APP

Question 1

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

Answer 1

Class D

Question 2

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

Answer 2

Temporary Control Zones: Temporary control zones will be established around aerodromes of departure and destination for a period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after the ETD, or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA at the aerodrome concerned. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. Overall control of these control zones is to be exercised, as appropriate, by the Commanding Officer of a military aerodrome or the ATS authority of a civil aerodrome.

Temporary Control Area: Temporary control areas will be established in the shape of a corridor to join temporary or permanent control zones or control areas, as appropriate, for a period 15 minutes before ETA at the start point until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the established area. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. The controlling authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC or notified ATSU.

Question 3

What is the definition of a basic service?

Answer 3

A Basic Service is an ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 4

Can you provide a Procedural Service below the terrain safe level?

Answer 4

Yes

Question 5

What is the definition of a Procedural service?

Answer 5

A Procedural Service is an ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides restrictions, instructions, and approach clearances, which if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other aircraft participating in the Procedural Service. Neither traffic information nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic

Question 6

What is essential traffic information and what elements shall it include?

Answer 6

Essential traffic is traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.

Essential traffic information passed to an aircraft shall include:
(1) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;
(2) Type of conflicting aircraft;
(3) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and
(4) Any alternative clearance.

Question 7

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of an Aerodrome?

Answer 7

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or

(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or

(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation.

Question 8

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

Answer 8

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that visual reference to the surface can be maintained and
(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers shall not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m, controllers shall inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

Note: Where IRVR systems are employed, the touchdown value is used to trigger the above procedure. Transmissometer unserviceability and the impact on ATC procedures are detailed at Section 3 Chapter 3.

Question 9

Can you provide a Procedural service to an aircraft which is operating VFR?

Answer 9

no

Question 10

When must a pilot fly IFR?

Answer 10

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:
(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

Question 11

When can an aircraft be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

Answer 11

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level.

Question 12

Under what conditions can you utilise a VMC climb or descent?

Answer 12

Controllers may authorise an aircraft to climb or descend in VMC provided:
(1) the manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E, F and G airspace at or below FL100;
(2) it is during the hours of daylight;
(3) the aircraft is flying in visual meteorological conditions;
(4) the pilot of the aircraft climbing or descending agrees to maintain their own separation from other aircraft and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft; and
(5) essential traffic information is given.

Question 13

What conditions apply when using the 1 minute, departure separation?

Answer 13

Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more
immediately after take-off. The minimum may be reduced when
aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel
runways provided the procedures have been approved by the
CAA.

Question 14

What conditions apply when using the 2 minute departure separation?

Answer 14

Provided that:
(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or
more faster than the following; and
(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that
would decrease the 2-minute separation between them.

Question 15

What conditions apply when using the 5 minute departure separations?

Answer 15

Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20
knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

or

Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a
reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal
control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by ATS Surveillance.
Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.

Question 16

Define the transition level?

Answer 16

Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude and shall be located at least a nominal 1,000 ft above the transition altitude to permit the transition altitude and the transition level to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured. Except where an alternative means of calculating the transition level is detailed within local instructions, the transition level may be determined from the table in Appendix A as follows:
(1) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority, where it will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
(2) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator, where it will be based on the aerodrome QNH.

Question 17

Define the transition layer

Answer 17

Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1,000 ft.

Question 18

Define the transition altitude?

Answer 18

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used). Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3,000 ft

Question 19

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

Answer 19

The objectives of the air traffic services shall be to:
(1) prevent collisions between aircraft;
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.

Question 20

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

Answer 20

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.

Question 21

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in Class G airspace?

Answer 21

Distance from cloud: 1500M horizontal and 1000ft vertical
Fight visibility of 5 KM

Question 22

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft in Class G airspace?

Answer 22

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 5KM flight visibility.

Question 23

What are the visual flight rules in Class G airspace for aircraft including helicopters, flying at 140 kt IAS or less

Answer 23

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 1500M flight visibility.

Question 24

Describe in detail track separation using specified tracks from an NDB?

Answer 24

Using specified tracks from an NDB. When one aircraft is the time equivalent
of 15 NM or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from an NDB and both
aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more.

Question 25

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of same track?

Answer 25

‘Same track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°;

Question 26

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of reciprocal track?

Answer 26

'Reciprocal track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;

Question 27

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of crossing track?

Answer 27

‘Crossing track’, intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’.

Question 28

Give examples of a category A flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 28

Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger). Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’. Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved.

Question 29

Give examples of a category B flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 29

Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian reasons. Police flights under normal operational priority. Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.

Question 30

Give examples of a category C flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 30

Royal Flights Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

Question 31

Give examples of a category D flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 31

Flights carrying the: (1) Prime Minister, (2) Chancellor of the Exchequer, (3) Home Secretary, or (4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs. Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.

Question 32

Give examples of a category E flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 32

HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights. Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

Question 33

What are classed as 'normal flights' in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 33

NORMAL FLIGHTS * Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures. * Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)

Question 34

Give examples of a category Z flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 34

Training, non-standard and other flights.

Question 35

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

Answer 35

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot looks for conflicting aircraft visually. Does NOT manoeuvre. Typically 45 seconds before the assumed collision

Question 36

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

Answer 36

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight path as soon as it is safe to do so. Typically 30 seconds before the assumed collision

Question 37

When shall APP transmit IRVR to aircraft?

Answer 37

IRVR reporting to aircraft is started: (1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1,500 metres; (2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system; (3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast. IRVR values are to be passed to aircraft at the beginning of each approach for landing and, thereafter, whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the aircraft have landed. A significant change is defined as a change in value of one increment or more. The current RVR value is also to be passed to aircraft before take-off. Even though a pilot may have received an IRVR value from the ATIS broadcast, controllers must ensure that they pass the current value as specified above.

Question 38

When may approach control/APS instruct IFR flights to establish communications with Aerodrome control?

Answer 38

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

Question 39

When shall an aircraft be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

Answer 39

An aircraft shall be instructed to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances: (1) On instructions from Approach/Aerodrome Control; (2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 NM from touchdown (or such other range agreed with Aerodrome Control); (3) When it appears to be dangerously positioned on final approach.

Question 40

When shall an aircraft be advised to carry out a missed approach?

Answer 40

An aircraft is to be advised to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances: (1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed; (2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2 NM of the approach; (3) If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach.

Question 41

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

Answer 41

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes: (1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue; (2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means; (3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

Question 42

Describe in detail the procedures for full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

Answer 42

If, after the preliminary overdue action, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

Question 43

What is the conspicuity squawk for Aeros, Royal flight helicopter, Selected Helicopter flight, Pipeline, Paradrop, ccts, FIR lost

Answer 43

Aeros: 7004 Royal Flight helicopter: 0037 Selected helicopter flight: 0035 Pipeline: 0036 Para drop: 0033 Ccts: 7010 FIR lost: 0030

Question 44

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

Answer 44

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation. Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

Question 45

How many hours does an ATO have to file an MOR?

Answer 45

72

Question 46

What is the transition altitude at Oxford?

Answer 46

The transition altitude in the Oxford Area, specifically beneath the Daventry CTA and beneath the London TMA, is 6000 ft. The surveillance system will convert Mode C level information to altitudes based on this transition altitude only, regardless of the aircraft’s geographical position. The transition altitude elsewhere, including in the Brize Norton CTR, is 3000 ft.

Question 47

What are the following frequencies (1) Oxford Tower (2) Oxford Ground (3) Oxford Approach/Radar (4) Oxford Director (5) D+D VHF and UHF (4) Oxford Fire.

Answer 47

Oxford Tower 133.430 Oxford Ground 121.955 Oxford Approach / Radar 125.090 Oxford Director 119.980 D+D VHF & UHF 121.5 &243.0 Oxford Fire 121.6

Question 48

In what RPS is Oxford situated and which RPS’s are adjacent?

Answer 48

Oxford Airport is situated in the Cotswold ASR. Due to the close proximity of Oxford Airport to the boundaries of the Cotswold (15), Barnsley (12), Portland (13) and Chatham (12) ASRs, it is necessary to be able to provide the regional pressure settings for all four areas. These are issued hourly by the Met. Office and available on the Met. display. The remainder are available through the FDMS.

Question 49

What is the Safety altitude to 25 and 40 NM?

Answer 49

The safety altitude within 25nm radius of Oxford Airport is 2,200ft in the NE sector, and 2,300ft in all other directions. At 25nm or greater, ATC Oxford use 2,500ft in all sectors and this provides a minimum safe vertical clearance of 1,000ft above any known obstacle within a 40nm radius.

Question 50

What precision approaches are available at Oxford?

Answer 50

ILS/DME/NDB Runway 19

Question 51

What non-precision approaches are available at Oxford?

Answer 51

NDB Runway 01 LOC/DME/NDB Runway 19 NDB Runway 19

Question 52

Describe in detail the NDB?

Answer 52

Ident: OX Frequency: 367.5kHz Availability: 06:30-22:30 (05:30 – 21:30) Except Christmas and New Year Position and Range: On Aerodrome, Range 25NM

Question 53

What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation:

Answer 53

Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516 Frequency monitoring code: 4517 Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520

Question 54

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 01.

Answer 54

* Left hand race track pattern * 1 minute legs * LHA 2000ft * Inbound leg 097, outbound 277 * Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL * Entry into racetrack procedure restricted to Sector 3 entry from inbound leg (097°M) of holding pattern. * The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity. * ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.

Question 55

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 19.

Answer 55

* Right hand race track pattern * 1 minute legs * LHA 2300ft * Inbound leg 336, outbound 156 * Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL. * The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity. * ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.

Question 56

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 19?

Answer 56

Runway 19 – IRVR not less than 400 m. Exceptionally, departures can be supported to as low as 350 m IRVR subject to AOC holders ‘state authorised minima’. If any doubt exists, a declaration by the pilot on the R/T that they can depart below 400 m IRVR is sufficient. Oxford is not equipped to support any departures below 350m IRVR regardless of AOC minima.

Question 57

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 01?

Answer 57

Runway 01 (or all runways if IRVR is not available) – Met Visibility not less than 350 m.

Question 58

What are the dimensions and published hours of activity of D129 Weston-on-the-Green Danger Area (paradropping site)?

Answer 58

Radius: 2NM Levels: SFC - FL120 Hours: Monday - Friday SR - SS additional hours as notified.

Question 59

What are the procedures to be used when D129 is active?

Answer 59

If parachuting activity has been notified, this information will be passed to any aircraft requesting an instrument approach, and the following procedures shall be adopted: * APP/APS shall instruct all aircraft intending to fly an instrument approach to remain outside D129 * Oxford will ensure that all aircraft transiting D129 have vacated the promulgated airspace within 10 minutes of activity notification * Aircraft being provided with a radar service can be vectored for an approach when para-dropping is in progress, or fly the approach and hold procedurally whilst their position is monitored by the APS controller * The APS controller will issue warnings if any aircraft appears to be operating, or its track indicates that it may soon be operating in close proximity to D129 * Aircraft in receipt of a PS may be cleared for an approach as long as the pilot confirms that the aircraft will remain outside D129 at all times. Brize Norton ATC shall co-ordinate the movement of aircraft based at EGVN in and out of the dropping zone with Oxford Radar. All other aircraft operating to or from D129 are required to contact Oxford Radar and monitor the Oxford Radar frequency for the duration of the drop. For high level drops (above FL85) the paradropping aircraft will be inside CAS and requires clearance from TC COWLY. The aircraft will be in communication with Swanwick Military for the portion of flight inside CAS. Separation requirements apply between D129 and other aircraft. It is the responsibility of TC NW and TC COWLY to ensure separation between D129 and inbound aircraft released to Oxford

Question 60

What is the name, radius, level and published hours of Restricted area R204?

Answer 60

Name: Long Lartin Prison Radius: 2 NM Levels: SFC-2200ft Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

Question 61

What is the name, radius, level and published hours of Restricted area R214?

Answer 61

Name: Woodhill Radius: 1.5 NM Levels: SFC-2400ft Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

Question 62

What is the radius, level and published hours of Croughton HIRTA?

Answer 62

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA) Radius: 1.2 NM Levels: SFC-2900ft Hours: H24

Question 63

What is the radius, level and published hours of Barford St. John HIRTA?

Answer 63

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA) Radius: 0.25 NM Levels: SFC-600ft Hours: H24

Question 64

What is a SUACS and who provides a SUACS for D129 and on what frequency?

Answer 64

Special Use Airspace Activity Information Service (SUACS). RAF Brize Norton provide a SUAAIS for D129 on 119.000 MHz

Question 65

What restriction is in place when Weston on the Green is in use by gliders?

Answer 65

Weston-on-the-Green aerodrome is also used by gliders, as detailed in the Weston-on the-Green LoA. Gliding activity will be notified by the gliding club representative, and this does not constitute activation of D129. When Weston-on-the-Green is active with gliding, Oxford shall not permit any aircraft under their control to route within 2 NM of the gliding site below 3500’ (QNH).

Question 66

What considerations is there when Compton Gliding Box is active?

Answer 66

Due to the intense gliding activity, TC controllers are not to clear aircraft to leave CAS in the vicinity of the Compton Gliding Box during the confirmed hours of the activity. Any Oxford arrivals during the Compton Gliding Box activation shall be coordinated with Oxford to remain clear. If an Oxford departure is coordinated during the Compton Gliding Box activation, the TC SW Coordinator shall remind Oxford of the activation of the Compton Gliding Box and the need to remain clear.

Question 67

What considerations is there when Daventry Gliding Box is active?

Answer 67

For the period of the gliding competitions, TC GS Midlands shall notify Oxford ATC of the activation/deactivation of the Daventry Gliding Box. Oxford ATC may request an ATC clearance into CAS for any departure tracking northbound towards the Daventry Gliding Box. TC Midlands should endeavour to give a clearance if able to accommodate, in order to climb above the Daventry Gliding Box.

Question 68

What procedures are conducted when South Cerney paradropping is active?

Answer 68

During the notified period of parachuting activity, the South Cerney information strip is to be displayed in the Approach/Radar flight progress display. Aircraft under the control of Oxford Approach/Radar are to be informed of the activity when relevant. Oxford Approach/Radar will notify Brize Approach of departing aircraft via CONKO prior to release. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the departure may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Notwithstanding any joining clearance or instruction to remain outside CAS, Oxford Approach/Radar will not transfer departing aircraft via CONKO to Sector 23 until it is assured that they will be at or above FL90 on entering the South Cerney drop zone. This may require the aircraft to hold outside CAS. Arriving aircraft via CONKO will be pre-noted to Brize Approach by Sector 23. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the arrival may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Oxford Approach/Radar shall not offer Sector 23 an acceptance level below FL90 and are to coordinate with Brize Approach before descending below FL90.

Question 69

Describe the Intermediate Approach area where the intermediate approach wake turbulence separation minima apply.

Answer 69

The Intermediate Approach Area is defined as the area contained within the Oxford ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (see UK AIP AD 2.EGTK-5-1), together with a segment between 270 degrees and 015 degrees (magnetic) to a radius of 12nm from the Oxford Aerodrome Reference Point.

Question 70

Under what conditions are opposite direction approaches accepted.

Answer 70

Opposite direction runway arrivals and departures are not permitted regardless of the traffic density and time, except as may be required: *During emergencies, and *For ILS calibration Requests from pilots for opposite direction arrivals and departures shall be rejected. If due to aircraft limits/performance a pilot cannot land/depart on the current runway in use, the APP/APS controller shall coordinate a runway change with ADC.

Question 71

What is the ATIS frequency and DOC?

Answer 71

ATIS 136.230, 50NM

Question 72

What is the operations frequency?

Answer 72

Operations 131.640

Question 73

What shall ADC co-ordinate with APP/APS?

Answer 73

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with Approach Control: (1) departing IFR flights; and (2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control). Additionally: Controllers will co-ordinate specifically: * Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures * Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green * All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ * Weather information received from aircraft in the air * Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller * Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and * Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved. During radar hours, when passing the airborne time for a VFR aircraft requesting a traffic service, ADC shall state to the APS controller that the aircraft is requesting a traffic service.

Question 74

What will APP/APS co-ordinate with ADC?

Answer 74

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control: (1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance; (2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points; and (3) aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit. Additionally: Controllers will co-ordinate specifically: * Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures * Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green * All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ * Weather information received from aircraft in the air * Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller * Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and * Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved.

Question 75

Any IFR Flight (except training sorties) wishing to fly into an airport in the London TMA requires start-up approval from GS Airports. What are the list of GS airports?

Answer 75

EGGW, EGHL, EGKB, EGKK, EGLC, EGLF, EGLL, EGLK,EGMC, EGSS, EGTD, EGTF, EGTK, EGWU, EGVO. EGHH,EGHI, EGLD are not subject to specific flow restrictions and do not require approval by GS airports however have specific routes to follow.

Question 76

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to EGSS?

Answer 76

SILVA – SILVA 1L (BOMBO – BKY – BUSTA – LOREL)

Question 77

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to EGGW?

Answer 77

SILVA – SILVA 1N (WOBUN – EDCOX – JUMZI – ZAGZO)

Question 78

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LF/LK/HL/VO/TD/TF

Answer 78

KENET – CPT – CPT 1V (GOBNU – INDOX – DIXIB – LFS02 – VEXUB)

Question 79

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to KB/LC

Answer 79

SILVA – SILVA 1C (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – CLN – JACKO)

Question 80

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to MC?

Answer 80

SILVA – SILVA 1S (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – MAYLA – SPEAR)

Question 81

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to KK?

Answer 81

KENET–NIGIT–BEDEK 1G (MID–TUFOZ–HOLLY–WILLO)

Question 82

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LL/WU?

Answer 82

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

Question 83

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to HH/HI?

Answer 83

KENET – PEPIS – SAM

Question 84

What is the required routing for an IFR departure to LD?

Answer 84

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

Question 85

What measures are in place to assist in reducing the likelihood of an overload when Aerodrome and Approach are combined?

Answer 85

When ADC and APP are combined the information is included in the ATIS broadcast. Around sunset, it may be necessary to further restrict the visual circuit to allow for recoveries. Any restriction is at the discretion of ADC.

Question 86

At what level and range shall transiting aircraft be offered to ADC>

Answer 86

At 2,500’ (QNH) and below, transit aircraft shall be offered to ADC and transferred to ADC at a range of 5nm, and retained by ADC until they are clear of all traffic, at which point they can be transferred back to APP/APS or to an en-route frequency.

Question 87

What holding patterns are not deemed separated from the OX?

Answer 87

MORTN, DILAX and the BZN TACAN hold are not separated from the OX hold.

Question 88

What is the MORTN departure route for each runway?

Answer 88

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1 or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner), left turn to track 312°M to MORTN. Runway 19: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1, or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner) right turn to track 312°M to MORTN. From MORTN the aircraft will then route direct to a specified airways joining point (BADIM, IXURA or DTY), at levels as directed by ATC.

Question 89

What is the KENET departure route for Runway 19?

Answer 89

Runway 19: Ahead to OXF’ DME 1, right turn to BUGUP, climb as directed by ATC. When cleared, RON KENET.

Question 90

What is the KENET departure route for Runway 01?

Answer 90

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘OXF’ DME 1.5, left turn to BUGUP, climb as directed by ATC. When cleared, RON KENET.

Question 91

What is the BUGUP departure route for Runway 19?

Answer 91

Runway 19: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1, right turn to BUGUP, climb as directed by ATC. When cleared, RON CONKO.

Question 92

What is the WCO departure route for Runway 01?

Answer 92

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1 or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner), climb as directed by ATC DCT WCO.

Question 93

What is the BUGUP departure route for Runway 01?

Answer 93

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1.5, left turn to BUGUP, climb as directed by ATC. When cleared, RON CONKO.

Question 94

What is the DTY/IXURA departure route for Runway 01?

Answer 94

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1 or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner), climb as directed by ATC DCT IXURA/DTY.

Question 95

What is the DTY/IXURA departure route for Runway 19?

Answer 95

Runway 19: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1, or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner) climb as directed by ATC DCT IXURA/DTY.

Question 96

What is the WCO departure route for Runway 19?

Answer 96

Runway 19: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1.5, or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner) climb as directed by ATC DCT WCO.

Question 97

What is the SILVA departure route for Runway 01?

Answer 97

Runway 01: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1 or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner), climb as directed by ATC DCT SILVA.

Question 98

What is the SILVA departure route for Runway 19?

Answer 98

Runway 19: Ahead to ‘IOXF’ DME 1.5, or 1000’, (QNH), (whichever is sooner) climb as directed by ATC DCT SILVA.