Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OS1-StudyGuide-1- SEPT2017 > ***ANTISUBMARINE WARFARE (ASW) & SURFACE WARFARE (ASUW)*** > Flashcards

***ANTISUBMARINE WARFARE (ASW) & SURFACE WARFARE (ASUW)*** Flashcards

1
Q

Who serves as the safety observer during an ASW operation?

A

CO, conning officer or OOD/JOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who coordinates CIC/CDC functions, assists the TAO/Evaluator, and monitors CIC communications?

A

CIC watch officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who assists the TAO and monitors communications during IAS?

A

CICWO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who issues torpedo countermeasures, weapons policy, and ETA to TDA to units separarely detached from a formation in order to search for and attach submarines?

A

The Search attack unit (SAU) Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who executes Red and Black plans?

A

Scene of Action Commander (SAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who coordinates supporting TACAIR and long-range patrol aircraft ASUW actions with surface cruise missile ships?

A

Surface action group commander (SAGC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the role of the SWG-1A engagement planner?

A

Enter the target and background ship contact data received from various plots and TDPs into HSCLCS to support Harpoon engagement planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is responsible for accomplishing the mission in the tactical direction method of air control?

A

The aircraft commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating targeting efforts and refining target data, supervising plotting procedures, and monitoring safe employment criteria?

A

The ASUW Evaluator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What activity manages the Blue Force contact database beyond any particular battle group area of interest?

A

The Fleet command center (FCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What ASW evasive measures should a screen unit use in a submarine threat area?

A

Should employ towed decoys; patrol sector at a 3-6 knot advantage to ensure a complete patrol; and remain on a steady course no longer than three minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What responsibilities may the OTC delegate to the Screen commander (SC)?

A

Ordering actions to be taken by screen units if a ship is torpedoed and designating air control units for screening helicopters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What directives contain antisubmarine warfare (ASW) airplans and air attack methods?

A

ATP-1(C) Vol 1; NWP 3-22 (series); and ASW TACAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Airborne radar is primarily limited by what factor during an ASW search?

A

The sea state in that in sea state 4 and above, the probability of periscope detection is significantly decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What P-3C system possesses active or passive sonobuoy signals to detect, analyze and classify submarines?

A

DIFAR (Directional Frequency Analysis and Recording)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary aircraft ASW weapons?

A

Torpedoes, rockets, depth charges, Harpoons, mines, and bombs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What area must a submarine enter to be within maxium striking distance of a mission essential unit?

A

Torpedo danger zone (TDZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a limiting line of approach (LLA)?

A

A change of station from datum to optimum firing position (TDZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What must be known or assumed to construct a limiting line of approach (LLA)?

A

The Formation’s Base course and speed and the submarine’s approach speeds (max sonor speed, quiet speed, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What sound-powered phone circuit is used for one-way communication from sonar to CIC/CDC?

A

61JS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the best capable mine laying aircraft in the U.S inventory?

A

B-52D Stratofortress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is CAPTOR?

A

Encapsulated torpedo ASW (Mine) with a MK 46 torpedo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the SSQ-77B

A

Passive vertical line array (DIFAR{VLAD})

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the SSQ-62B

A

Directional command activated sonobuoy system (DICASS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of special purpose buoy is used for air- subsurface communication?

A

ATAC (air-dropped two-way communications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is indicated by the CERTSUB (certain submarine) classification?

A

A contact that has been sighted and positively identified by competent personnel as submarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is indicated by the PROSUB (probable submarine) classification?

A

a contact displaying strong cumulative evidence of being a submarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What assessment must always accompany a POSSUB classification?

A

Low or High confidence contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is indicated by the NONSUB (non submarine) classification

A

a contact has characteristics that exclude the possibility that it is a submarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of search is used when a torpedo-firing submarine is in position to menace a mission-essential unit (MEU)?

A

an intercept search (application of a close search)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Search plan IS ‘OAKTREE’ has what applications?

A

area; intercept; lost-contact; or bottom search conducted by two or more ships and may also use helicopters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is involved in the ASW search plan 3S ‘PINEAPPLE’?

A

Ships and aircrafts are placed in search sectors around datum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When will the final approach to datum start?

A

At ETA to TDA, or 1 tactical sonar range (TSR) from the FOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is DELIBERATE ATTACK?

A

An attack that is delivered with maximum accuracy with the objective of destroying the submarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an URGENT ATTACK

A

An attack that disrupts the submarine’s firing plan and is conducted when danger from submarine attack is imminent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is allowed by PLAN RED 3A GEOGRAPHIC SECTOR?

A

Coordinated, two-ship ASW containment and attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What equipment supports the SQS-53 sonar by predicting tactical sonar ranges automatically

A

Sonar in-situation mode assessment (AN/UYQ-25 SIMAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What zigzag plans were developed for use within the TDA?

A

Ray and Yankee (ATP-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What AEGIS display system component can be tailored to show all ASW information normally displayed on an NTDS console or NC-2 plot

A

Larger-screen displays (DSDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which net is used for information exchanges between ships and fixed wing ASW aircraft engaged in coordinated ASW?

A

ASW air coordination net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Aboard ASW ships, which sound-powered phone circuit is used solely as a command circuit ?

A

JS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which net may be used by the first SAU in place of ASCONNET ALPHA?

A

screen tactical alpha (remaining screen units shift to screen tactical bravo as directed by the OTC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the classes of surface unit ASW capability

A

Long-range weapons and sensors; long-medium range sensors with weapons systems that require them to close within the TDA to engage the submarine; and short range weapons/ sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the graphic representations of the command’s estimate of the maximum submarine displacement from datum at a given time?

A

Furthest- on- circles (FOC0s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why are limiting lines of approach applicable to nuclear submarine threats?

A

Because increased threat speed degrades threat sonar performance and increase likelihood of passive broadband detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of formation is used primarily by a search attack unit (SAU) when engaged in ASW search where a set pattern isnt desired

A

loose line abreast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What data link is used by LAMPS 1 helicopters for transmitting sonobuoy data to ASW air control ships

A

AKT-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What proword is used by ASW aircraft to indicated magnetic anomaly detection?

A

MADMAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What number of buoy channels can be transmitted by the AKT22 data link?

A

8 LOFAR OR 2 DIFAR OR 2 DICASS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is FLIR’s primary function

A

Night recognition and identification of surface objects detected by other sensors, based on thermal imagery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TDZ is constructed from what point

A

the advanced position of the formation along base course, based on maximum effective torpedo firing range multiplied by formation speed divided by torpedo speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the purpose of a screen

A

to protect mission essential units in a multi -threat environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

who orders torpedo countermeasures where units come in contact with submarine

A

SAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what governs the selection of ASW aircraft weapons

A

a tactical decision made by the aircraft commander based on the policy of the controlling authority, as determined by weapons available, elapsed time between last fix and attack, submarine evasive capability, and interference with friendly forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what device is used by an ASW aircraft to locate sonobuoys for navigational purposes

A

on top position indicator (OTPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When may a SAC designate a datum

A

when that duty is specially delegated by the ASWC to the SAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How can a ship with a short or medium range ASW weapons system prosecuting a submarine with longer-range weapons compensate for its disadvantage

A

by employing standoff vectored attacks with aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the use of the SLQ-25 NIXIE

A

Acoustic torpedo countermeasures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the formula that is used to determine the furthes-on circle (FOC)

A

datum error plus assumed submarine speed multiplied by elapsed time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What ASW aircraft sensor gets operational intelligence by analyzing intercepted electronic emissions from submissions from submarines

A

ESM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of ASW helicopter may be found in a HSL squadron

A

SH-60B SEARAWK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the SH-60B sonobuoy dispenser’s capacity

A

25 sonobuoys or chaff rounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

who determines the method of air control to be used and orders the tactical employment of aircraft as required by the ASWC

A

ASW air control unit (ASWACU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the UYS-1(v)2 PROTEUS

A

the acoustic processor for the LAMPS III

65
Q

what is the primary limitation of a diesel-electric submarine while making a submerged run on the main body

A

endurance imposed by total battery capacity

66
Q

what type of acoustic sensors are primary carried by the SH-60F

A

AQS-13 dipping sonar and UYS-1(v)2 acoustic processor

67
Q

what readiness condition indicates the highest degress of ASW readiness

A

condition 1A

68
Q

What SAU unit automatically assumes Scene-of action commander (SAC) when and SAU unit gains contact

A

SAU commander

69
Q

what are the three general classes of sonobuoy

A

passive, active, and special purpose

70
Q

which ASW weapons are common for both ships and aircraft

A

torpedoes, mines, and missiles

71
Q

what determines a submarine’s ability to intercept the torpedo danger zone (TDZ)

A

limiting lines of approach

72
Q

what determines the classifications of surface ship’s sonars

A

their maximum range capability

73
Q

what is the ‘ look zone’

A

the area outside the screen in which a submarine may go shallow to employ visual or electronic sensors

74
Q

what are the two primary carrier-based SUW air surveillance assests in terms of sensors, endurance, and communications capability

A

the E-2C Hawkeye and the S-3 viking

75
Q

What is the mission of a deliberate attack

A

destruction of the submarine

76
Q

what is the mission of an urgent attack

A

as a diversionary measure to disrupt the submarine plan to attack; an attack on the moral, judgement, and reactions of the submarine crew

77
Q

what close ASW search application is used when a torpedo-firing submarine is a threat to the mission essential unit

A

intercept search

78
Q

what type of ASW search is involved in OAKTREE- search plan IS?

A

Encompasses area, intercept, lost-contact, and bottom searches

79
Q

what type of ASW search is involved in PINEAPPLE- search plan 3S?

A

encompasses sectors around a datum or search center

80
Q

what datum approach method is used when a submarine’s course cannot be determined

A

offset approach

81
Q

what are the objectives of a SUW search

A

continuous surveillance; precisely locate, classify and target enemy surface forces

82
Q

what governs the selection of a cruise missile seeker mode

A

quality of targeting data

83
Q

what is the basic doctrine for SUW sensor employment

A

maximize passive sensor use to maintain the tactical advantage of surprise

84
Q

who acts as the ASW evaluator prior to the arrival of the IAS team when as ASW contact is first gained

A

CRCWO

85
Q

What ASW tactic is used to expend a diesel submarine’s capabilities while maintaining continous actice sonar contact

A

Hold Down

86
Q

how are ambiguities in the Over-the-horizon-Targeting (OTH-T) database resolved by FOTC

A

By manually forcing track updates/ deletions or entering new tracks

87
Q

During SUW cruise missile targeting, what four factors are considered

A

Weapon range and search capability;
weapon selective targeting capability;
weapon effectiveness;
weapon survivablitiy

88
Q

What coordinated two-ship close ASW action allows for containment of and repeated attacks on subsurface contact

A

Geographic sector (attack plan 3A)

89
Q

When selecting an ASUW weapon, what are the SAG’s four considerations

A

quality of targeting data
weapon capabilities
environment
and weapon inventory

90
Q

During USW or SUW operations, what are CIC/CDC’s two major tasks

A

planning offensive operations and alerting the ship for required defensive measures

91
Q

what is the CO’s primary role during USW

A

safety observer

92
Q

what are the SUWC’s four primary duties

A

plan the protection of the force;
maintain a battle watch for controlling assigned assest;
develop an accurate, all-source, fused surveillance picture;
and coordinate actions within the CWC organiztion

93
Q

What are the SUW’s primary planning considerations

A

Assess threat and force capabilities, define requirements to counter the threat, determine optimum tactical procedures for ASUW assets

94
Q

What are the major SUW communication circuits

A

SATCOM command net; Command TGT (TTY); SUW C&R; TG TAC: and NTCS-A (OTCIXS/TADIXS)

95
Q

Which brevity code word is used to implement advisory ASW air control

A

FREELANCE

96
Q

What is the effect of an ‘ALPHA’ index of 25 or higher

A

Degraded MAD effectiveness

97
Q

What net does the SAC and assigned units use for reporting, coordinating, and exchanging tactical information

A

Scene of Action Commander (SACNET)

98
Q

What sensor system classification include national assets not under OTC/CWC control

A

Remote sensors

99
Q

What directive contains a detailed description of the harpoon weapons system

A

OP 3594 VOL 7, HARPOON FIRING GUIDANCE

100
Q

What class of sensor systems operate under the tactical control of the OTC/CWC while remaining under another commander’s operational control

A

dedicated sensors

101
Q

What class of sensor systems are located aboard units under the operational and tactical control of the OTC/CWC

A

Organic sensors

102
Q

What factors are considered by the OTC during screen design and selection

A

main body OPAREA, reaction zones, and TDZ/LLA

103
Q

What provides non-OTCIXS equipped ships with a dedicated, one-way OTH-T communications link from FOTC and may also be used as a backup to OTCIXS

A

The high interest track (HIT) Broadcast system

104
Q

What command, control and communications decision support system provides a common means for collecting, evaluating, and disseminating tactical data from multiple sources

A

Navy tactical command system- afloat (NTCS-A)

105
Q

Who has the responsibility for solving for Eklund and single -leg bearing-only ranges

A

The Bearing rate computer operator

106
Q

who enters targeting data from TDPs into the HSCLCS to support Harpoon engagement planning

A

the harpoon SWG-1 series console operator (BARCO)

107
Q

What high-speed satellite communications subsystem supports the NTCS-A with one way broadcasts from shore sites to ships and two-way computer links between shore sites

A

TADIXS-A

108
Q

What are the three principal duties of the OTH-T data base manager (DBM)

A

Monitors input of all source OTH-T data into TDPs for cruise missile engagements; monitors FOTC broadcast and reports discrepancies; monitors track updates, resolves ambiguities, and deletes stale tracks per FOTC SOP

109
Q

A SUW contact report includes what information

A

Contact designation, report type, position, area of uncertainty, course and speed, sensor, observation time, identification, and remarks

110
Q

What three events will justify breaking EMCON

A

If a ship is under attack and must energize surveillance and fire control radars for self-defense; information that enemy units are within engagement range; or when an enemy is visually sighted

111
Q

A battle damage assessment (BDA) report includes what information

A

target identification, impact assessment, visible damage, acoustic data, mobility impairment, and operational impairment

112
Q

What task unit of two or more ships is assigned by the operational commander to conduct offensive operations with the primary mission of engaging and defeating enemy surface forces

A

surface action group (SAG)

113
Q

What is the reason for cover and deception in ASUW

A

Conceal the size and disposition of the force

114
Q

how is ASUW aircraft fundamentally employed

A

to extent force surveillance range

115
Q

What is the primary concern in ASUW defense of the main body

A

Position forces between the enemy and the main body

116
Q

What ASW aircraft has the greatest endurance and ASW load out capacity

A

P-3C Orion

117
Q

What are the primary use of ASW aircraft

A

search, detection, localization, surveillance, targeting, and attack. Add speed, range, and mobility to ASW operations and act as long-range weapons systems during coordinated operations

118
Q

What are the duties of the surface raid reporting control ship

A

to issue threat warning and report all contacts to the force

119
Q

What is the role of the surface surveillance coordinator (SSC)

A

Responsible for collecting and disseminating surface contact information. When assigned, control and coordination of force surveillance assest

120
Q

what procedure is used by an aircraft to report contacts during radio-silent EMCON

A

Squawk prearranged discrete mode III code

121
Q

What is the overall goal of the search phase of a harpoon engagement

A

detect opposing surface combatants at maximum range while avoiding counter detection

122
Q

which electronic sensor is used to locate reference sonobuoys by an aircraft commander

A

on top position indicator (OTPI)

123
Q

What are the two major advantages of the magnetic anomaly detector (MAD)

A

it’s passive and provides targeting-quality localization

124
Q

What us the function of the directional command activated sonobuoy system (DICASS)

A

used for detection, localization, and tracking

125
Q

because of targeting radar performance, what is the probable fast patrol boat (FPB) optimum missile firing range

A

about 15 nautical miles

126
Q

during ASW, what are the basic CIC/CDC functions

A

external communications, disseminating tactical information, plotting and maintain displays, and tactical recommendations

127
Q

when constructing a surface action formation, what must be considered by the ASUWC

A

the formation must permit ships to engage with all weapons and to take evasive action without endangering other units. It must also provide mutual support so that enemy forces cannot concentrate on dispersed elements

128
Q

why is early detection and recognition a crucial factor in fast patrol boat (FPB) defense

A

because high speed and expected detection ranges require earliest possible detection and identification to take timely action

129
Q

what is the difference between targeting and localizaton

A

localization is determining the contact position while targeting includes localization and predicting position of a contact designed as a target for developing a fire control solution for a specific weapon

130
Q

what are the subdivisions of the approach phase of a harpoon engagement

A

classification and localization

131
Q

what is the modern naval warfare concept of surface action

A

maximize friendly offensive potential, while denying an enemy’s effective use of own surface forces

132
Q

what is the best definition of datum

A

the last known position of the submarine

133
Q

what is a screen’s purpose

A

to protect mission essential units in a multi-threat environment

134
Q

what term is used by ASW aircraft to indicate that they are in clouds or reduced visibility

A

popeye

135
Q

What is TACINTEL

A

A SATCOM system for computer-to-computer transmission of data between SESS-equipped ships that provides tipper information

136
Q

What is a Bomb damage assessment’s (BDA) objective

A

To decide if further engagement are required

137
Q

What shore-based processing centers are ocean surveillance information database managers, and provides correlated, all-source track data to afloat and shore users

A

FOSICs and FOSIFs

138
Q

What speed is selected by the ASWC to achieve a maximum swept area with surface ship sonar under prevailing environmental conditions

A

Optimum sonar speed

139
Q

Which near-real time battle management software system uses automated data communications capability to interface with all OTH-T modes

A

GCCS-M

140
Q

What SAG policy formulation element considers physical and electronic measures to conceal the size and formation of friendly ASUW forces

A

Operational Deception (OPDEC)

141
Q

What is the probability of detection of a given predicted sonar range (PSR)

A

50% with an alerted operator

142
Q

What is the major disadvantage of infrared (IR) sensors in ASUW

A

Degraded by rain, mist, or smoke

143
Q

What submarine contact classification indicates a strong cumulative evidence of being a submarine

A

PROBSUB- Probable submarine

144
Q

What is the effect on passive sonobuoy detection of a high ambient noise level in shallow water

A

Greatly reduces effectiveness

145
Q

which datum approach uses a 10-30 degree displacement from a direct approach

A

offset approach

146
Q

What are ASW surface ships advantages to ASW aircraft

A

Greater endurance, variety of weapons systems with numerous reloads, use of same element as submarine with ability to operate in adverse weather conditions, and the ability to operate and refuel helicopters

147
Q

what is the executive order for exchanging Scene of Action commander (SAC) duties

A

SWAP

148
Q

How far from the launch point is the center of the Harpoon booster drop zone located?

A

2000 yards

149
Q

What element may the CIC/CDC control

A

Helicopters

150
Q

What is the maximum capacity of sonobuoy in the SH-60B’s chutes {launcher}

A

25

151
Q

Is it possible for a Harpoon to engage a surfaced submarine

A

yes

152
Q

what are the categories of the harpoon engagement approach phase

A

classification and localization

153
Q

Who selects the method of air control to be used and then orders the tactical employment of aircraft as required by the ASWC

A

either ACU or ASWACU

154
Q

What are the four classifications of submarine sonar contacts

A

CERTSUB, PROBSUB, POSSUB, AND NONSUB

155
Q

During an ASW search, what is the primary limiting factor for an aircraft’s radar

A

sea state

156
Q

What is an air-delivered MK-46 torpedoes’ classification

A

long-range weapons systems

157
Q

what type of attack is conducted when a submarine is detected within the TDZ

A

urgent attack

158
Q

What is the general objective of the Harpoon engagement search phase

A

to detect an opposing combatant at the greatest possible range while avoiding counter detection

159
Q

What sensor is valuable for detecting FPBs in waiting or camouflaged positions or at slow speed

A

Infrared sensors

OS1-StudyGuide-1- SEPT2017 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions