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Flight Rules > Approach Procedure (from Quiz & training mat)) > Flashcards

Approach Procedure (from Quiz & training mat)) Flashcards

1
Q

After exiting the en-route environment pilots must

A

Slow down,
Descend,
Configure the aircraft for landing

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2
Q

How many segments are in an approach?

A

4

Initial
Intermediate
Final
Missed Approach

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3
Q

Completing the tasks associated with each segment of an approach in a timely manner will

A

Reduce workload and ensure that all of the critical pre-landing items are completed in an efficient manner.

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4
Q

During which approach segment(s) is the obstacle clearance 1,000’?

A

Transition and Initial

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5
Q

The initial approach segment starts at the

A

IAF

Initial Approach Fix

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6
Q

At most airports the FAF is located

A

4 NM from the touchdown zone

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7
Q

The intermediate segment starts when

A

The aircraft turns inbound to the FAF.

Final Approach Fix

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8
Q

It provides published route links between the en route structure and a published instrument approach procedure.

A

STARs (Standard Terminal Arrival Routes)

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

You are not required to accept a STAR clearance

A

TRUE

Unlike the MSAs and TAAs, the STARs are developed to simplify clearance procedures at higher density airports and are individually depicted in the CAP.

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10
Q

If ATC requests you maintain a higher airspeed than a speed restriction contained in a STAR you must

A

Maintain ATC assigned speed

When ATC tell you to maintain a speed higher than published, it means the published speed restrictions are cancelled. And ATC specifically would mention this to you. If they don’t, it would be a good idea to clarify that.

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11
Q

A localizer can be considered reliable up to ____ NM from within ____ of the centerline.

A

18, 10

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12
Q

According to the normal width of a localizer, an aircraft that is full deflection off course is ____° off course?

A

2.5

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13
Q

CAT II ILS approaches have minimums as low as?

A

100’ DH and RVR 1200’

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14
Q

On a normal ILS approach, where is the localizer installed?

A

Typically 1000’ behind the departure end.

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15
Q

The localizer operates within which frequency band?

A

VHF

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16
Q

The optimum threshold crossing height of the glide slope is ____?

A

50’

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17
Q

The typical glide path will provide an approach angle of?

A

3°

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Glide path information should be ignored if there is a “back course”.

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19
Q

A false glide path signal while conducting an ILS approach, can cause an approach to be up to?

A

Three times the set angle

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20
Q

When a full-scale up deflection occurs on the GSI?

A

The aircraft should overshoot because obstacle clearance is not assured.

21
Q

In ILS mode, each dot of the CDI represents?

A

0.5°

22
Q

The descent gradient in the Intermediate Approach Segment is established at a maximum?

A

300 ft/nm

23
Q

The descent gradient in the Intermediate Approach Segment is established at a maximum?

A

1,000’ obstacle clearance within 4 NM of the arc.

24
Q

During a Circling procedure, and While maneuvering in the Visual Manoeuvring Area, pilots are assured of ____ obstacle clearance

A

300’

25
Q

An aircraft, that is maneuvering at an indicated airspeed of 155 kts., would use ____ arc radius.

A

2.3 NM

26
Q

Descent from procedure turn altitude to FAF crossing altitude should happen only when?

A

established on the inbound track +/- 10 degrees

27
Q

What is the formula to determine the descent rate required for a 3.0 degree approach?

A

Divide the approach ground speed by 2 and add a zero

Example:
Approach Ground speed: 100
100 / 2 = 50 and a 0 on the end
500 fpm

28
Q

In the selected are, for a LOC BC approach, what does 1 1/4 mean?

REFERENCE: Saskatoon LOC(BC) or NDB RWY 27 approach plate

A

It is indicative of the visibility that, if prevailing at the time of approach, should enable the pilot to obtain the required visual reference to complete a visual landing, but it is not a limitation.

The minima box of the approach procedure chart lists one or more navigation type requirements and the associated minimum altitudes (MDA or DA), heights (HAA, HAT, HATh or DH) and advisory visibility for each aircraft category. In addition to statute miles, the advisory visibility is also provided as an RVR value when the straight-in runway has an associated RVR sensor and the advisory visibility is 1 SM or less.

29
Q

An aircraft that is cleared for NDB approach, while located at ATURU, inbound on the 270° track, should not descend below?

REFERENCE: Saskatoon NDB RWY 27 (GNSS) approach plate

A

3100’ ASL until passing BARNES, thereafter down to 2080’ ASL.

30
Q

An aircraft that has been cleared for this approach, is inbound on the 304° magnetic track to the ZXE NDB, 40 DME shall?

REFERENCE: Saskatoon NDB RWY 27 (GNSS) approach plate

A

maintain 4500’ ASL until within 25 NM, thereafter descend to 3700’ ASL and conduct a racetrack procedure turn

31
Q

Which approach lighting would be expected during the approach? Approach Light Legend from the Cap Gen is

REFERENCES:
Saskatoon NDB RWY 27 (GNSS)
Aerodrome Chart
Approach light legend

A

ODALS

Notice the AO symbol near the threshold on the aerodrome chart. Then Find AO in the approach light legend found in the Cap Gen or CFS.

32
Q

What would be the MAP timing for an approach ground speed of 96 kts. from the ZXE NDB?

REFERENCE: Saskatoon NDB RWY 27 (GNSS) approach plate

A

Approximately 2:31

Speed - Time
90 - 240
110 - 2:11

for every 20 knots there is a reduction of 29 sec
so for 1 knot the reduction would be = 29/20 = 1:45
so for 6 knots it would be 8.7 sec
or the time for 96 knots would be 40 - 8.7 = 31.3
or the time for 96 knots would be 2:31

33
Q

What would be the MAP timing for an approach ground speed of 143 kts. from the ZXE NDB?

REFERENCE: Saskatoon NDB RWY 27 (GNSS) approach plate

A

Approximately 1:41

34
Q

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the recommended missed approach action should be to?

A

Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach procedure track published for the instrument approach just completed.

35
Q

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than?

A

200 knots IAS

36
Q

While being radar vectored during the approach to the destination, you experience a communication failure. The last assigned altitude should be maintained if…

A

it is at or above the minimum IFR altitude. Otherwise, climb up to a minimum IFR altitude immediately.

37
Q

You have been cleared to join the holding pattern for one lap to lose some altitude before commencing an approach. When more than one lap in the holding pattern is required to lose excess altitude or become better established on course, can the additional laps be made?

A

Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

When you have accepted a clearance from ATC, you must not deviate from it unless an emergency necessitates doing so. You must always let ATC know of your intentions or if you need to deviate from a clearance. This boils down to good communication. If you start doing something unexpected or deviating from your clearance, a loss of separation may occur!

38
Q

During a precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance is assured by adherence to?

A

Minimum altitude shown on the IAP.

39
Q

What is the PIC’s responsibility while flying a propeller driven aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

A

Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

40
Q

While being radar vectored to the ILS approach course, you have not received approach clearance. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What should you do?

A

Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC

This scenario boils down to good communication. Sometimes ATC may have forgotten about you, or maybe they have been really busy (they may be monitoring several frequencies at once!). A little reminder is sometimes required.

41
Q

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

A

When the localizer has been intercepted and established on the glide path.

Once you have been cleared for an ILS approach, maintain last assigned altitude until established on the LOC (within +/-10° of the FAC and within 10 NM of the airport) and glide path.

42
Q

What are the requisites for a contact approach?

A

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 NM mile flight visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds. The airport must be served by a functioning instrument approach.

The visibility is as seen from the cockpit, measured in NM. Similar to special VFR the pilot must request this while being on an IFR flight plan. It is not necessary for the destination airport to be under the control of a tower - class E control zones are common places where a contact approach is approved. When in class G airspace you would not be cleared for any approach (only to descend below controlled airspace in the vicinity of some airport) so this would not apply there.

43
Q

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

A

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport visually.

44
Q

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated when?

A

Upon arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

45
Q

When may a pilot conduct a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A

A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

46
Q

The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at?

REFERENCE: ILS/DME RWY 11 CYYC

A

3.8 DME

The FAF is easily recognized by a maltese cross symbol. If you look at KDOG under it, it reads 3.8 DME. Remember 3.6 is nm and DME is slant and so will ne slightly higher.

47
Q

In the ILS/DME RWY 11 procedure, the glide path check altitude at the FAF is?

REFERENCE: ILS/DME RWY 11 CYYC

A

4750’ ASL

48
Q

The MSA of the ILS RWY 11 CYYC at Calgary for the north-east sector is?

REFERENCE: ILS RWY 11 CYYC

A

5100’ ASL

Flight Rules (4 decks)

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