerously positioned on final approach.

46
Q

When shall an aircraft be advised to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft is to be advised to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:
(1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed;
(2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2 NM of the approach;
(3) If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach.

47
Q

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

A

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action
If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes:
(1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue;
(2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means;
(3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

48
Q

Describe in detail the procedures for full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

A

If, after the preliminary overdue action, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

49
Q

What is the conspicuity squawk for Aeros, Royal flight helicopter, Selected Helicopter flight, Pipeline, Paradrop, ccts, FIR lost

A

Aeros: 7004
Royal Flight helicopter: 0037
Selected helicopter flight: 0035
Pipeline: 0036
Para drop: 0033
Ccts: 7010
FIR lost: 0030

50
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

A

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

51
Q

How many hours does an ATO have to file an MOR?

A

72

52
Q

What is the transition altitude at Oxford?

A

The transition altitude in the Oxford Area, specifically beneath the Daventry CTA and
beneath the London TMA, is 6000 ft. The surveillance system will convert Mode C
level information to altitudes based on this transition altitude only, regardless of the
aircraft’s geographical position.

The transition altitude elsewhere, including in the Brize Norton CTR, is 3000 ft.

53
Q

In what RPS is Oxford situated and which RPS’s are adjacent?

A

Oxford Airport is situated in the Cotswold ASR.

Due to the close proximity of Oxford Airport to the boundaries of the Cotswold (15),
Barnsley (12), Portland (13) and Chatham (12) ASRs, it is necessary to be able to
provide the regional pressure settings for all four areas. These are issued hourly by the Met. Office and available on the Met. display. The remainder are available through the FDMS.

54
Q

What is the Safety altitude to 25 and 40 NM?

A

The safety altitude within 25nm radius of Oxford Airport is 2,200ft in the NE sector,
and 2,300ft in all other directions. At 25nm or greater, ATC Oxford use 2,500ft in all
sectors and this provides a minimum safe vertical clearance of 1,000ft above any
known obstacle within a 40nm radius.

55
Q

What precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

ILS/DME/NDB Runway 19

56
Q

What non-precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

NDB Runway 01
LOC/DME/NDB Runway 19
NDB Runway 19

57
Q

Describe in detail the NDB?

A

Ident: OX
Frequency: 367.5kHz
Availability: 06:30-22:30 (05:30 – 21:30) Except Christmas and New Year
Position and Range: On Aerodrome, Range 25NM

58
Q

What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation?

A

Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516
Frequency monitoring code: 4517
Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520

59
Q

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 01.

A
  • Left hand race track pattern
  • 1 minute legs
  • LHA 2000ft
  • Inbound leg 097, outbound 277
  • Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL
  • Entry into racetrack procedure restricted to Sector 3 entry from inbound leg (097°M) of holding pattern.
  • The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity.
  • ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.
60
Q

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 19.

A
  • Right hand race track pattern
  • 1 minute legs
  • LHA 2300ft
  • Inbound leg 336, outbound 156
  • Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL.
  • The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity.
  • ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.
61
Q

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 19?

A

Runway 19 – IRVR not less than 400 m. Exceptionally, departures can be supported to as low as 350 m IRVR subject to AOC holders ‘state authorised minima’. If any doubt exists, a declaration by the pilot on the R/T that they can depart below 400 m IRVR is sufficient. Oxford is not equipped to support any departures below 350m IRVR regardless of AOC minima.

62
Q

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 01?

A

Runway 01 (or all runways if IRVR is not available) – Met Visibility not less than 350 m.

63
Q

What are the dimensions and published hours of activity of D129 Weston-on-the-Green Danger Area (paradropping site)?

A

Radius: 2NM
Levels: SFC - FL120
Hours: Monday - Friday SR - SS additional hours as notified.

64
Q

What are the procedures to be used when D129 is active?

A

If parachuting activity has been notified, this information will be passed to any aircraft requesting an instrument approach, and the following procedures shall be adopted:
*
APP/APS shall instruct all aircraft intending to fly an instrument approach to remain outside D129
*
Oxford will ensure that all aircraft transiting D129 have vacated the promulgated airspace within 10 minutes of activity notification
*
Aircraft being provided with a radar service can be vectored for an approach when para-dropping is in progress, or fly the approach and hold procedurally whilst their position is monitored by the APS controller
*
The APS controller will issue warnings if any aircraft appears to be operating, or its track indicates that it may soon be operating in close proximity to D129
*
Aircraft in receipt of a PS may be cleared for an approach as long as the pilot confirms that the aircraft will remain outside D129 at all times.

Brize Norton ATC shall co-ordinate the movement of aircraft based at EGVN in and out of the dropping zone with Oxford Radar.

All other aircraft operating to or from D129 are required to contact Oxford Radar and monitor the Oxford Radar frequency for the duration of the drop.

For high level drops (above FL85) the paradropping aircraft will be inside CAS and requires clearance from TC COWLY. The aircraft will be in communication with Swanwick Military for the portion of flight inside CAS. Separation requirements apply between D129 and other aircraft. It is the responsibility of TC NW and TC COWLY to ensure separation between D129 and inbound aircraft released to Oxford

65
Q

What is the name, radius, level and published hours of Restricted area R204?

A

Name: Long Lartin Prison
Radius: 2 NM
Levels: SFC-2200ft
Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

66
Q

What is the name, radius, level and published hours of Restricted area R214?

A

Name: Woodhill
Radius: 1.5 NM
Levels: SFC-2400ft
Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

67
Q

What is the radius, level and published hours of Croughton HIRTA?

A

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA)
Radius: 1.2 NM
Levels: SFC-2900ft
Hours: H24

68
Q

What is the radius, level and published hours of Barford St. John HIRTA?

A

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA)
Radius: 0.25 NM
Levels: SFC-600ft
Hours: H24

69
Q

What is a SUACS and who provides a SUACS for D129 and on what frequency?

A

Special Use Airspace Activity Information Service (SUACS).

RAF Brize Norton provide a SUAAIS for D129 on 119.000 MHz

70
Q

What restriction is in place when Weston on the Green is in use by gliders?

A

Weston-on-the-Green aerodrome is also used by gliders, as detailed in the Weston-on the-Green LoA. Gliding activity will be notified by the gliding club representative, and this does not constitute activation of D129.

When Weston-on-the-Green is active with gliding, Oxford shall not permit any aircraft under their control to route within 2 NM of the gliding site below 3500’ (QNH).

71
Q

What considerations is there when Compton Gliding Box is active?

A

Due to the intense gliding activity, TC controllers are not to clear aircraft to leave CAS in the vicinity of the Compton Gliding Box during the confirmed hours of the activity. Any Oxford arrivals during the Compton Gliding Box activation shall be coordinated with Oxford to remain clear.

If an Oxford departure is coordinated during the Compton Gliding Box activation, the TC SW Coordinator shall remind Oxford of the activation of the Compton Gliding Box and the need to remain clear.

72
Q

What considerations is there when Daventry Gliding Box is active?

A

For the period of the gliding competitions, TC GS Midlands shall notify Oxford ATC of the activation/deactivation of the Daventry Gliding Box. Oxford ATC may request an ATC clearance into CAS for any departure tracking northbound towards the Daventry Gliding Box. TC Midlands should endeavour to give a clearance if able to accommodate, in order to climb above the Daventry Gliding Box.

73
Q

What procedures are conducted when South Cerney paradropping is active?

A

During the notified period of parachuting activity, the South Cerney information strip is to be displayed in the Approach/Radar flight progress display. Oxford Radar shall select the South Cerney radar map overlay.

Aircraft under the control of Oxford Approach/Radar are to be informed of the activity when relevant. Oxford Radar shall not vector aircraft through the drop zone at any level except as stated below.
Oxford Approach/Radar will notify Brize Approach of departing aircraft via CONKO prior to release. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the departure may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Notwithstanding any joining clearance or instruction to remain outside CAS, Oxford Approach/Radar will not transfer departing aircraft via CONKO to Sector 23 until it is assured that they will be at or above FL90 on entering the South Cerney drop zone. This may require the aircraft to hold outside CAS.

Arriving aircraft via CONKO will be pre-noted to Brize Approach by Sector 23. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the arrival may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Oxford Approach/Radar shall not offer Sector 23 an acceptance level below FL90 and are to coordinate with Brize Approach before descending below FL90.

74
Q

Describe the Intermediate Approach area where the intermediate
approach wake turbulence separation minima apply.

A

The Intermediate Approach Area is defined as the area contained within the Oxford ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (see UK AIP AD 2.EGTK-5-1), together with a segment between 270 degrees and 015 degrees (magnetic) to a radius of 12nm from the Oxford Aerodrome Reference Point.

75
Q
A
76
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation minima that shall be applied in
the intermediate approach segment between
1. A Light and a heavy
2. A small and a heavy
3. A medium and a heavy.

A
  1. Light and Heavy - 6NM
  2. Small and Heavy - 5NM
  3. Medium and Heavy - 5NM
77
Q

What actions shall be taken when Brize have a “Super” wake turbulence category arrival.

A

If the arriving Brize aircraft is in the ‘Super’ wake turbulence category, in accordance with the Brize Norton LoA, Brize Radar must identify the arriving aircraft (AN-124, AN-225 or A380-800) to Oxford Radar. Oxford radar shall apply the correct intermediate approach wake turbulence separation when following or crossing behind the ‘Super’ aircraft at the same level or less than 1,000ft below specifically:
* Both within the intermediate approach area and while on final approach:
* Oxford ‘Light’ aircraft, 8 NM
* Oxford ‘Small’ and ‘Medium’ aircraft, 7 NM

78
Q

Under what conditions are opposite direction approaches accepted.

A

Opposite direction runway arrivals and departures are not permitted regardless of the traffic density and time, except as may be required:
*During emergencies, and
*For ILS calibration

Requests from pilots for opposite direction arrivals and departures shall be rejected. If due to aircraft limits/performance a pilot cannot land/depart on the current runway in use, the APP/APS controller shall coordinate a runway change with ADC.

79
Q

What is the ATIS frequency and DOC?

A

ATIS 136.230, 50NM

80
Q

What is the operations frequency?

A

Operations 131.640

81
Q

What shall ADC co-ordinate with APP/APS?

A

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with Approach Control:
(1) departing IFR flights; and
(2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they
are transferred to Approach Control).

Additionally:
Controllers will co-ordinate specifically:
* Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures
* Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green
* All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ
* Weather information received from aircraft in the air
* Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller
* Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and
* Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved.

During radar hours, when passing the airborne time for a VFR aircraft requesting a traffic service, ADC shall state to the APS controller that the aircraft is requesting a traffic service.

82
Q

What will APP/APS co-ordinate with ADC?

A

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control:
(1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;
(2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points; and
(3) aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit.

Additionally:
Controllers will co-ordinate specifically:
* Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures
* Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green
* All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ
* Weather information received from aircraft in the air
* Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller
* Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and
* Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved.

83
Q

Any IFR Flight (except training sorties) wishing to fly into an airport in the London TMA requires start-up approval from GS Airports. What are the list of GS airports?

A

EGGW, EGHL, EGKB, EGKK, EGLC, EGLF, EGLL, EGLK,EGMC, EGSS, EGTD, EGTF, EGTK, EGWU, EGVO.

EGHH,EGHI, EGLD are not subject to specific flow restrictions and do not require approval by GS airports however have specific routes to follow.

84
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to EGSS?

A

SILVA – SILVA 1L (BOMBO – BKY – BUSTA – LOREL)

85
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to EGGW?

A

SILVA – SILVA 1N (WOBUN – EDCOX – JUMZI – ZAGZO)

86
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LF/LK/HL/VO/TD/TF

A

KENET – CPT – CPT 1V (GOBNU – INDOX – DIXIB – LFS02 – VEXUB)

87
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to KB/LC

A

SILVA – SILVA 1C (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – CLN – JACKO)

88
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to MC?

A

SILVA – SILVA 1S (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – MAYLA – SPEAR)

89
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to KK?

A

KENET–NIGIT–BEDEK 1G (MID–TUFOZ–HOLLY–WILLO)

90
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LL/WU?

A

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

91
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to HH/HI?

A

KENET – PEPIS – SAM

92
Q

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LD?

A

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

93
Q

Which aircraft require release and what conditions apply to the release?

A

Release from APP/APS is required for:
* IFR departures
* VFR jet and twin-turboprop aircraft

A release from APP/APS is valid for 3 minutes.

When released, the IFR departure shall be the next aircraft airborne unless otherwise co-ordinated with APP/APS.

Releases for aircraft using the standard WCO or SILVA route must state “WCO” or “SILVA” in the release to confirm the routing.

To expedite departures, APS may offer, ‘line up if you can, released subject radar’, anticipating being able to issue release imminently. ADC may decline, depending on the circumstances.

94
Q

What are the standard IFR departure instructions for Runway 01 when Radar is open?

A

Runway 01:
* Turn left heading 360 degrees
* Climb to altitude 2,500 ft
* Squawk {Squawk allocated}

95
Q

What are the standard IFR departure instructions for Runway 19 when Radar is open?

A

For jet and twin-turboprop aircraft:
* “Cleared to transit the Brize Norton CTR”. Otherwise
“ROCAS”
* Climb to altitude 2,500 ft
* Squawk {Squawk allocated}

For departures whose initial point on route is WCO or SILVA:
* “Turn left on track WCO/SILVA”. Otherwise: “Turn right heading 315”
* Climb to altitude 2,500 ft
* Squawk {Squawk allocated}

96
Q

What restrictions apply to a “check all” imposed by APS?

A

APS can impose a “check all” restriction at any time. A “check all” requires that ADC obtain a release for all departing aircraft.

  • When a “check all” is imposed, ADC shall notify APS of any fixed wing or helicopter circuit traffic already airborne.
  • When a “check all” is imposed, APS may not notify ADC of all traffic operating near or in the ATZ. APS shall not permit traffic to enter the ATZ without co-ordination with ADC, unless the ATZ was clear of traffic when the “check all” was imposed.
  • When a “check all” is removed, APS shall pass any remaining pertinent traffic information.