ap pysch exam definition Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

B.F. Skinner

A

Operant Conditioning, Schedules of Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Jean Piaget

A

4 stages of child cognitive development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sigmund Freud

A

Father of Psychoanalysis, Pscyhosexual Stages, Dream Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Albert Bandura

A

Observational Learning, Social Learning Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Abraham Maslow

A

Human Motivation, Hierarchy of Needs, Self Actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ivan Pavlov

A

Classical Conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Carl Rogers

A

Humanistic Perspective, Client Centered Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Erik Erikson

A

Psychosocial Development Stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

William James

A

Father of American Psychology Functionalism, James-Lange Theory of Emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Wilhelm Wundt

A

Structuralism, Father of Modern Psychology, First Psychology Experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of Psychology: Evolutionary

A

Mental processes exist because they serve an evoluntionary purpose, they aid in survival and reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Types of Psychology: Psychodynamic

A

Empasizes behavior is determined by your past experiences that are left in the unconscious mind and childhood experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Types of Psychology: Cognitive

A

Focuses on internal processes of the mind influencing behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Types of Psychology: Biological

A

The influence of genetics and brain chemistry (physical and biological processes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Types of Psychology: Sociocultural

A

Focuses on society and culture in terms of our behavior and shaping cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Types of Psychology: Behavioral

A

Focus on observable behaviors, people/animals are controlled by their enviornment, positive/negative consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Types of Psychology: Humanistic

A

Human capacity for choice and growth, motivation for people to fulfill their potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of Psychology: Biopsychosocial

A

Eclectic (Combining Approach), Links between genetics and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definitions: Psychology

A

the science of behavior and mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pyschology is a science

A

due to the use of empirical evidence and the scientific method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Psychology’s foundations are

A

philosophy and physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definitions: Structuralism

A

an early approach focused on the structure of the mind (Introspection (looking inward) Edward Titchener)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Definitions: Functionalism

A

focused on the purpose of the mind, developed by William james

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definitions: Nature

A

based on genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definitions: Nuture

A

based on environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definitions: basic research

A

builds psychology’s knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Definitions: applied research

A

application of existing knowledge in the real world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definitions: operational definition

A

a way of measuring or quantifying a variable

ex) variable: happiness
Operational definition: the number of smiles a person emits during an observation period of certain time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definitions: Replication

A

repeating an experiment with different particiants. This will determine if the results can be generalized to other participants and other situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Definitions: Case Study

A

examine one person or group in depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Definitions: Naturalistic Observation

A

describes behavior in its most natural state without interference or intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Definitions: Survey

A

self report data, questions influenced by wording

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definitions: Random Sampling

A

gives every member of a population an equal chance of being selected for the sample (random number)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Definitions: Random Assignment

A

Randomly (by chance) assigning participants to the control group or the experimental group to help establish cause and effect. It would eliminate or reduce the impact of specific individual differences/confounding variables in a study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Correlation is causation (T/F)

A

FALSE, correlations predict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

No correlation

A

equals 0, weaker

if closer to 1 then it’ll be stronger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Definitions: Independent Variable

A

the variable being manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Definitions: Dependent Variable

A

the outcome/measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definitions: Confounding Variable

A

a factor other than the factor being studied that might influenced a study’s results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Definitions: Experimental Group

A

the treatment group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Definitions: Control Group

A

the comparison group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Definitions: Placebo Effect

A

seems to be a “real” medical treatmnt, but itsn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Definitions: Single Blind Procedure

A

when participants don’t know if they get the treatment or the placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Definitions: Double Blind Procedure

A

when neither the researcher or partipants know who received the treatment or placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Definitions: Descriptive Statistics

A

describes sets of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Definitions: Inferential Statistics

A

draw conclusions about the sets of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Definitions: Mean

A

average value (add all together and divide by amount of data)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Definitions: Median

A

middle value of all the data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Definitions: Mode

A

the most repeating data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Definitions: Standard Deviation

A

how scores vary around the mean score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Definitions: Statistical Significance

A

how likely that a result occurred by chance (p value less than 0.05)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Definitions: American Psychological Association

A

APA, establishes ethic codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Definitions: Institutional Review Board

A

reviews proposals for research, approval is needed for experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Definitions: Informed Consent

A

all subjects given necessary information to decide to participate in study, or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Definitions: Confidentiality

A

any data collected in the experiment should remain confidential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Definitions: Debriefing

A

experimenter tells the subject more information about the study’s purpose and procedures after the study is complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lobs of the Brain: Frontal Lobe

A

executive function, higher level cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lobs of the Brain: Parietal Lobe

A

sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Lobs of the Brain: Occipital Lobe

A

Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lobs of the Brain: Temporal Lobe

A

Sense of hearing/meaningful speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Structure of Brain: Corpus Callosum

A

connects two hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Structure of Brain: Medulla

A

controls life sustaining functions, breathing, heart rate, blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Structure of Brain: Cerebellium

A

controls coordination and voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Structure of Brain: Hypothalamus

A

responsible for releasing hormones (regulates homeostasis of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Structure of Brain: Hippocampus

A

formation of memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Structure of Brain: Amygdala

A

“Fear Center” processing emotions and survival responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Definition: Neuroplasticity

A

the brain’s ability to constantly change both the structure and function of many cells in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Definition: Split Brain

A

the two hemispheres of the Brain can’t communicate with each side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Definition: Broca’s Area

A

speech production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Definition: Wernicke’s Area

A

comprehension of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Definition: Motor Cortex

A

voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Definition: Somatosensory Cortex

A

received and processed sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Definition: Central Nervous System

A

Brain and the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Definition: Peripheral Nervous System

A

sensory nerves outside Brain/spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Definition: Somatic Nervous System

A

voluntary movement from your brain to your muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Definition: Autonomic Nervous System

A

involuntary and unconscious actions (breathing, blood pumping)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Definition: Sympathetic Nervous System

A

emergency response system “fight or flight or freeze”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Definition: Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

calm a person “rest and digest”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Neuron: dendrites

A

received message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Neuron: Soma

A

keep the neuron functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Neuron: Myelin Sheath

A

protect nerve/speed up message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Neuron: Axon

A

carry messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Neuron: Axon Terminals

A

send signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Definition: Neural Transmission

A

information travels through a neuron electrochemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Definition: Action Potential

A

Firing, neuron sends information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Definition: Resting Potential

A

neuron is charged and ready to fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Definition: All or None Principle

A

neuron fires at full strength or not at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Definition: Neurotransmitters

A

chemical messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Definition: Excitatory Neurotransmitters

A

cause neurons to fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Definition: Inhibitory Neurotransmitters

A

prevent neurons from firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Definition: Acetylcholine

A

movement and memory, excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Definition: Serotonin

A

mood, inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Definition: Dopamine

A

pleasure chemical of the Brain, both excitatory and inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Definition: Norepinephrine

A

response to danger “flight or fight” excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Definition: GABA

A

calms the central Nervous system, inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Definition: Glutamate

A

thinking, memory, learning, excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Definition: Endorphins

A

relieve pain and stress, feelings of pleasure and euphoria, inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Definition: Afferent Neuron

A

sensory neuron, sensory input to spinal cord into the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Definition: Efferent Neuron

A

motor neurons, carry signals away from central Nervous system to initiate an action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Definition: Interneuron

A

middleman between the Afferent and efferent neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Definition: Endocrine System

A

glands that secrete chemical messengers called hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Definition: Pituitary Gland

A

Master Gland, controlled by the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Definition: Identical twins

A

have the same DNA and fraternal twins have different DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Definition: Heritability

A

extent to which differences in the appearance of a trait across several people can be accounted for by differences in their genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Sleep Cycle: Circadian Rhythm

A

24 hour cycle, body’s internal biological clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Sleep Cycle: Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

test record electrical activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Sleep Cycle: REM Sleep

A

your dream sleep, it’s called paradoxical sleep because brain waves are very active but muscles are paralyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Psychoactive Drugs: Agonist

A

mimic neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Psychoactive Drugs: Antagonist

A

block neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Psychoactive Drugs: Depressants

A

slow the activity of the central Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Psychoactive Drugs: Alcohol

A

depresses the area of the brain that controls judgement and inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Definition: Transduction

A

the process of converting physical energy into electrical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Definition: Bottom Up Processing

A

small details into big picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Definition: Top Down Processing

A

big picture into small details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Definition: Absolute Threshold

A

the point where you notice that a stimulus is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Definition: Difference Threshold

A

the point where you can detect the difference between stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Definition: Sensory Adaptation

A

reduced sensitivity to a stimulus after constant exposure to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Definition: Cocktail Party Effect

A

ability to focus on a particular sound while partial filtering out other sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Definition: Inattentional Blindness

A

focus on one stimulus will lead to between blind to other stimuli (change Blindness means miss changes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Definition: Perceptual Set

A

predisposition to perceive things in a certain way (notice details while ignoring others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Definition: Rods

A

responsible for vision at low light levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Definition: Cones

A

vision at higher light levels and capable of color vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Definition: Blind Spot

A

area in the eye with no receptor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Definition: Opponent Process Theory

A

repeated exposure to stimulus will cause less of an initial reaction and a strongr opposing reaction (red-green, blue-yellow, black-white)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Definition: Binocular Cues

A

depth perception using two eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Definition: Monocular Cues

A

depth perception using one eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Definition: Perceptual Organization

A

ways that humans organize information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Definition: Figure Ground

A

ability to differentiate an object from its background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Definition: Grouping

A

tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Definition: Visual Cliff

A

laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Definition: Shape and Size Constancies

A

we perceive the form of familiar objects as constant even while our retinas recieve changing images of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Definition: Sensorineural hearing loss

A

damage in your inner ear (tiny hair cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Definition: Conduction hearing loss

A

anatomical structure in the ear block the passage of sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Definition: Cochlea

A

sound waves traveling through the cochlea fluid trigger nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Definition: Gate Control Theory

A

the theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological gate that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Definition: Kinesthesia

A

our movement sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Definition: Vestibular Sense

A

our sense of body movement and position that enables our sense of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Definition: Classical Conditioning

A

association between two stimuli resulting in a learned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Definition: Acquisition

A

the process of pairing the uncondition stimulus with the condition stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Definition: Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS)

A

something that triggers a naturally occurring response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Definition: Conditioned Stimulus (CS)

A

neutral stimulus that after being repeatedly presented prior to the Unconditioned stimulus, evokes a similar response as the UCS`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Definition: Unconditioned Response (UR)

A

naturally occurring response that follows the UCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Definition: Conditioned Response (CR)

A

the aquired response to the formerly neural stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Definition: Extinction

A

Conditioned response decreases or disappears (no longer paired with UCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Definition: Spontaneous Recovery

A

return of previously extinct Conditioned response after rest period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Definition: Stimulus Generalization

A

Conditioned stimulus may evokes similar responses after the response as been conditioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Definition: Stimulus Discrimination

A

the ability to differentiate between a conditioned stimulus and other stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Defintion: Operant Conditioning

A

learning through rewards and punishment for behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Defintion: Reinforcing Stimulus

A

strengthens or increases the behavior it follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Defintion: Positive Reinforcement

A

add something good, behavior increases as a result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Defintion: Negative Reinforcement

A

remove something bad, behavior increases as result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Defintion: Punishment Stimulus

A

presentation of an negative consequence that causes a decrease in the behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Defintion: Positive Punishment

A

add something bad, behavior decreaes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Defintion: Negative Punishment

A

remove something good, behavior decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Defintion: Schedules of Reinforcement

A

timing of how often a desired response will be reinforced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Defintion: Fixed Ratio

A

response is reinforced only after a specific number of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Defintion: Variable Ratio

A

response is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Defintion: Fixed Interval

A

response is rewarded only after a specific amount of time has elapsed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Defintion: Variable Interval

A

response is rewarded after an unpredictable amount of time has passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Defintion: Observational Learning

A

process of watching other then later imitating the behaviors observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Defintion: Latent Learning

A

one can learn something but not show the behavior right away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Defintion: Insight Learning

A

sudden realization of the problem’s solution that “just came to you” (Kohler)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Defintion: Learned Helplessness

A

organism becomes helpless after learning they have no ability to change the outcome (Seligman)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Defintion: Prototype

A

mental image or the best example of a specific concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Defintion: Convergent Thinking

A

logic, focused on coming up with the single, well established answer to problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Defintion: Divergent Thinking

A

imagination, exploring many possible solutions, creativity

167
Q

Defintion: Trial and Error

A

trying a number of different solutions and ruling out those that do not work

168
Q

Defintion: Algorithms

A

set of step by step procedures that provides the correct answer to a particular problem

169
Q

Defintion: Heuristics

A

educated guess based on prior experiences (mental shortcut)

170
Q

Defintion: Representative Heuristics

A

comparing present situation to most representative mental prototype

171
Q

Defintion: Availability Heuristic

A

decisions on examples and information that immediately spring to mind

172
Q

Defintion: Mental Set

A

people use solutions that have worked in the past

173
Q

Defintion: Functional Fixedness

A

view problems only in their usual manner

174
Q

Defintion: Overconfidence

A

tendency to overestimate our own knowledge, skill, or judgement

175
Q

Defintion: Hindsight Bias

A

I knew it all along view, events as more predictable than they really are

176
Q

Defintion: Framing

A

the acquired response to the formerly neutral stimulus

177
Q

Defintion: Alfred Binet

A

French psychologist invented first practical IQ test

178
Q

Defintion: g factor

A

general intelligence factor that underlies all intelligent activity (Charles spearman)

179
Q

Defintion: IQ equation

A

mental Age divided by chronological age times 100

180
Q

Defintion: Fluid Intelligence

A

ability to reason think flexibly (dimishes with adult aging)

181
Q

Defintion: Crystallized Intelligence

A

accumulation of knowledge, facts/skills that increases with age

182
Q

Defintion: Howard Gardner

A

theory of multiple intelligences (8 distinct types)

183
Q

Defintion: Wechsler Intelligence Scales (WAIS)

A

intelligence was made up a number of different mental abilities rather than a single general intelligence factor

184
Q

Defintion: Flynn Effect

A

IQ scores have been rising worldwide

185
Q

Defintion: Achievement Tests

A

designed to measure person’s level of skill/knowledge in a specific area

186
Q

Defintion: Aptitude Tests

A

assess what a person is capable of doing or to predict

187
Q

Defintion: Reliability

A

consistency, tendency of a test to produce the same scores again and again each time it is given to the same people

188
Q

Defintion: Test Retest Reliability

A

best for Intelligence, administering a test twice at two different points in time

189
Q

Defintion: Split Half Reliability

A

comparing the results of one half of a test with the results of the other half

190
Q

Defintion: Validity

A

the degree in which a test actually measures what it’s supposed to measure

191
Q

Defintion: Content Validity

A

test measures all aspects of what it is designed to measure

192
Q

Defintion: Predictive

A

test accurately forecasts performance on a future measure

193
Q

Defintion: Normal Distribution

A

bell shaped curve in which the majority of scores lie near or around the average score

194
Q

Defintion: Recall

A

being able to access the information without being cued (fill in blank test)

195
Q

Defintion: Recognition

A

identifying information after experincing it again (mulitple choice test)

196
Q

Defintion: Relearning

A

the process by which we learn something for the second time, usually faster than the first

197
Q

Defintion: Encoding

A

the process of putting information into the memory system

198
Q

Defintion: Storage

A

the creation of a permanent record of the encoded information

199
Q

Defintion: Retrieval

A

the calling back of stored information on demand when it is needed

200
Q

Defintion: Iconic Memory

A

visual

201
Q

Defintion: Echoic Memory

A

auditory

202
Q

Defintion: Haptic Memory

A

touch

203
Q

Defintion: Maintenance Rehearsal

A

straight repeating of information in order to memorize it

204
Q

Defintion: Chunking

A

process of taking individual pieces of information (chunks) and Grouping them into larger units

205
Q

Defintion: Working Memory

A

system in your brain that allows you to temporarily retain and manipulate the stored information involved in a complex process

206
Q

Defintion: Implict “Unconscious” Memory

A

information that you remember unconsciously and effortlessly

207
Q

Defintion: Procedural Memories

A

how to perform a specific task

208
Q

Defintion: Explicit Concious Memory

A

information that you have to consciously work to remember

209
Q

Defintion: Semantic Memory

A

Facts, memories of concepts, names, and other knowledge

210
Q

Defintion: Episodic Memory

A

Events, long term memory that involves the recollection of a specific event, situation, and experiences

211
Q

Defintion: Prospective Memory

A

remembering to complete a task in the future

212
Q

Defintion: Long Term Potentiation (LTP)

A

strengthening of a synaptic connection that happens when the synapse of one neuron repeatedly fires and excites another neuron (Kandel and Schwartz)

213
Q

Definition: Forgetting Curve

A

the exponential loss of information shortly after learning it (Hermann Ebbinghaus)

214
Q

Definition: Types of Amnesia

A

full or partial loss of memory

215
Q

Types of Amnesia: Retrograde Amnesia

A

cannot remember things that happened before the event that caused their amnesia

216
Q

Types of Amnesia: Anterograde Amnesia

A

condition in which a person is unable to create new memories after an amnesia inducing event

217
Q

Types of Amnesia: Serial Position Effect

A

when we try to retrieve a long list of words we usually recall the last words and first words best, Forgetting the middle

218
Q

Types of Amnesia: Encoding Failure

A

occurs when a memory was never formed in the first place (without effort, many memories never form)

219
Q

Definition: Proactive (past) Interference

A

old memories interfere with the Retrieval of newer memories

220
Q

Definition: Retroactive (recent) interference

A

newer memories interfere with the Retrieval of older memories

221
Q

Definition: Flashbulb Memory

A

vivid and detailed memories that people create during times of personal tragedy, accident, or emotionally significant world events

222
Q

Definition: Elizabeth Loftus

A

1944, extensive research on memory construction and false memories and how memory is changeable, it is not always accurate

223
Q

Definition: Misinformation effect

A

exposed to misleading information we tend to misremember

224
Q

Definition: Method of Loci

A

association of words on a list with visualization of places on a familiar path

225
Q

Definition: Context Dependent Memory

A

easier recall of information while in the same context of environment in which it was acquired

226
Q

Definition: State Dependent Memory

A

memories that are triggered enhanced by a person’s current mood because of the relationship to memories formed when you were in a similar state

227
Q

Definition: Longitudinal

A

study follows the same group of people over time from months to years in order to evaluate changes in individuals

228
Q

Definition: Cross Sectional

A

type of study in which people of different ages are examined at the same time

229
Q

Definition: Cross Sequential

A

individuals in a cross sectional sample are tested more than once over a specified period of time

230
Q

Definition: Generativity

A

contribute to the next generation

231
Q

Definition: Stagnation

A

little connection to others

232
Q

Definition: Ego Integrity

A

sense of satisfaction while reflecting on life

233
Q

Definition: Despair

A

sense of failure

234
Q

Definition: Teratogen

A

any non genetic agent that produces birth defects at expsoures that commonly occur

235
Q

Definition: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

FAS, includes physical, cognitive, and psychological abnormalities that result from consuming alcohol during pregnancy

236
Q

Definition: Maturation

A

genetic growth tendencies are Inborn, determined by genetic makeup

237
Q

Definition: Harry Harlow

A

psychologist, conducted studies of attachment and the importance of contact comfort

238
Q

Definition: Secure Attachment

A

infants explore, display higher stranger anxiety, easy to calm/enthusiastic on return to caregiver

239
Q

Definition: Avoidant (insecure) Attachment

A

infants explore, low stranger anxiety, unconcerned by separation and avoid contact at return of caregiver

240
Q

Definition: Anxious Ambivalent Attachment

A

unwilling to explore, high stranger anxiety, upset by separation and seek and reject contact on return of the caregiver

241
Q

Definition: Authoritarian

A

restrictive parenting style, allows for little discussion or explanation for the firm controls placed on the child

242
Q

Definition: Permissive Parenting

A

style that is characterized by having few and inconsistent rules and a relaxed attitude to parenting (more like friend than parent)

243
Q

Definition: Authoritative Parenting

A

style that is child centered, in that parents closely interact with their child, while maintaining high expectations for behavior and performance, as well as firm adherence to schedules and discipline

244
Q

Definition: Assimilation

A

interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas

245
Q

Definition: Accommodation

A

adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information

246
Q

Definition: Sensorimotor Stage

A

birth to 2, infants use senses and motor abilities to learn about the world

247
Q

Definition: Object Permanence

A

a child’s ability to understand that objects still exist after they are no longer in sight

248
Q

Definition: Preoperational Stage

A

the stage during which a child learns to use a language (2 to 7)

249
Q

Definition: Babbling Stage

A

beginning at 4 months, vocalizes various sounds

250
Q

Definition: One Word Stage

A

Ages one and two, child speaks mostly in single words

251
Q

Definition: Egocentrism

A

inability on the part of a child in the Preoperational stage of development to see any point of view other than their own

252
Q

Definition: Conservation

A

the principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remains the same despite changes in the forms of objects

253
Q

Definition: Concrete Opeerational Stage

A

(6 to 11) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events

254
Q

Definition: Formal Operational Stage

A

(12 years) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts

255
Q

Definition: Lev Vygotsky

A

developed a theory of how the child’s mind grows through interaction with the social environment

256
Q

Definition: Zone of Proximal Development

A

ZPD, range between the level at which a child can solve a problem working along with difficulty, and the level at which a child can solve a problem with the assistance of adults or more skilled children

257
Q

Definition: Scaffolding

A

process in which a more skilled learned, gives help to a less skilled learner, reducing the amount of help as the less skilled learner becomes more capable

258
Q

Definition: Gender Identity

A

the individual’s sense psychological of being male or female, both, or neither from cultural and social expectations

259
Q

Definition: Gender Roles

A

set of expectations held by society about the ways in which men and women are supposed to behave based on their gender

260
Q

Definition: Synaptic Pruning

A

selective removal of unnecessary neurons and connections to improve brain efficiency (during puberty)

261
Q

Definition: Adolescent Egocentrism

A

heightened self consciousness belief that others are as interested in them as they are themselves, their sense of personal uniqueness and invulnerability

262
Q

Definition: Instinct Theory

A

the evolutionary perspective, people are motivated to behave in certain ways because they are evolutionarily/genetically programmed to do so with survival instincts

263
Q

Definition: Incentive Theory

A

we are pulled into action by (positive or negative) outside incentives

264
Q

Definition: Yerkes Dodson Law

A

increased arousal can help improve performance, but only up to a certain point. At the point when arousal becomes excessive, performance diminishes

265
Q

Definition: Maslow’s Heriarchy of Needs

A

Abraham Maslow suggested that people are motivated by a hierarchy of needs

266
Q

Definition: Self efficacy

A

a person’s belief in their ability to succeed in a particular situation

267
Q

Definition: Hypothalamus

A

most of the biological feeling of hunger comes from this brain structure

268
Q

Definition: Lateral hypothalamus

A

hungry, the on button for eating. If stimulated causes you to feel hunger

269
Q

Definition: Ventromedial hypothalamus

A

full, the off button for eating. When stimulated, makes you feel full

270
Q

Definition: Intrinsic Motivation

A

behavior that is drived by internal rewards (autonomy, mastery, purpose)

271
Q

Definition: Extrinsic Motivation

A

behavior that is driven by external rewards such as money, fame, grades, and praise

272
Q

Definition: Over justification Effect

A

phenomenon in which being rewarded for doing something actually diminishes intrinsic motivation to perform that action

273
Q

Definition: Approach Approach Conflict

A

conflict within a person where he or she needs to decide between two appealing goals

274
Q

Definition: Avoidance Avoidance Conflict

A

making a decision between two equally undesirable choices

275
Q

Definition: Approach Avoidance Conflict

A

conflict involves making decisions about situations that have both positive and negative consequences

276
Q

Definition: Sexual Response Cycle

A

William masters and virginia Johnson, 1966, stages humans go through during interaction

277
Q

Definition: Display Rule

A

a social group or culture’s informal norms about how to appropriately express emotions

278
Q

Definition: Common Sense Theory

A

theory in which a stimulus leads to an emotion, which then leads to bodily arousal through the Autonomic Nervous system

279
Q

Definition: James Lange Theory

A

emotions occur as a result of physiological reactions to events

280
Q

Definition: Facial Feedback Hypothesis

A

facial expressions are connected to experiencing emotions

281
Q

Definition: Cannon Bard Theory of Emotions

A

suggests that the physical and psychological experience of emotion happen at the same time and that one does not cause the other

282
Q

Definition: Schachter Singer Two Factor Theory

A

the physiological arousal occurs first, and then the individual must identify the reason for this arousal to experience and label it as an emotion

283
Q

Definition: Distress

A

occurs when people experiences unpleasant and undesirable stressors

284
Q

Definition: General Adaptation Syndrome

A

researched by Hans selye, the three stages of the bodies psychological reaction to stress

285
Q

Definition: Locus of Control

A

refers to the extent to which people feel that they have control over the events that influence their lives

286
Q

Definition: Internal Locus of Control

A

you believe that you have control over what happens

287
Q

Definition: External Locus of Control

A

blame outside forces for their circumstances

288
Q

Definition: Psychoanalytic Theories

A

sigmund freud developed theory of personality development

289
Q

Definition: Id

A

part of the human personality that is made up of all our inborn biological urges that seeks out immediate gratification (pleasure principle)

290
Q

Definition: Ego

A

the largely conscious, executive, part of personality that, mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality (reality principle)

291
Q

Definition: Superego

A

the part of personality that represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgement (the conscience) and for future aspirations (morality principle)

292
Q

Definition: Defense Mechanisms

A

freud proposed that the ego protects itself with tactics that reduce or redirect anxiety by disorting reality

293
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Repression

A

Acts to keep information out of conscious awareness

294
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Displacement

A

involved taking out our frustrations, feelings, and impulses on people or objects that are less threatening

295
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Projection

A

involves taking our own unacceptable qualities or feelings and ascribing them to other people

296
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Regression

A

when confronted by stressful events, people sometimes abandon coping strategies and revert to patterns of behavior used earlier in development

297
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Denial

A

functions to protect the ego from things with which the individual cannot cope

298
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Rationalization

A

involves explaining an unacceptable behavior or feeling in a rational or logical manner, avoiding the true reasons for the behavior

299
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Reaction-Formation

A

reduces anxiety by taking up the opposite feeling, impulse, or behavior

300
Q

Definition: Carl Jung

A

thought all people shared a collective unconscious. Common collection of images that we have gained together as human beings from our ancestral and evolutionary past

301
Q

Definition: Alfred Adler

A

people compensate for inferiority complexes based on inadequacies

302
Q

Definition: Karen Horney

A

feminist perspective to psychoanalytic theory

303
Q

Definition: Thematic Apperception Test

A

projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambigous scenes

304
Q

Definition: Rorschach Inkblot Test

A

hermann rorschach, the most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots, during the test participants are shown the inkblots and asked what each one looks like

305
Q

Definition: Reciprocal Determinism

A

albert bandura proposed that the person, enviornment, and behavior interact to determine patterns of behavior and thus personality

306
Q

Definition: Raymond Cattel’s 16 Traits

A

16 traits are the source of all human personality

307
Q

Definition: Factor analysis

A

he identified closely related terms and eventually reduced his list to just 16 key personality traits

308
Q

Definition: the Big Five Personality Factors

A

model of personality traits, many researchers believe that they are five core personality traits

309
Q

Big Five Personality Factors: Openness

A

to experience, tendency to appreciate new art, ideas, values, feelings, and behaviors

310
Q

Big Five Personality Factors: conscientiousness

A

tendency to be careful, on time for appointments, to follow rules, and to be hardworking

311
Q

Big Five Personality Factors: Extraversion

A

tendency to be talkative, sociable, and to enjoy others

312
Q

Big Five Personality Factors: Agreeableness

A

tendency to agree and go along with others rather than to assert one’s own opinions and choices

313
Q

Big Five Personality Factors: Neuroticism

A

tendency to frequently experience negative emotions

314
Q

Definition: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 2

A

(MMPI-2) the most widely used and researched clinical assessment tool used by mental health professionals to help diagnose mental health disorders

315
Q

Definition: Myers Briggs Type Indicator

A

(MBTI) self report inventory designed to identify a person’s personality type, strengths, and preferences (not always reliable and valid)

316
Q

Definition: Conformity

A

the act of matching attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors to group norms

317
Q

Definition: Normative Influence “Social Norm”

A

influence that produces Conformity when a person fears the negative social consequences of appearing deviant

318
Q

Definition: Stanley Milgram

A

1963, measured the willingness to obey an authority figure who instructed them to perform acts that conflicted with their personal conscious

319
Q

Definition: Social Facilitation

A

a process whereby the presence of others enhances performance on easy tasks but impairs performance on difficult tasks

320
Q

Definition: Social Inhibition

A

performance is poorer when watched by others

321
Q

Definition: Social Loading

A

tendency of individuals to put forth less effort when they are part of a group

322
Q

Definition: Deindividuation

A

the loss of a person’s sense of individuality and the reduction of normal constraints against deviant behavior

323
Q

Definition: Group Polarization

A

the exaggeration of initial tendencies in the thinking of group members through group dicussions

324
Q

Definition: Groupthink

A

a group decision making style characterized by an excessive tendency among group members to seek concurrence

325
Q

Definition: Prejudice

A

prejudgements, unjustified negative attitude about a group of people based on their membership in the group

326
Q

Definition: Discrimination

A

unjustified negative behavior towards members of a target group (individual level) based on their race, ethnicity, or other shared characteristics

327
Q

Definition: Stereotype Threat

A

a situation in which people feel at risk of performing as their group is expected to perform

328
Q

Definition: In Groups

A

groups that we Identity with us or see ourselves as belonging into

329
Q

Definition: Out Groups

A

social groups with whom a person does not identify, them

330
Q

Definition: The Frustration Aggression Principle

A

the idea that people become aggressive when they’re frustrated by being blocked from reaching a goal

331
Q

Definition: Bystander Effect

A

phenomenon in which the greater the number of people present, the less likely people are to help a person in distress (diffusion of responsibility)

332
Q

Definition: Altruism

A

the unselfish concern for other people, doing things simply out of a desire to help, not because you feel obligated to

333
Q

Definition: Social Exchange Theory

A

argues that Altruism only exists when the benefits out weight the costs (when your behavior helps you even more than it helps the other person)

334
Q

Definition: Reciprocity

A

social expectations in which we feel pressured to help others if they have already done something for us

335
Q

Definition: Social Responsibilty Norms

A

societal rule that tells people they should help others who need help even if they may not repay us

336
Q

Definition: Social Dilemma

A

a situation in which a self interested choice by everyone will create the worst outcome for everyone

337
Q

Definition: Familiarity “mere exposure effect”

A

liking someone occurs because of repeatedly seeing that person or thing

338
Q

Definition: Proximity

A

the closer together people are physically, the more likely they are to form a relationship/friendship

339
Q

Definition: Fundamental Attribution Error

A

our tendency to underestimate the impact of situational factors and overestimate the impact of dispotional (personal) factors when assessing why other people acted the way they did

340
Q

Definition: Self Serving Bias

A

tendency to blame external forces when bad things happen and to give ourselves credit when good things happen

341
Q

Definition: Actor Observer Bias

A

tendency to attribute one’s own actions to external causes while attributing other people’s behaviors to internal causes

342
Q

Definition: False Consensus Effect

A

tendency to overestimate how much other people agree with us

343
Q

Definition: Just World Phenomenon

A

tendency to believe that the world is just and that people get what they deserve

344
Q

Definition: Self Fulfilling Prophecy

A

prediction that causes itself to come true due to the simple fact that the predicition was made

345
Q

Definition: Central Route of Persuasion

A

the process by which a person thinks carefully about a communication and is influenced by the strength of its agruments

346
Q

Definition: Peripheral Route of Persuasion

A

the process by which a person does not think carefully about a communication and is influenced instead by superficial cues

347
Q

Definition: Foot in the Door Phenomenon

A

tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request

348
Q

Definition: Door in the Face Technique

A

asking for a large commitment and being refused and then asking for a smaller commitment and getting agreement

349
Q

Definition: Cognitive Dissonance

A

Leon festinger 1957, sense of discomfort or distress that occurs when a person’s behavior does not correspond to that person’s attitudes

350
Q

Definition: Psychologist

A

can’t prescribe meds, supports people through psychotherapy

351
Q

Definition: Psychiatrist

A

can prescribe meds, identify disorders/diagnose, generally works inside hospitals

352
Q

Definition: Abnormal Behavior Defined as

A

Deviant, Distressing, Dysfunctional, Dangerous

353
Q

Definition: Deinstitutionalization

A

when better psychotropic drugs were created this movement began to remove patients who were not considered a threat to themselves or the community from mental hospitals

354
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

GAD, experience excessive anxiety under most circumstances and worry about practically anything

355
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Panic Disorder

A

anxiety disorder marked by recurrent and unpredictable panic attacks

356
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Specific Phobia

A

intense irrational fear responses to specific stimuli

357
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Agoraphobia

A

afraid to be in public situations from which escape might be difficult or help unavailable if panic like or emabarrassing symptoms were to occur

358
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Obesessive Compulsive Disorder

A

OCD, compound disorder of thought and behavior

359
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Obsessions

A

are persistent, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts that an individual cannot get out of his mind

360
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Compulsions

A

are ritualistic behaviors performed repeatedly

361
Q

Anxiety Disorders: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

A

PTSD, results of some trauma experienced by the victim. Victims re experience the traumatic event in nightmares about the event, or flashbacks in which they relieve the event

362
Q

Mood Disorders: Bipolar Disorder

A

mood swings alternating between periods of major depression and mania

363
Q

Mood Disorders: Major Depressive Disorder

A

involves intense depressed mood, reduced interest or pleasure in activities, loss of energy, and problems in making decisions for minimum of 2 weeks

364
Q

Personality Disorders: Paranoid Personality Disorder “Accusatory”

A

pattern of distrust and suspiciousness about other people’s motives, individual thinks that others are out to threaten, betray, exploit, or harm

365
Q

Personality Disorders: Schizoid Personality Disorder “Aloof”

A

characterized by persistent Avoidance of social relationships and little expression of emotion

366
Q

Personality Disorders: Schizotypal Personality Disorder “Awkward”

A

characterized by extreme discomfort in close relationships, very odd patterns of thinking and perceiving and behavioral eccentricities

367
Q

Personality Disorders: Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

APD, characterized by a general pattern of disregard for and violation of other people’s rights (closely linked to criminal behavior)

368
Q

Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder

A

characterized by repeated instability in interpersonal relationships, self image, and mood and by impulsive behavior

369
Q

Personality Disorders: Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality (dramatic) and attention seeking

370
Q

Personality Disorders: Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

characterized by a broad pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy

371
Q

Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder

A

characterized by consistent discomfort and restraint in social situations, overwhelming feelings of inadequacy, and extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation/potential rejection, humanilitation

372
Q

Personality Disorders: Dependent Personality Disorder

A

characterized by a pattern of clinging and obedience, fear of separation, and an ongoing need to be taken care of

373
Q

Personality Disorders: Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

characterized by an intense focus on orderliness, perfectionism, and control that the person loses flexibility, Openness, and efficiency

374
Q

Neurodevelopmental Disorders: Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

A

ADHD, disorder marked by the inability to focus attention, or overactive and impulsive behavior or both

375
Q

Neurodevelopmental Disorders: Autism Spectrum Disorder

A

ASD, disorder marked by extreme unresponsiveness to others, severe communication deficits, and highly repetitive and rigid behaviors, interests, and activities

376
Q

Neurocognitive Disorders: Alzheimer’s Disease

A

fatal degenerative disease in which brain neurons progressively die, characterized by loss of memory, reasoning, emotion, and control of bodily functions

377
Q

Eating and Feeding Disorders: Anorexia Nervosa

A

life threatening eating disorder that involves intense fear of weight gain or becoming overweight, distorted perception of one’s weight/body shape, persistent restriction of caloric intake

378
Q

Eating and Feeding Disorders: Body dysmorphia

A

increasing cognitive misperception of being overweight despite evidence to the contrary

379
Q

Eating and Feeding Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa

A

recurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors for the intake of food, such as purging

380
Q

Eating and Feeding Disorders: Binge Eating Disorder

A

uncontrollably eating a large amount of food in a short period of time, after a bingeing episode a person will not purge and will feel an extreme sense of guilt

381
Q

Somatic Disorders: Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

SDD, characterized by physical symptoms including pain, and high anxiety in these individuals about having a disease

382
Q

Somatic Disorders: less Anxiety Disorder

A

IAD, characterized by a preoccupation with a serious medical or health condition with either no or mild physical (Somatic) symptoms such as nausea or dizziness that has persisted for 6 months

383
Q

Somatic Disorders: Conversion Disorder

A

characterized by loss of some bodily function without physcial damage to the affected organs or their neural connection

384
Q

Dissociative Disorders: Dissociative Amnesia

A

loss of memory for a traumatic event or period of time that is too painful for an individual to remember

385
Q

Dissociative Disorders: Dissociative Identity Disorder

A

DID, rare mental disorder characterized by at least two distinct and relatively enduring identities or dissociated personality states that recurrently control a person’s behavior

386
Q

Dissociative Disorders: Schizophrenia

A

psychotic disorder in which personal, social, and occupational functioning deteriorate as a result of unusual perceptions, odd thoughts, disturbed emotions, and motor abnormalities

387
Q

Dissociative Disorders: Dopamine Hypothesis

A

high fluctuation of levels of dopamine can be responsible for schizophrenic symptoms

388
Q

Exposure Treatment: Flooding

A

exposing people to fear invoking objects or situations intensely and rapidly

389
Q

Exposure Treatment: Systematic Desensitization

A

developed by Joseph Wolpe, a client makes a list of fears and then learns to relax while concentrating on these fears

390
Q

Exposure Treatment: Aversion Therapy

A

pairing an undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus in the hope that the unwanted behavior will eventually be reduced

391
Q

Exposure Treatment: Token Economy

A

behavioral strategy relies on reinforcement to modify behavior. Clients are allowed to earn tokens that can be exchanged for special privileges or desired items

392
Q

Definition: Biofeedback

A

mind body technique that involves using visual or auditory feedback to gain control over involuntary bodily functions

393
Q

Definition: Cognitive Behavioral Therapists

A

human emotions and behavior are predominantly generated by ideas, beliefs, attitudes, and thinking

394
Q

Definition: Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy

A

REBT, developed in 1950s by Albert Ellis, psychological problems arise when thoughts are irrational and lead to behavioral consequences that are distressful

395
Q

Definition: Aaron Beck’s Cognitive Therapy

A

researched by Aaron Beck, based on the idea that how we think (cognition), how we feel (emotion), and how we act (behavior) all interact together

396
Q

Definition: Psychoanalysis

A

the primary focus of psychodynamic therapy is to uncover the unconscious content of a client’s psyche in order to alleviate psychic tension

397
Q

Definition: Free Association

A

the client spontaneously reports thoughts, feelings, and mental images that come to mind (no censorships)

398
Q

Definition: Resistance “Mental Blocks”

A

the patient’s conscious or unconscious attempt to block disturbing memories, motives, and experiences (sensitive material)

399
Q

Definition: Transference

A

the process by which a patient projects or transfers unresolved conflicts and feelings onto the therapist

400
Q

Definition: Unconditional Positive

A

regard, allow client to steer the direction of the therapy, clients have value

401
Q

Definition: Active listening

A

therapist listens to client, paraphrasing what the client says, prevents advice or judgements

402
Q

Biomedical Therapy: Anti depressant Drugs

A

elevate mood by affecting neurotransmitters such as serotonin that are linked to depression

403
Q

Biomedical Therapy: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

A

SSRI, blocks the Reuptake of serotonin

404
Q

Biomedical Therapy: Electroconvulsive Therapy

A

ECT, a biological treatment in which a brain seizure is triggered as an electric current passes through electrodes attached to the patient’s forehead

405
Q

Definition: Operational Definition

A

how we (the researcher) decides to measure the variables in our study, helps to replicate the study

406
Q

Definition: Milgram Experiment

A

conducted by Stanley Milgram. found a big majority of participants were willing to obey an authority figure even if they were instructed to do something they believed was morally wrong

407
Q

Definition: Little Albert Experiment

A

conducted by John B Watson, demonstrated the generalization of learning experiences in children. first study to show fear responses could be learned and generalized to similar objects

408
Q

Definition: Stanford Prison Experiment

A

conducted by Phlip Zimbardo, controversial, investigated the psychological effects of being a prisoner of prison guard

409
Q

Definition: Bobo Doll Experiment

A

conducted by Albert Bandura, developed social learning theory where behaviors are learned socially by observing and imitating others, children would replicate aggressive behavior seen by adults

410
Q

Definition: Asch Conformity Study

A

conducted by Solomon Asch, investigate the extent to which social pressure from a majority group could affect a person to conform

411
Q

Definition: Pavlov’s Dog Experiment

A

conducted by Ivan Pavlov, conditioned dogs to salivate in response to the sound of a bell, then showing food with the bell. Giving the dog to salivate every time it hears a bell

412
Q

Definition: Surrogate Mother Experiment

A

conducted by Harry Harlow, showed importance of contact comfort, baby monkeys were separated from their mothers and given a wired and clothed surrogate, they would cling to the cloth even if food was with the wired one

413
Q

Definition: Skinner Box

A

conducted by BF Skinner, showed how behavior can be reinforced to be repeated or weakened to be extinguished. Used schedules of reinforcement to see how fast animals would respond to learning when placed in a box

414
Q

Definition: The Misinformation Effect

A

conducted by Elizabeth Loftus, participants were shown video footage of a traffic accident, then asked questions. changed the wording in question, lead to how they recall different information when given a suggestion to do so