AOR Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Turn procedure 180’ for turning pad?

A
  1. Apply brakes and stop, thrust idle
  2. Turn tiller max angle
  3. Release both brakes and apply opposite thrust (5-10kts)
  4. Reduce angle once nose gear through max width position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long for Brakes to heat up after RTO and fuse plugs to melt?

A

15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max taxi speed after RTO and return to gate taxi time > 5km?

A

30 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 takeoff Methods ?

A
  1. Normal Takeoff -
    Brakes pressed, thrust. 20 TPR and then release brakes

Used for directional control on slippery runway

  1. Rolling takeoff
    Don’t stop, set 20 TPR and commence roll

Best for crosswind (+20kts) / tailwind takeoff to protect engines but uses (100-150ft) extra RWY not good for directional control
Reduces takeoff time and good for pax comfort

  1. Static Takeoff :
    set takeoff thrust with brakes on

Good for takeoff distance and directional control but noisy and discomfort for pax and increase chance of FOD ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Go mindedness ?

A

Except when there is serious doubt the aircraft can fly safely it is safer to continue the takeoff than to reject close to V1. (Prevent high speed RTO’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Failures to consider RTO reject?

A
  1. Master warning (engine failure with thrust loss)
  2. Engine fire or max EGT with thrust loss ( may continue if no thrust loss)
  3. PWS
  4. Flight control problem
  5. Engine severe damage / separation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RTO with Copilot as PF

A

Copilot to continue control and takeoff unless ReJect is called and then captain will take over control

Captain must have thrust levers after thrust set call

Captain to have feet on rudder pedals in case of RTO and to prevent auto brake disconnect chance and ready for manual braking if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who calls failure on takeoff roll and Reject?

A

anyone calls failure and PIC decides whether to call reject or continue

If engine failure just call Engine failure not which side etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to Call V1

A

Start call V1 - 5kts and finish by V1 (must continue if failure at V1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PM calls on RTO?

A
  • Speed brakes up (NOT UP), REV normal (no REV L/R , Both)
  • 60 kts and contact tower (after. 60kts cal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stowing of Reverse thrust levers?

A

After 60kts call begin to stow reverse by 30 kts once stopping assured (PIC can stow before also)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When to contact cabin during RTO?

A

Contact after brakes set prior to memory item to prevent uncommanded evacuation and then again after finish to calm pax and crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Turning Pad width required Ice runway

A

Refer to AOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pivot 180’ Procedure (saves 11-17m than normal)

A
  1. Apply brakes stop A/C
  2. Turn tiller max angle
  3. Apply max brk to inside wheel brk
  4. Opposite Thrust used only
  5. Inspection of tires / runway required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Wake turbulence span?

A

1 wingspan H and 2 wingspan W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Strongest vortex configuration?

A

Large heavy aircraft slow in clean configuration (flaps and spoilers weaken the vortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Wake turbulence lasts how long?

A

2-3 mins (wind and turbulence air can shorten duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How much sink does wake turbulence descend?

A

400-500ft / min to 900ft below A/C (which is 10nm behind A/C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Wake turbulence close to GND movement?

A

Down and then out above ground at 3 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most dangerous wake turbulence situation at airport (takeoff)

A

Light to no wind / downwind of aircraft that’s large and heavy (watch their rotation point) or side wind if close parallel runways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most dangerous wake turbulence for landing?

A

Quartering tailwind as wake turbulence may be around touchdown area still or light crosswind during close parallel runway ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Wake turbulence recovery?

A

AP on leave on let recover and don’t use rudder (manual control if needed) avoid abrupt reversal of aileron and rudder inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Target SPd with A/the engaged

A

Vref + 5 up to Vref + 10 for manual landing in gusty winds (considering IAS loss in flare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Target SPD with A/THR disconnected?

A

Vref + (1/2 wind + gust) up to Vref + 15

Wind is steady headwind component !

Gust is max gust - steady wind

1/2 wind component may be bled off at touchdown

Max wind considered only when steady wind is 15kts or greater and more than 10kts over steady wind

Gust is based on total wind (not HW)

Dont consider for TW or X-Wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Reasons for Vref additive for manual A/THR landing?

A

Short landing prevention (1/2 HW added)
Wind reduces near the ground
Prevent tail strikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pitch / roll rate for pod strike

A

Negative pitch worsening angle (only 8’ roll rate)

Landing attitude = 1.5’ NUP and 13’ AOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tail strike contact angle takeoff

A

-8 = 9.5’ NUP
-9 = 9’ NUP
-10 = 8’ NUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pitch angle tail strike (main gear compressed)?

A

-8 = 9’ NUP
-9 = 7.5’ NUP
-10 = 6.5’ NUP

(Vref - 10 angle = tail contact)
-8/-9 is ok still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Takeoff tail strike prevention

A

Set and use correct takeoff data and speeds / trim

Rotate using correct procedure (2-3’ / second)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Landing tail strike prevention?

A

Stabilized APP
Avoid long flare
Deal with wind changes
Go around if not safe to land
Avoid rapid pitch especially GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is standard callout ?

A

Minimum required callouts relating to altitude, position or speed

deviation from flight path, speed, des rate

Info to make judgement on landing and NAV instrument / FMA / AP status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Objective of standard callouts?

A

Confirm information on altitude, SPD, position and system status

Enhance crew coordination, common recognition and fail safe function

PM must respond to confirm and affirms no crew incapacitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When 1000 to level off call required ?

A

Any altitude up until FAF (non precision) or up to GS intercept alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is FAF on non precision APP chart when not listed?

A

Legs page - Fix with F__runway number ie FE30 or

first wpt when GS angle mentioned in legs page

No callout required for FAF if neither of these or for PAR APP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Altitude check on ILS purpose?

A

To confirm you not capture ghost beam on GS (ghost beam above normal beam and double the angle of normal path)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Altitude call out non precision APP

A

Within 10ft as to allow for -50ft/+100ft deviation requirements after passing FAF for IAN and VNAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Do we callout Flare / Rollout armed?

A

No auto arms when Land 2 or 3 displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Deviation call for SPD

A

Only apply to +10kts or -5 from target SPd in the landing configuration

“Airspeed or Vref + ___”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Purpose of 10’000ft and 5000ft call?

A

Alert PF of 250kts SPd and 300kts / 2500ft min company limits

40
Q

Deviation call “Altitude”?

A

Deviation 50ft from MDA on NPA

41
Q

Actions when situations beyond scope of non-normal checklists?

A
  • basic aerodynamics and system knowledge
  • rudder to counter ailerons
  • asymmetric thrust / thrust for pitch
  • any force on controls ok
  • captain judgement and basic flying of A/C
  • fuel jettison to enhance performance
42
Q

When to complete memory items?

A

After establishing A/C control and configuration

All checklists should be complete by FAF

43
Q

Can you disconnect PFC (primary flight control system) ?

A

Yes but only if AC control is difficult- don’t engage again unless become worse to control

44
Q

What items to consider for diversion landing ?

A
  • weather
  • time
  • RwY length
  • emergency services
  • familiarity with airport
  • medical / city facilities
45
Q

What is MAP shift :

A

It occurs when the aircraft obtains “new” information on it’s position, and so it shifts the aircraft’s position to the new spot.

46
Q

Where is Autoland / CaT 2/3 data sheet?

A

Each station control office / AJX operations office

47
Q

Where is Autoland RWYS located?

A

Route manual JEPP company pages info

48
Q

Requirements of CAT 1 runway?

A

GS 2.5-3.25’
Threshold crossing height appropriate
LOC runway aligned (no offset)
Ground surface almost flat from 80ft onwards

49
Q

Can regular captain make evaluation of CaT 1 runway to be added / approved?

A

No - must be approved by chief pilot or training / checking

50
Q

Why do autoland when not CAT 2?

A

Recency / practice of familiarity for actual operations help improve external observation and instrument monitoring

51
Q

Points to consider for autoland

A
  • ILS critical area protected or not (GS/LOC deviations)
  • prepare manual takeover
  • touchdown point varies (95% accuracy)
52
Q

When could MAP shift occur?

A
  • Due to differences in GPS coordinates
  • unreliable Navaids (update by nav radio)
  • position error IRU (update by IRU)
53
Q

What speed / altitude / airspace is FMS holding based on?

A

FAA/ICAO standard (japan different) so must confirm the ALT / SPD / airspace limitations and enter before confirming Hold

Holding spds based on that altitude at the fix (if early descent must re enter or calculate)

54
Q

What is holding turn radius based on?

A

FMS calculated maximum ground speed at time of passing fix

55
Q

4 polices for establishing operational procedures

A
  1. fly First
  2. Aussie secured + reliable operation
  3. Achieve effective + efficient operation
  4. Promote standardised and uniform operation
56
Q

6 concepts for establishing ANA operation concept

A
  1. Task sharing
  2. Crew coordination
    3 crew communication
  3. Monitor and cross check
  4. Work Load management
  5. Discipline
57
Q

Forward control wheel input on takeoff roll until when?

A

80kts then natural

58
Q

Target rotation rate / pitch?

A

2-2.5’ per second to V2+15 up to 25 (15’ NUP initially and follow FD)

59
Q

Double check fuel loaded method and limits?

A
  1. EICAS fuel indication (0lbs to +5000lbs)
  2. Ramp total (fuel remaining + fuel loaded) - (-1000lbs to + 6000lbs)
60
Q

Ramp total required?

A

Only long flights > 2000nm ie no HK, TSA, ICN or after diversion to DEsT < 2000nm

61
Q

Stabilised App Criteria

A

By 1000ft: (500ft circling)
- attitude + position correct
- airspeed target -5/+10 and sink rate <1000ft / min
- engine thrust appropriate
- gear down, landing flap, LDG C/L complete

62
Q

Exceptions to stabilised 1000ft call?

A
  1. ATC / chart SPD requirements
  2. 1000ft level off long way from airport
  3. Overlap ATC comms with landing C/L

“intensional” after 1000ft ____

63
Q

Too low gear / flap procedure

A
  • below 1000ft stabilised = GA
  • above 1000ft (due temp RAD ALT due hill etc - can continue configure by min height of 1000ft)
64
Q

VNAV SPD mode what alt constraints assured?

A

All at or above constraints

65
Q

Normal / ALtN ALT MCP setting (VNAV)

A

Between Star and FAF (not after)

Normal - set nest lowest ALT just prior to each constraint (once assured)

ALTN - set highest of alt constraint chart on chart / ATC / FAF if closely spaced within 4nm of WPT (only in VNAV mode)

Can’t set FAF alt until inside IAF within 4nm of descent point

66
Q

Wings should be level what alt circling APP

A

300ft

67
Q

Bounced landing recovery ?

A

Heavy bounce = GA
Small bounce = establish LdG attitude again thrust if needed (manual extend spd brk)

68
Q

What is clear ice

A

Clear formed on A/C flying through supercooled rain between 0 to -5’c or when AC skin temp below zero and raining

69
Q

What is Rime Ice?

A

Form of A/C icing - when temps below -10’c small particles stick to A/C (white colour has bubbles)

70
Q

Affect on icing to wing ?

A
  • increase stall speed
  • increases weight and drag
  • control ability issues
  • avoid flying slow and flaps down
71
Q

3 types hydroplaning?

A
  • dynamic (water > 3mm on RWY)
  • viscous (thin film water acts as lubricant)
  • rubber reversion (hot tyre and water vapour)
72
Q

Hydroplaning speed / formula

A

9 x square root tyre pressure (PSI)
136kts

73
Q

Procedure during hydroplaning?

A

Release brakes until tyre spins up again and then apply brakes again

74
Q

Is hydroplaning possible GRV RWY?

A

No only heavy rain NON GRV

75
Q

How is VMU related to VR

A

VMU (unstick speed) min speed AC will fly and is only 3-5kts below VR

76
Q

Stall margin from stick shaker and AOB?

A

5kts margin from stick shaker to stall in 25’ AOB so keeping under 10’AOB no worries

77
Q

Climb rate at stick shaker?

A

2000ft / min with Max thrust

78
Q

Should you pitch down during windshear to gain speed?

A

No! Maintain ALT and then climb

79
Q

Converting SPD to ALT?

A

10kts = 100-120ft

80
Q

Why don’t select GA flap during Windshear?

A

Increase in SPD has negative affect on initial climb rate
danger of stall with lowering speed
Altitude loss initially

81
Q

Why don’t retract gear during Windshear?

A

In case ground contact and has min affect on altitude loss

82
Q

What conditions can optimum V1 and improved CLB be used in?

A
  1. All RWY conditions
  2. ATM used
  3. All combinations of thrust and flap settings

Used as standard for OPT in calculations

83
Q

Minimum value of V1 limited by what?

A

VMCG lower limit and VR or Max brake entry speed at upper limit and within limit of takeoff field length

84
Q

What is obstacle clearance height on takeoff?

A

35ft

85
Q

What is clearway? And stop way ?

A

Clear way - area end of runway with no permanent obstacles / buildings / trees to hinder AC movement after V1 takeoff (included in TODA) not for ASDA

Stopway - area end of runway prepared surface wide as the runway to provide extra stopping distance in RTO (included in ASDA and also TODA)

86
Q

What is LDA ?

A

From threshold (not including displacement) to end of runway

87
Q

What is ToRA?

A

Takeoff run including displacement distance to end of runway

88
Q

Can you use improved CLB if takeoff weight limited by field limit (with no improved CLB)

A

No and the takeoff speeds can’t be increased

89
Q

Flap setting for GA vs balked landing

A

Balked - remain current flap until establishment in climb away from runway

GA - set GA flaps

90
Q

Speed brakes auto deploy when:

A
  1. Even if lever down and GS > 85kts and either thrust lever TO range then idle range
91
Q

When is TOGA not available?

A

<2ft RA for 3 secs or more and not available until above 5ft RA or after touchdown

92
Q

Regaining directional control slippery LDG RWY?

A

Release brakes and REV to idle then straighten reapply brakes and REV

93
Q

Engine cool down

A

5 mins recommended but not essential

94
Q

Flight control test after landing

A

90 seconds but can be done via alternate shutdown procedure turn on C1 or C2 elec pump and L + R elec demand pump

95
Q

Reason to block in with flaps extended

A

Cold weather (prevent damage), bird strike, failure,

APU ON - Turn on all Elec HYD demand pumps and flaps up (under instruction by engineer)

If external PWR - see procedure

96
Q

Manual trim zero at what speed?

A

Auto set to zero at 30kts

97
Q

What is LAM?

A

Landing Attitude Modifier
Increases pitch attitude to prevent nose gear first landing during high approach speed (decreases droop amount of spoilers)