APP Flashcards

1
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

A

Class D

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2
Q

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

A

Temporary Control Zones: Temporary control zones will be established around aerodromes of departure and destination for a period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after the ETD, or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA at the aerodrome concerned. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. Overall control of these control zones is to be exercised, as appropriate, by the Commanding Officer of a military aerodrome or the ATS authority of a civil aerodrome.

Temporary Control Area: Temporary control areas will be established in the shape of a corridor to join temporary or permanent control zones or control areas, as appropriate, for a period 15 minutes before ETA at the start point until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the established area. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. The controlling authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC or notified ATSU.

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3
Q

What is the definition of a basic service?

A

A Basic Service is an ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

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4
Q

Can you provide a Procedural Service below the terrain safe level?

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is the definition of a Procedural service?

A

A Procedural Service is an ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides restrictions, instructions, and approach clearances, which if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other aircraft participating in the Procedural Service. Neither traffic information nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic

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6
Q

What is essential traffic information and what elements shall it include?

A

Essential traffic is traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.

Essential traffic information passed to an aircraft shall include:
(1) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;
(2) Type of conflicting aircraft;
(3) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and
(4) Any alternative clearance.

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7
Q

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of an Aerodrome?

A

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or

(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or

(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation.

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8
Q

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

A

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that visual reference to the surface can be maintained and
(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers shall not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m, controllers shall inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

Note: Where IRVR systems are employed, the touchdown value is used to trigger the above procedure. Transmissometer unserviceability and the impact on ATC procedures are detailed at Section 3 Chapter 3.

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9
Q

Can you provide a Procedural service to an aircraft which is operating VFR?

A

no

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10
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:
(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

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11
Q

When can an aircraft be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

A

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level.

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12
Q

Under what conditions can you utilise a VMC climb or descent?

A

Controllers may authorise an aircraft to climb or descend in VMC provided:
(1) the manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E, F and G airspace at or below FL100;
(2) it is during the hours of daylight;
(3) the aircraft is flying in visual meteorological conditions;
(4) the pilot of the aircraft climbing or descending agrees to maintain their own separation from other aircraft and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft; and
(5) essential traffic information is given.

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13
Q

What conditions apply when using the 1 minute, departure separation?

A

Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more
immediately after take-off. The minimum may be reduced when
aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel
runways provided the procedures have been approved by the
CAA.

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14
Q

What conditions apply when using the 2 minute departure separation?

A

Provided that:
(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or
more faster than the following; and
(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that
would decrease the 2-minute separation between them.

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15
Q

What conditions apply when using the 5 minute departure separations?

A

Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20
knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

or

Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a
reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal
control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by ATS Surveillance.
Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.

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16
Q

Define the transition level?

A

Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude and shall be located at least a nominal 1,000 ft above the transition altitude to permit the transition altitude and the transition level to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured. Except where an alternative means of calculating the transition level is detailed within local instructions, the transition level may be determined from the table in Appendix A as follows:
(1) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority, where it will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
(2) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator, where it will be based on the aerodrome QNH.

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17
Q

Define the transition layer

A

Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1,000 ft.

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18
Q

Define the transition altitude?

A

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used). Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3,000 ft

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19
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A

The objectives of the air traffic services shall be to:
(1) prevent collisions between aircraft;
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.

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20
Q

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

A

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.

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21
Q

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in Class G airspace?

A

Distance from cloud: 1500M horizontal and 1000ft vertical
Fight visibility of 5 KM

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22
Q

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft in Class G airspace?

A

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 5KM flight visibility.

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23
Q

What are the visual flight rules in Class G airspace for aircraft including helicopters, flying at 140 kt IAS or less

A

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 1500M flight visibility.

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24
Q

Describe in detail track separation using specified tracks from an NDB?

A

Using specified tracks from an NDB. When one aircraft is the time equivalent
of 15 NM or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from an NDB and both
aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more.

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25
Q

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of same track?

A

‘Same track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°;

26
Q

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of reciprocal track?

A

‘Reciprocal track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;

27
Q

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of crossing track?

A

‘Crossing track’, intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’.

28
Q

Give examples of a category A flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill
passenger).
Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of
life is involved.

29
Q

Give examples of a category B flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian
reasons.
Police flights under normal operational priority.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.

30
Q

Give examples of a category C flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Royal Flights
Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

31
Q

Give examples of a category D flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Flights carrying the:
(1) Prime Minister,
(2) Chancellor of the Exchequer,
(3) Home Secretary, or
(4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and
Development Affairs.
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.

32
Q

Give examples of a category E flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft
engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

33
Q

What are classed as ‘normal flights’ in regard to flight priorities?

A

NORMAL FLIGHTS
* Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming
with normal routing procedures.
* Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit.
(RTF callsign “EXAM”)

34
Q

Give examples of a category Z flight in regard to flight priorities?

A

Training, non-standard and other flights.

35
Q

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

A

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning
Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of
TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot
looks for conflicting aircraft visually.
Does NOT manoeuvre.

Typically 45
seconds before
the assumed
collision

36
Q

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

A

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning
Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their
existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be
given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have
been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum
necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as
soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight
path as soon as it is safe to do so.

Typically 30
seconds before
the assumed
collision

37
Q

When shall APP transmit IRVR to aircraft?

A

IRVR reporting to aircraft is started:
(1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1,500 metres;
(2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system;
(3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast.

IRVR values are to be passed to aircraft at the beginning of each approach for landing and, thereafter, whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the aircraft have landed. A significant change is defined as a change in value of one increment or more. The current RVR value is also to be passed to aircraft before take-off.

Even though a pilot may have received an IRVR value from the ATIS broadcast, controllers must ensure that they pass the current value as specified above.

38
Q

When may approach control/APS instruct IFR flights to establish communications with Aerodrome control?

A

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

39
Q

When shall an aircraft be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft shall be instructed to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:
(1) On instructions from Approach/Aerodrome Control;
(2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 NM from touchdown (or such other range agreed with Aerodrome Control);
(3) When it appears to be dangerously positioned on final approach.

40
Q

When shall an aircraft be advised to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft is to be advised to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:
(1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed;
(2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2 NM of the approach;
(3) If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach.

41
Q

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

A

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action
If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes:
(1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue;
(2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means;
(3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

42
Q

Describe in detail the procedures for full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

A

If, after the preliminary overdue action, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

43
Q

What is the conspicuity squawk for Aeros, Royal flight helicopter, Selected Helicopter flight, Pipeline, Paradrop, ccts, FIR lost

A

Aeros: 7004
Royal Flight helicopter: 0037
Selected helicopter flight: 0035
Pipeline: 0036
Para drop: 0033
Ccts: 7010
FIR lost: 0030

44
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

A

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

45
Q

How many hours does an ATO have to file an MOR?

A

72

46
Q

What is the transition altitude at Oxford?

A

The transition altitude in the Oxford Area, specifically beneath the Daventry CTA and
beneath the London TMA, is 6000 ft. The surveillance system will convert Mode C
level information to altitudes based on this transition altitude only, regardless of the
aircraft’s geographical position.

The transition altitude elsewhere, including in the Brize Norton CTR, is 3000 ft.

47
Q

What are the following frequencies (1) Oxford Tower (2) Oxford Ground (3) Oxford Approach/Radar (4) Oxford Director (5) D+D VHF and UHF (4) Oxford Fire.

A

Oxford Tower 133.430
Oxford Ground 121.955
Oxford Approach / Radar 125.090
Oxford Director 119.980
D+D VHF & UHF 121.5 &243.0
Oxford Fire 121.6

48
Q

In what RPS is Oxford situated and which RPS’s are adjacent?

A

Oxford Airport is situated in the Cotswold ASR.

Due to the close proximity of Oxford Airport to the boundaries of the Cotswold (15),
Barnsley (12), Portland (13) and Chatham (12) ASRs, it is necessary to be able to
provide the regional pressure settings for all four areas. These are issued hourly by the Met. Office and available on the Met. display. The remainder are available through the FDMS.

49
Q

What is the Safety altitude to 25 and 40 NM?

A

The safety altitude within 25nm radius of Oxford Airport is 2,200ft in the NE sector,
and 2,300ft in all other directions. At 25nm or greater, ATC Oxford use 2,500ft in all
sectors and this provides a minimum safe vertical clearance of 1,000ft above any
known obstacle within a 40nm radius.

50
Q

What precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

ILS/DME/NDB Runway 19

51
Q

What non-precision approaches are available at Oxford?

A

NDB Runway 01
LOC/DME/NDB Runway 19
NDB Runway 19

52
Q

Describe in detail the NDB?

A

Ident: OX
Frequency: 367.5kHz
Availability: 06:30-22:30 (05:30 – 21:30) Except Christmas and New Year
Position and Range: On Aerodrome, Range 25NM

53
Q

What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation:

A

Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516
Frequency monitoring code: 4517
Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520

54
Q

What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation?

A

Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516
Frequency monitoring code: 4517
Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520

55
Q

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 01.

A
  • Left hand race track pattern
  • 1 minute legs
  • LHA 2000ft
  • Inbound leg 097, outbound 277
  • Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL
  • Entry into racetrack procedure restricted to Sector 3 entry from inbound leg (097°M) of holding pattern.
  • The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity.
  • ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.
56
Q

Describe in detail the OX hold for runway 19.

A
  • Right hand race track pattern
  • 1 minute legs
  • LHA 2300ft
  • Inbound leg 336, outbound 156
  • Aircraft will normally be required to hold not lower than 3500 or equivalent FL.
  • The established NDB hold is impacted by EGD129 activity.
  • ATC Oxford will co-ordinate the use of the hold in association with the instrument procedures with regard to promulgated activity in EGD129.
57
Q

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 19?

A

Runway 19 – IRVR not less than 400 m. Exceptionally, departures can be supported to as low as 350 m IRVR subject to AOC holders ‘state authorised minima’. If any doubt exists, a declaration by the pilot on the R/T that they can depart below 400 m IRVR is sufficient. Oxford is not equipped to support any departures below 350m IRVR regardless of AOC minima.

58
Q

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 01?

A

Runway 01 (or all runways if IRVR is not available) – Met Visibility not less than 350 m.

59
Q

What are the dimensions and published hours of activity of D129 Weston-on-the-Green Danger Area (paradropping site)?

A

Radius: 2NM
Levels: SFC - FL120
Hours: Monday - Friday SR - SS additional hours as notified.

60
Q

What are the procedures to be used when D129 is active?

A

If parachuting activity has been notified, this information will be passed to any aircraft requesting an instrument approach, and the following procedures shall be adopted:
*
APP/APS shall instruct all aircraft intending to fly an instrument approach to remain outside D129
*
Oxford will ensure that all aircraft transiting D129 have vacated the promulgated airspace within 10 minutes of activity notification
*
Aircraft being provided with a radar service can be vectored for an approach when para-dropping is in progress, or fly the approach and hold procedurally whilst their position is monitored by the APS controller
*
The APS controller will issue warnings if any aircraft appears to be operating, or its track indicates that it may soon be operating in close proximity to D129
*
Aircraft in receipt of a PS may be cleared for an approach as long as the pilot confirms that the aircraft will remain outside D129 at all times.

Brize Norton ATC shall co-ordinate the movement of aircraft based at EGVN in and out of the dropping zone with Oxford Radar.

All other aircraft operating to or from D129 are required to contact Oxford Radar and monitor the Oxford Radar frequency for the duration of the drop.

For high level drops (above FL85) the paradropping aircraft will be inside CAS and requires clearance from TC COWLY. The aircraft will be in communication with Swanwick Military for the portion of flight inside CAS. Separation requirements apply between D129 and other aircraft. It is the responsibility of TC NW and TC COWLY to ensure separation between D129 and inbound aircraft released to Oxford