ADI Flashcards
State the objectives of an Air Traffic Controller.
The objectives of the air traffic services shall be to:
(1) prevent collisions between aircraft;
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
An aerodrome control unit shall provide which services?
An Aerodrome Control unit shall provide:
(1) Aerodrome Control Service.
(2) Basic Service.
(3) Alerting Service.
When shall Aerodrome transfer control of aircraft to Approach control?
Unless specified otherwise in the MATS Part 2, the responsibility for control of a departing aircraft shall be transferred from Aerodrome Control to Approach Control:
(1) in VMC: prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or prior to the aircraft entering IMC; and
(2) in IMC: immediately after the aircraft is airborne.
What is Essential Aerodrome Information?
Essential aerodrome information is that concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be given to every aircraft, except when it is known that the aircraft already has received the information from other sources. The information shall be given in sufficient time for the aircraft to make proper use of it, and the hazards shall be identified as distinctly as possible. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during aircraft take-off and landing runs. Note: ‘Other sources’ include NOTAM, ATIS broadcasts, and the display of suitable signals.
Describe all points that are included as Essential Aerodrome Information.
Essential aerodrome information shall include:
(1) construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area;
(2) rough or broken portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not;
(3) failure or irregular functioning of the aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. The pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action;
(4) failure or irregular functioning of approach aids;
(5) aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines;
(6) water, snow, slush, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or an apron;
(7) in snow and ice conditions: information concerning anti-icing or de-icing liquid chemicals or other contaminants or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons;
(8) bird formations or individual large birds reported or observed on or above the manoeuvring area or in the immediate vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the Aerodrome Operator or Bird Control Unit must be informed;
(9) information on the location and operational status of any arrester gear installation.
Describe the criteria that must exist to make use of multiple line up clearance.
Line-up instructions may be issued to more than one aircraft at different points on the same or crossing runways provided that:
(1) it is during daylight hours;
(2) all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller;
(3) all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency;
(4) pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart;
(5) the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.
Describe the criteria for using ‘Land after’.
When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft which has landed is clear of the runway provided that:
(1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected;
(2) it is during daylight hours;
(3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway;
(4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway; and
(5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.
Describe the uses of the basic uses of the ATM
(1) determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft;
(2) assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft;
(3) enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued;
(4) provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach.
Describe in detail, low approach restrictions, and their uses.
If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go, may be cleared to carry out a low approach restricted to a height not below 400 ft above the threshold elevation. In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicles on the runway. Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach. 22.2 For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH, the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400 ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft. 22.3 The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400 ft above the threshold elevation
What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of the aerodrome?
In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation.
What procedures shall be followed in the event of a failure of navigation lights of an aircraft?
The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced. If the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:
(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, the pilot should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although they may request information to assist their decision-making. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is the original destination.
Give one example of the type of flight in each category in regard to flight priorities?
A - Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill
passenger).
Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of
life is involved.
B- Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian
reasons.
Police flights under normal operational priority.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.
C - Royal Flights
Flights carrying visiting Heads of State
D - Flights carrying the:
(1) Prime Minister,
(2) Chancellor of the Exchequer,
(3) Home Secretary, or
(4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and
Development Affairs.
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.
E - HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft
engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights.
NORMAL FLIGHTS
* Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming
with normal routing procedures.
* Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit.
(RTF callsign “EXAM”)
Z - Training, non-standard and other flights.
What is the definition of a Runway Incursion?
A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing.
What is windshear?
Windshear is a sustained change in the wind velocity along the aircraft flight path, which occurs significantly faster than the aircraft can accelerate or decelerate.
What are the responsibilities of an Aerodrome controller?
Aerodrome Control shall issue information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of:
(1) Preventing collisions between:
(a) aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ;
(b) aircraft taking-off and landing;
(c) aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area. Note: Aerodrome Control is not solely responsible for the prevention of collisions. Pilots and vehicle drivers must also fulfil their own responsibilities in accordance with RoA Regulations.
(2) Assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron.
In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?
Regardless of the prevailing meteorological conditions, aircraft shall only fly within CAS-T when an ATC clearance has been obtained from the controlling authorities specified as follows:
(1) Temporary Control Zones: Temporary control zones will be established around aerodromes of departure and destination for a period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after the ETD, or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA at the aerodrome concerned. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. Overall control of these control zones is to be exercised, as appropriate, by the Commanding Officer of a military aerodrome or the ATS authority of a civil aerodrome.
(2) Temporary Control Area: Temporary control areas will be established in the shape of a corridor to join temporary or permanent control zones or control areas, as appropriate, for a period 15 minutes before ETA at the start point until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the established area. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. The controlling authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC or notified ATSU.
What is the conspicuity squawk for Aeros, Royal helicopter flight, Selected Helicopter flight, Pipeline, Paradrop, ccts, FIR lost?
Aeros: 7004
Royal helicopter Flight :0037
Selected helicopter flight: 0035
Pipeline: 0036
Para drop: 0033
Ccts: 7010
FIR lost: 0030
What is the definition of a Full Emergency?
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/Aircraft Accident Imminent?
Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.
Demonstrate the correct phraseology for cancelling a take-off clearance before an aircraft has started its take off roll.
G-CD, hold position, cancel take-off I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge
Demonstrate the correct phraseology for cancelling a take-off clearance after an aircraft has started its take off roll.
BIGJET 347, stop immediately I say again, BIGJET 347, stop immediately, acknowledge
How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?
72
Can an aircraft be instructed to cross a red stop bar, if so how can you achieve this?
On the occasions when the withdrawal of inoperable stop-bars is not possible and the stop-bars cannot be readily suppressed, under exceptional circumstances, an aircraft may be instructed to cross such an illuminated stop-bar subject to the following minimum conditions:
(1) The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller. This requirement may be satisfied by the use of SMR/SMGCS as specified in MATS Part 2. When an aerodrome is not SMR/SMGCS equipped, local alternate solutions based on risk assessment and detailed in MATS Part 2 may be employed.
(2) The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop bar. Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
(3) Additional MATS Part 2 procedures may be required where local risk assessments have identified that further mitigation measures may be necessary.
In all cases particular care should be taken if this contingency procedure is to be used in Low Visibility Operations or at night as the green taxiway centreline lights linked to the stop-bar will not be available.
What restrictions are placed on helicopters conducting ground runs?
Helicopters shall not perform high-power ground runs in MA2 or MA3. Idle-power ground runs are permitted, but shall last no longer than 10 mins.
What is the DOC of Oxford Tower 133.430MHz?
DOC 25NM/4000ft
What precision approaches are available at Oxford?
ILS/DME/NDB Runway 19
What non-precision approaches are available at Oxford?
NDB Runway 01
LOC/DME/NDB Runway 19
NDB Runway 19
What are the threshold elevations for Runways 01 and 19?
Runway 01: 249ft
Runway 19: 258ft
Aerodrome elevation: 263ft
What is the Oxford Squawk code allocation:
Oxford Approach: 4501 - 4516
Frequency monitoring code: 4517
Oxford Approach Basic Service: 4520
What are the following frequencies (1) Oxford Tower (2) Oxford Ground (3) Oxford Approach/Radar (4) Oxford Director (5) D+D VHF and UHF (4) Oxford Fire.
Oxford Tower 133.430
Oxford Ground 121.955
Oxford Approach / Radar 125.090
Oxford Director 119.980
D+D VHF & UHF 121.5 &243.0
Oxford Fire 121.6
What is the standard missed approach to runway 19?
Climb straight ahead to NDB (L) OX, on passing NDB (L) OX, continue climb on QDR 166. At I-OXF DME 4 turn left to NDB (L) OX climbing as necessary to hold at 2500ft, or as directed
What is the standard missed approach to runway 01?
Climb on track 358to 1000 then climbing left turn onto track 276 to 2500 then turn left to NDB (L) OX to join hold at 2500, or as directed.
Describe in detail taxiway lighting?
EDGE: Blue edge lighting on Taxiways A, B, C and D.
Describe in Detail the Runway lighting for runway 01?
Approach lighting: Omni-directional variable intensity RTIL either side of threshold.
Threshold Lighting: Green, Light intensity high with elev green wingbars
PAPI, MEHT, Dist from THR: PAPI, Left/3°, 29 FT, 140 M
Runway Edge Lighting: Bi-directional Lighting intensity high
Runway End Lighting: HI Red
Describe in Detail the Runway lighting for runway 19?
Approach lighting: Omni-directional variable intensity RTIL either side of threshold. Coded centre-line with three crossbars. 454 M Light intensity high.
Threshold Lighting: Green, Light intensity high with elev green wingbars
PAPI, MEHT, Dist from THR: PAPI, Left/3°, 41 FT, 245 M
Runway Edge Lighting: Bi-directional Lighting intensity high
Runway End Lighting: HI Red
What are the runway directions and dimensions?
Runway 01, 1526 x 30 M - Threshold displaced by 123 M
Runway 19, 1526 x 30 M - Threshold displaced by 64 M
Describe the visual circuits?
a. The fixed wing circuit level is 1500 FT (QNH), 1200 FT (QFE).
b. The helicopter circuit level is 1000 FT (QNH), 700 FT (QFE) by day and 1300 FT (QNH), 1000 FT (QFE) by night.
c. Standard fixed wing circuit direction: Runway 01 - right hand, Runway 19 - left hand.
d. Rotary circuits are opposite direction to fixed wing.
e. Low-level circuits subject to ATC approval, not below 900 FT (QNH), 600 FT (QFE).
What is the published RFFS crash category ?
RFF Category A6
What is the MEHT for the PAPIs on both Runway 01 and 19?
Runway 01 MEHT 29ft
Runway 19 MEHT 41ft
Describe the Oxford ATZ?
A circle, 2 NM radius, centred on longest notified runway (01/19),
Upper limit: 2000 FT AGL, Lower limit: SFC
What considerations do ADC have for departing Helicopters?
- Small wake turbulence category (WTC) helicopters must use the runway, Heli Area 1, Taxiway B north of holding point B4, Taxiway C or Taxiway D.
- Small WTC helicopters crossing the circuit are to be instructed to remain below circuit traffic and a warning of possible wake turbulence should be passed to circuit traffic if appropriate.
- Additionally, light WTC helicopters may depart from any grass manoeuvring area or taxiway (except between holding points A3 and B4).
- Helicopters shall not be instructed to depart in a direction which will overfly the airport buildings or any parked or taxiing aircraft.
- Due to the possible presence of free-ranging vehicles, helicopters departing from locations other than the runway must be instructed to “take-off at your discretion” in lieu of take-off clearance.
What considerations do ADC have for arriving Helicopters?
Small wake turbulence category (WTC) helicopters must use the runway, Heli Area 1, Taxiway B north of holding point B4, Taxiway C or Taxiway D.
Small WTC helicopters crossing the circuit are to be instructed to remain below circuit traffic and a warning of possible wake turbulence should be passed to circuit traffic if appropriate.
Additionally, light WTC helicopters may join straight in. or route direct from appropriate points in the circuit to any grass manoeuvring area or taxiway (except between holding points A3 and B4).
Helicopters shall not be instructed to join from a direction which will overfly the airport buildings or any parked or taxiing aircraft.
Due to the possible presence of free-ranging vehicles, helicopters landing at locations other than the runway must be instructed to “land at your discretion” in lieu of landing clearance.
Describe in detail the noise abatement procedures
Pilots are to avoid overflying the surrounding residential areas, including Blenheim Palace, except where there is an overriding training or flight safety requirement.
After departing from Runway 01, climb ahead to 1000 FT QNH or 1.0 DME I OXF, whichever is the earliest, before turning on course. Pilots carrying out visual departures should endeavour to complete this turn before reaching the Mercury Satellite Station (at 1.5 NM). When turning right, pilots are to avoid overflying the village of Shipton-on-Cherwell.
After departing from Runway 19, climb straight ahead to 1000 FT QNH or 1 DME I OXF, whichever is the earliest, before turning right. Aircraft intending to turn left, climb ahead to 1.5 DME I OXF (IFR) or until south of Yarnton Village (VFR), remaining clear, in all cases, of the Brize Norton CTR.
Whenever possible aircraft joining the circuit should, subject to ATC approval, plan to join on a base leg, giving way to traffic already established in the circuit. Straight in approaches are to be co-ordinated with ATC by no later than 10 NM so as not to conflict with published instrument final approach tracks.
Helicopter traffic is subject to standard arrival and departure procedures and routes.
