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Flight Rules > Approach Procedure > Flashcards

Approach Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

The localizer is adjusted to provide an angular width of:

A

between 3º &6º

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2
Q

If at any time on final approach prior to DH full scale deflection (left/right) of the localizer occurs, what should you do?

A

Initiate a missed approach.

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3
Q

Once a pilot reaches the DA of an ILS approach, what two things should he be prepared to do?

A

Land or Go Missed

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4
Q

Who are eligible to fly CAT I ILS?

A

All instrument rated pilots

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5
Q

___________ are developed to simplify clearance procedures at higher density airports.

A

STARs

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6
Q

On the final approach, if you have the runway in sight, what are your options?

A
  1. Cancel IFR (and continue VFR which may help other ifr flight to get there clearance sooner)
  2. Request Visual Approach.
  3. Continue on IFR and land.
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7
Q

What is the course of action for communication failure during a Missed Approach Procedure?

A

Conduct a standard hold over the inbound track specified in the MAP.

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8
Q

Missed approaches initiated beyond _________ will not be assured obstacle clearance.

A

the MAP

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9
Q

Lost communication procedures for route of flight are:

A

AVEF
A - Assigned (Your last assigned heading);
V - Vectored (If nothing is assigned fly your last vector);
E - Expected (If no vector fly what was expected in your clearance);
F - Filed (Finally fly what you filed);

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10
Q

What are the different types of STARs?

A

Conventional & RNAV

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11
Q

What should the pilot do when executing any procedure other than the published missed?

A

Advise ATC ASAP with current actions and intentions

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12
Q

Contact approach will only be authorized by ATC when:

A

1) The pilot requests it
2) There is an approved and functioning instrument approach, a GPS or GPS overlay approach for the airport.

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13
Q

When the temperature is lower than the ISA, the true altitude will be:

A

lower

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14
Q

What is the circling radius arc for the aircraft category A?

A

1.3 NM

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15
Q

If you are practicing instrument approaches under VFR, are you automatically cleared for the Missed Approach if unable to comply with climb out?

A

No, You must specifically request and get clearance for the published missed approach procedure when VFR.

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16
Q

Define a closed STAR?

A

A continuous lateral route from the STAR entry point to the FACF of the approach for the landing runway.

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17
Q

Instrument approaches for general aviation are governed by:

A

RVR values only

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18
Q

Do you require clearance to descend to any altitude on an RNAV STAR?

A

Yes

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19
Q

What is the best course of action if a communication failure occurs while being vectored at a radar vectoring altitude which is lower than a published IFR altitude?

A

Immediately climb to and maintain the appropriate minimum IFR altitude until arrive at the fix, route or airway specified in the clearance.

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20
Q

When the aircraft is cleared to a point not depicted on the STAR, the STAR is cancelled. True or False?

A

TRUE

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21
Q

What does it mean by “cleared for a straight in approach”?

A

No procedure Turn

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22
Q

What are the three approach techniques you can use for a Non-Precision approach?

A

1) Step-Down
2) Constant Descent Angle (CDA) 3) Stabilized Constant Descent Angle (SCDA)

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23
Q

P1-PAPI is used for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

10 feet

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24
Q

The initial segment ends at:

A

the Intermediate Fix (IF)

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25
Q

When do you initiate a Go-Around on an SCDA approach?

A

at the MDA

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26
Q

Name all the reporting points while conducting an IFR approach at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  • 5 mins prior to the Estimated Approach Time.
  • When passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in command intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft first intercepts the final approach course
    *When passing the final approach fix or three minutes before the estimated time of landing where no final approach fix exists
  • On final approach
  • Report when clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed.
  • When commencing a circling manoeuvre.
  • As soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure
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27
Q

What does the abbreviation “NO PT” denote?

A

No procedure turn is necessary.

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28
Q

What are the typical minimums in CAT IIIa, IIIb approaches?

A

CAT IIIa - 100’, 600 RVR; CAT IIIb - 50’, 150 RVR

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29
Q

What is the obstacle clearance provided for the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?

A

500’

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30
Q

What frequency range does the localizer operate within?

A

108.1 to 111.9 MHz

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31
Q

If ATC issues a speed that is inconsistent with the safe operation of the aircraft, the pilot:

A

must inform ATC when unable to comply

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32
Q

Aircraft may be authorized to conduct a visual approach to one runway while other aircraft are conducting IFR approaches to another parallel, intersecting, or converging runway. True or False?

A

TRUE

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33
Q

A Localizer approach is a(n) ________ approach

A

non-precision

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34
Q

When the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00 inches of mercury, altimeters of all IFR aircraft are to be set to __________ inches of mercury for enroute operations below 18 000 feet ASL.

A

31

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35
Q

What is the minimum weather requirements for a contact approach?

A

1 NM visibility and clear of clouds.

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36
Q

Name the four common types of Procedure Turns used in Canada.

A

1) Hockey Stick or Standard
2) S-Turn
3) Racetrack
4) Modified Racetrack

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37
Q

WAAS system gives you lateral and vertical guidance down to:

A

Decision Altitude

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38
Q

ATC/FSS reports “RVR A not available, RVR B 1000”. Is this approach prohibited for a general aviation aircraft?

A

Yes, since RVR B is governing and is below 1200 feet.

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39
Q

During the final segment on a non-precision approach, the aircraft will be descended to the ________ and then levelled off until the _________.

A

MDA, MAP

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40
Q

If an approach is not stabilized by ___________ feet when in IMC, a Go Around has to be executed.

A

1000

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41
Q

When does the published missed approach provide obstacle clearance?

A

Only when the missed approach is conducted on the missed approach segment from or above MAP.

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42
Q

V1-2 Bar VASI is designed for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

10 feet

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43
Q

Non precision approaches provide:

A

only lateral guidance.

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44
Q

Define an open STAR?

A

A continuous lateral route from the STAR entry point to the Downwind Termination Waypoint followed by a heading.

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45
Q

Define an RNP system?

A

An RNAV system that monitors its own accuracy and alerts pilots if accuracy degrades below set parameters.

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46
Q

According to CARs, what is the maximum allowed speed below 10,000 feet ASL?

A

250 KIAS

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47
Q

Straigh-In minima is published when:

A
  • a normal descent rate can be maintained from FAF to the runway &
  • the final approach course is with in 30º of the runway centreline.
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48
Q

What are conventional STARs?

A

STARs that are flown by using ground based NAVAIDs or specified headings.

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49
Q

If a communication failure occurs in VMC or if VMC is encountered after the failure, the PIC shall:

A

continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

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50
Q

An accident is a CFIT accident when:

A

A pilot or crew unintentionally flies a mechanically sound aircraft into the terrain or water.

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51
Q

When do you execute an approach if comms are lost?

A

Whichever of the following is the most recent:
1) The ETA as calculated from takeoff time plus the filed or amended estimated time en route.
2) The ETA last notified to and acknowledged by ATC.
3) The Expected Approach Time last received and acknowledged.

52
Q

What is the reason you might have to hold short of the ILS Line?

A

So you don’t interfere with Signals

53
Q

Height of obstructions depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts are always _______. (AGL or MSL)?

A

MSL

54
Q

RNAV approaches with vertical guidance (APV) are considered as precision approaches. True or False?

A

FALSE

55
Q

Abbreviated PAPI/VASI are designed for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height up to:

A

10 feet

56
Q

Where is the localizer transmitter antenna array located?

A

at the far end of the runway from the approach - typically 1000’ behind the departure end.

57
Q

Are the radar vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC temperature compensated?

A

Yes

58
Q

While doing an IFR approach, you had the runway in sight and requested to cancel IFR. Are you required to file an arrival report upon landing?

A

Yes. Cancelling IFR means that you are VFR now.

59
Q

S-turn type procedure turn is used when arriving from:

A

the same side as the procedure turn.

60
Q

Aerodromes that are unable to accurately measure barometric pressures above 31.00 inches of mercury will report the barometric pressure as:

A

“in excess of 31.00 inches of mercury”

61
Q

P3-PAPI is used for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

45 feet

62
Q

What approach procedure is commonly referred to as ‘dive and drive’?

A

Step down approach

63
Q

What is the obstacle clearance provided for the initial segment of an instrument approach?

A

1000’

64
Q

What are the typical minimums in CAT 1 approaches?

A

200’ AGL DH and 1/2 SM or 2600 RVR Visibility.

65
Q

What is the Approach Ban minimum RVR value for general aviation, if only RVR B is available for the intended runway?

A

1200

66
Q

With approach ban in effect, the pilots of an IFR aircraft are prohibited from completing an instrument approach past the:

A

FAF

67
Q

Approach Ban for general aviation is applicable only if the RVR value for the intended runway is less than _______ &________ ,if RVR A &B are available.

A

1200 (RVR A) &600 (RVR B)

68
Q

P2-PAPI is used for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

25 feet

69
Q

What is the com failure procedure on a closed STAR?

A
  • If the failure occurs prior to the FACF, squawk 7600
  • Continue on the RNAV STAR route to the FACF.
  • Intercept the Final Approach Course and fly the straight-in approach.
70
Q

What are the advantages of a Stabilized Constant Descent Angle (SCDA) approach technique?

A
  • Inherently stable
  • Lighter workload during the approach
  • NO level flight segment
  • Better fuel efficiency
71
Q

What makes up Course Guidance in an ILS?

A

Localizer & Glide Slope

72
Q

Who can initiate a contact approach?

A

Only the pilot

73
Q

What are the advantages of Constant Descent Angle (CDA) approach technique?

A
  • Inherently stable until MDA level-off
  • Smaller workload during the approach than using step-downs
  • One possible level flight segment
  • Better fuel efficiency
74
Q

Ina modified racetrack procedure turn, upon crossing the IAF, turn to track ________ from the outbound course for _____.

A

45º, 0:45

75
Q

If a comm failure occurs after receiving and acknowledging a hold instruction, what should you do?

A

Hold as directed and commence an instrument approach procedure at the Expected Approach Time or Expected Further Clearance time.

76
Q

When should the pilot execute the missed approach procedure?

A

1) The time to the MAP has elapsed without the required visual reference being sighted. 2) A safe landing is not possible. 3) The controlling agency instructs the pilot to go around. 4) Track guidance to MAP is not available.

77
Q

What minimums will be published, if the criteria for a straight-in minima is exceeded?

A

Circling minima

78
Q

Racetrack patterned procedure turn is used when arriving from:

A

the same direction as the approach course or from a hold on the IAF.

79
Q

What should the pilot do if he initiates a missed approach prior to the MAP?

A

Initiate the climb and continue on the final approach course to the MAP before executing a turn.

80
Q

The ground equipment for an ILS consists of:

A

1) A Localizer
2) A glide path transmitter
3) An NDB (or DME) along the approach path.

81
Q

Who can initiate a Visual Approach?

A

ATC or Pilot

82
Q

What is the standard procedure to conduct a missed approach procedure during circling?

A

There are no standard procedure to conduct a missed approach procedure during circling.

83
Q

What are the two modulating frequencies of a Localizer?

A

90MHz and 150 MHz

84
Q

Aircraft that are unable to set altimeter settings above 31.00 in Hg should set __________ during abnormally high pressure conditions.

A

31

85
Q

Name a few drawbacks of the Step-Down approach technique?

A
  • Inherently Unstable
  • Higher Workload during the approach
  • The rate of Descent is inconsistent throughout the approach
  • Higher fuel consumption
86
Q

When there is a balked landing after missed approach point and the pilot does not have alternative ATC instructions. Who is responsible for the obstacle clearance?

A

The Pilot

87
Q

What are the typical minimums in CAT IIIc approaches?

A

No Minima (Autoland)

88
Q

In an open RNAV STAR, how does the aircraft get to the final approach course from the Downwind Termination Waypoint (DTW)?

A

ATC is responsible for vectoring the aircraft to final approach.

89
Q

Information regarding the types of approach aids at an airport can be found in the:

A

CFS and CAP

90
Q

The glide path transmitter operates within the frequency range of:

A

329.3 to 335.0 MHz

91
Q

What is CAT II DH based on?

A

Radar Altimeter

92
Q

Name the five major segments of an instrument approach.

A

1) Transition
2) Initial
3) Intermediate
4) Final
5) Missed Approach

93
Q

When altitude corrections are applied to a published final approach fix (FAF) crossing altitude, procedure turn or missed approach altitude, pilots should:

A

advise ATC how much of a correction is to be applied.

94
Q

For a General Aviation aircraft, the ATC/FSS reports “…“RVR “A” 800, RVR “B” 800, observed visibility one-quarter statute mile.” Is the approach to DH/MDA authorized?

A

An approach to DH/MDA is authorized because the reported ground visibility of one-quarter statute mile is governing.

95
Q

What are the typical minimums in CAT II approaches?

A

100’ AGL DH and an RVR of 1200’

96
Q

The speed range for the aircraft category B is:

A

91 - 120 KIAS

97
Q

Who is responsible for the traffic separation after acknowledging a visual approach clearance?

A

The Pilot

98
Q

A visual approach is not an instrument approach procedure and therefore has no missed approach segment. True or False?

A

TRUE

99
Q

Obstructions are depicted in which of the following sections of an Instrument Approach Chart?

A

Plan View

100
Q

Hockey Stick patterned procedure turn is used when arriving from:

A

the opposite direction of the approach course.

101
Q

Which one is a non-standard procedure turn? Left hand or Right hand?

A

Right hand

102
Q

If you do not conduct the missed approach at the missed approach point (MAP):

A

you are not guaranteed obstacle clearance.

103
Q

While doing an IFR approach, you had the runway in sight and requested to cancel IFR and alerting service. Are you required to file an arrival report upon landing?

A

No. Cancelling IFR and alerting service means that you closed the flight plan and you are on your own.

104
Q

What are the exceptions to continue an approach past the FAF with RVR values less than required for the approach ban minima, for general aviation aircraft?

A

1) When the below-minima RVR report is received, the aircraft is inbound on approach and has passed the FAF;
2) the pilot-in-command has informed the appropriate ATC unit that the aircraft is on a training flight and that the pilot-in-command intends to initiate a missed approach procedure at or above the DH or the MDA;
3) the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater than the minimum RVR;
4) the RVR is less than the minimum RVR, and the ground visibility at the aerodrome where the runway is located is reported to be at least one-quarter statute mile; OR
5) the pilot-in-command is conducting a precision approach to CAT III minima.

105
Q

The destination altimeter setting is 31.20 in Hg. ILS DH is 250 ft with 200 - 1/2 being the requirement. What would be the required ceiling and visibility to land?

A

The required ceiling is 400’ and vis is 1 sm. (Increase the ceiling requirements by 100 feet for each 1/10 in of Hg in excess of 31.00 in Hg. Increase the visibility requirements by 1/4 sm for each 1/10 inch of mercury in excess of 31.00 in Hg.)

106
Q

The RVR is below the minimum, and the ground visibility is reported to be at least one-quarter statute mile. Is the approach authorized for general aviation aircraft?

A

Yes.

107
Q

If unable to land after a visual approach at an uncontrolled airport, what is an IFR pilot expected to do?

A

Remain clear of the clouds and contact ATC as soon as possible for further clearance.

108
Q

Approach Ban for general aviation is applicable only if the RVR value for the intended runway is less than _______________ ,for only RVR A is available.

A

1200

109
Q

Lost communication procedures for altitude of flight are:

A

MEA (The highest altitude or flight level of the 3).
M - Minimum en-route altitude;
E - Expected altitude;
A - Assigned altitude.

110
Q

The general aviation approach ban minima for CAT IIIA precision approach is:

A

RVR “A” “B” &”C” - 600/600/600

111
Q

GNSS approaches that provide vertical and lateral guidance are called:

A

APV Approaches (approaches with vertical guidance)

112
Q

The final segment starts at:

A

the Final Approach Fix (FAF)

113
Q

What is the minimum weather required to authorize a visual approach?

A

ceiling at least 500 feet above the minimum IFR altitude &3 SM visibility.

114
Q

The initial segment starts at:

A

the Initial Approach Fix (IAF)

115
Q

V3-3 Bar VASI is designed for wide body aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

45 feet

115
Q

It is the initial fix on a STAR.

A

a ‘bedpost’

116
Q

Where does Missed Approach climb gradient begin?

A

MAP

117
Q

Precision Radar Approaches are provided at:

A

aerodromes with military PAR units

118
Q

What temperature should be used for temperature correction?

A

Surface temperature

119
Q

V2-2 Bar VASI is used for aircraft with eye-to-wheel height of up to:

A

25 feet

120
Q

When would you initiate a missed approach while doing Step-Down approach?

A

at the MAP

121
Q

A visual approach is conducted on an ________ flight plan.

A

IFR

122
Q

The localizer is adjusted to provide an angular width of:

A

between 3º & 6º

123
Q

If at any time on final approach prior to DH full scale deflection (left/right) of the localizer occurs, what should you do?

A

Initiate a missed approach.

124
Q

What is the approach ban criteria for general aviation aircraft when RVR for the runway is not available or reported?

A

If there is no RVR reported, there will be no Approach Ban.

Flight Rules (4 decks)

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