Antipsychotics Flashcards

1
Q

First generation antipsychotics / conventional

What antipsychotics for schizophrenia block receptors for dopamine in the CNS but cause serious movement disordeers known as extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)?

a. Haloperidol & Chlorpromazine
b. Clozapine & Lithium
c. Divalproex & Zolbidem
d. Secobarbital & Ramelteon

A

a. Haloperidol & Chlorpromazine

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2
Q

second generation antipsychotics / conventional

What antipsychotics for schizophrenia block receptors for serotonin in the CNS and because they are second generation have fewer extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), but have increased metabolic effects?

a. Haloperidol
b. Clozapine
c. Divalproex
d. Secobarbital

*effects: weight gain, dyslipidemia CV events

A

b. clozapine

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3
Q

What is the key drug for schizophrenia that has a high potency and suppresses psychosis by blocking D2 receptor?

a. Haloperidol
b. Clozapine
c. Divalproex
d. Secobarbital

A

a. Haloperidol

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4
Q

Extrapyramidal symptoms are more severe when a patient is taking chlorpromazine rather than Haloperidol. True or false?

  • Acute dystonia
  • Parkinsonism
  • Akathisia
  • Tardive Dyskinesia
A

False

Extrapyramidal symptoms are more severe when a patient is taking Haloperidol rather than chlorpromazine because haloperidol is a first generation antipsychotic that has a stronger blockade for dopamine in the CNS where these symptoms manifest.

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5
Q

Which of the following is not an early onset symptom that responds to pharmacological intervention when a patient is taking haloperidol?

a. Acute dystonia
b. Parkinsonism
c. Akathisia
d. Tardive Dyskinesia

A

d. Tardive Dyskinesia

Tardve Dyskinesia is a late onset symptom that does not respond to pharmacological intervention, therefore once schizophrenia progresses past the early onset symptoms of (acute dystonia, parkinsonism, akathisia) it can no longer be treated.

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6
Q

Extrapyramidal early onset symptoms

Acute dystonia is the contraction of involuntary muscle and will appear when after taking the first dose of Haloperidol?

a. 3 weeks
b. 6 months
c. the first 15 minutes
d. first few hours to days

A

d. first few hours to days

  • after the first dose the nurse must differentiate acute dystonia from their psychosis because of the positive and negative effects of schizophrenia where they may be flinching or reacting to things they see and the nurse doesnt (psychosis) or if they are experiencing (acute dystonia) and having spasms of their tongue, face, neck, and/or back.
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7
Q

Intense effects from haloperidol require rapid intervention with what anticholinergic?

A

Benztropine

IV or IM short -term for a few months

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8
Q

Extrapyramidal early onset symptoms

Parkinsonism is the development of symptoms seen in parkinson’s but due to the effect of haloperidol tx and will appear when after taking the first dose of Haloperidol?

a. 3 weeks
b. multiple days
c. the first 15 minutes
d. first 5 hours

A

b. multiple days

needs to switch to 2nd generation chlorpromazine

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9
Q

Extrapyramidal early onset symptoms

Akathisia is the feeling of inner restlessness and the inability to stay still. Often people feel like they need to crawl out of their own skin. What anticholinergics will help a patient with these affects?

A

- benztropine
- benzodiazepines
- beta blockers

the three bees

the nurse must also differentiate the akathisia from psychosis that will occur days to months after treatment.

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10
Q

Extrapyramidal LATE onset symptoms

Tardive Dyskinesia is the development of facial ticks due to the effect of haloperidol tx and will appear when after taking the first dose of Haloperidol?

a. 3 weeks
b. months to years
c. the first 15 minutes
d. first 5 hours

lip-smacking, tongue thrusting and rapid blinking

A

b. months to years

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11
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia is irreversible and there is no reliable tx. True or false?

A

True.

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12
Q

The nurse knows that a patient taking a high potency drug like haloperidol needs to report what syndrome immediately?

a. fragie x syndrome
b. turner syndrome
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A

d. neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

DEADLY

rare, but potentially deadly without treatment – report immediately, stop medication immediately

death from RF, Cardio collapse, dyrhysthmias if medication cannot be flushed out of the system

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13
Q

If a patient is experiencing “lead pipe” rigidity from NMS the nurse should tx the patient with what?

and autonomic instability

A

dantrolene

to relax the muscles

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14
Q

If a patient is experiencing a sudden high fever from NMS the nurse should tx the patient with what?

A

cooling blankets, acetaminophen

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15
Q

If a patient is experiencing a sweating/diaphorisis from NMS the nurse should tx the patient with what?

A

fluids

for hydration

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16
Q

A first generation antipsychotic drug with low potency used to suppress acute psychotic episodes by blocking D2 receptor and reduce relapse.

also used for emesis, intractable hiccups, and severe behavioral problems in children

A

chlorpromazine

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17
Q

The use of chlorpromazine also blocks acetylcholine, histamine, and norepinephrine actions. true or false?

A

true

thu can cause seizures and sexual dysfunction

**Anticholinergic **effects – educate patients on minimizing discomfort

Orthostatic hypotension (sympatholytic effects) – in the hospital setting monitor blood pressure before and after dosing

**Sedation **– advise patients to take at bedtime

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18
Q

A schizophrenic patient notifies the nurse that they are prone to having seizures. The nurse will question what rx?

a. Haloperidol
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine
d. Lithium
e. Ivalproex

A

b. Chlorpromazine

chlorpromazine can lower the threshhold of the patients seizure activity.

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a second generation antipsychotic that suppresses psychosis by blocking serotonin (5-HT) receptors?

a. clozapine
b. risperidone
c. labetalol
d. ziprasidone

A

c. labetalol

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20
Q

which of the following has a high risk for agranulocytosis where the nurse must monitor their WBC and ANC to observe early signs of infection?

a. Clozapine
b. Risperidone
c. Ziprasidone

ANC = absolute neutrophil count

A

a. Clozapine

the nurse must also be aware of orthostatic hypotention when a pt is taking Clozapine, Risperidone, and Ziprasidone.

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21
Q

A nurse understands that the main difference between first generation antipsychotics and second generation antipsychotics is the adverse effects they propose.

First generation antipsychotics have EPS while second generation antipsychotics have metabolic effects. What three metabolic effects does the nurse know may occur?

a. weight gain
b. hypothyroidism
c. diabetes
d. dyslipidemia

A

a. weight gain
c. diabetes
d. dyslipidemia

  • Weight gain – baseline and monitoring every 3 months
  • Diabetes – baseline fasting glucose and monitoring 12 weeks later, then annually
  • Dyslipidemia – baseline fasting lipid levels and monitoring 12 weeks later, then every 5 years
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22
Q

Patients taking ziprasidone may have dysrhythmias and experience prolonged QT interval. True or false?

A

True.

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23
Q

NI of Antipsychotic Drugs

A
  • Adherence is critical and sometimes requires monitoring
  • Avoid alcohol or other CNS-depressants outside of the hospital setting (opioids, antihistamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines)
  • NOT safe in dementia
  • Monitor QT
    Avoid other QT Prolonging Agents (haloperidol, dysrhythmic drugs, tricyclic antidepressants, macrolide antibiotics)
  • Monitor potassium and magnesium
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24
Q

what is the drug of choice for BPD that a pt can take during a acute manic episode to reduce mania without sedation and can be taken long-term for prophylaxis?

a. Lithium
b. Divalproex
c. Carbamazepine
d. Fluoxetine

works slowly - 5 days to 2 weeks

A

a. LITHIUM

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25
Q

The nurse knows that a pt experiencing most adverse affects of lithium may subside, but a patient may still experience which of the following?

a. fine hand tremors
b. polyuria
c. renal toxicity
d. hepatotoxicity

A

a. fine hand tremors
b. polyuria
c. renal toxicity

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26
Q

Because the nurse knows that lithium has a narrow therapeutic window she will need to monitor what lab value?

a. Plasma
b. RBC
c. WBC
d. H & H

A

a. Plasma

  • Measured 12 hours after the evening dose
  • Every 2-3 days, then every 3-6 months
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27
Q

lithium toxicity

A

A good plasma level LESS THAN 1.5

GREATER THAN 1.5 = HOLD LITHIUM

the risk of a high lithium level is increased in patients with poor kidney function, hyponatremia and dehydration.

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28
Q

lithium adverse effects

A

L - levels
I - increased urination
T - thirsty tremors
H - air thinning Hypothyroidism
I - interactions
U - upset stomach
M - muscle weakness
S - skin affects

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29
Q

What are two antiseizure medications used during acute manic episodes and LONG-TERM for prophylaxis?

They work faster and safer but not as well as lithium.

a. Divalproex & Carbamazepine
b. Fluoxetine & Venlafaxine
c. Imipramine & Phenelzine
d. Bupropion & sleep

A

a. Divalproex & Carbamazepine

30
Q

What medication must the nurse monitor for thrombocytopenia and liver failure because the patient must be taken off this medication if experiencing these symptoms.

a. Divalproex
b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine
d. Carbamazepine

A

a. Divalproex

31
Q

What medication must the nurse monitor for thrombocytopenia and liver failure because the patient must be taken off this medication if experiencing these symptoms.

a. Divalproex
b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine
d. Carbamazepine

A

a. Divalproex

32
Q

What medication must the nurse monitor for leukopenia and effectiveness of oral birth control.

a. Divalproex
b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine
d. Carbamazepine

A

d. Carbamazepine

33
Q

A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and schizophrenia. The nurse will closely monitor the blood sugar if the patient receives which medication for the treatment of schizophrenia?

a. Loxapine
b. Clozapine
c. Thiothixene
d. Haloperidol

A

b. Clozapine

Second-generation antipsychotics such as clozapine carry a higher risk of serious metabolic effects (eg, diabetes and dyslipidemia) than first-generation antipsychotics (eg, loxapine, thiothixene, and haloperidol). Among the second-generation antipsychotics, the risk of metabolic effects is greatest with clozapine and olanzapine. Clozapine should be used with caution in patients with diabetes.

34
Q

The nurse prepares to administer the first dose of an antipsychotic agent to a patient. One hour after administration, it is most important for the nurse to assess what?

a. The range of motion of the upper and lower extremities
b. The orthostatic blood pressure measurements
c. The abdomen for distention and
bowel sounds
d. The tympanic membrane with an otoscope

A

b. The orthostatic blood pressure measurements

Antipsychotic drugs promote orthostatic hypotension. The blood pressure and pulses should be checked before dosing and 1 hour afterward. Measurements should be taken while the patient is lying down and again after the patient has been sitting or standing for 1 to 2 minutes. Hypotension is more likely with low-potency first-generation antipsychotics than with high-potency first-generation antipsychotics. Tolerance to hypotension develops after 2 to 3 months.

35
Q

A patient with BPD is prescribed lithium. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the need for further teaching?

a. “I can take the medication with milk or a snack.”
b. “I will call my doctor if I feel hyperactive.”
c. “I should drink at least 8 to 10 glasses of water every day.”
d. “I will reduce my salt intake while taking this medication.”

A

d. “I will reduce my salt intake while taking this medication.”

Lithium may be taken with milk or food to decrease gastric upset. Feelings of mania should be reported promptly; patients may need a mood stabilizer in addition to lithium. Patients who are taking lithium often experience polyuria and should drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day. Lithium will accumulate if sodium is restricted in the diet.

36
Q

The nurse prepares to administer lithium to a patient. Which laboratory result should first be assessed?

a. Urinary creatinine clearance
b. Serum troponin I and T levels
c. Fasting blood glucose level
d. Serum lipid profile

A

d. Serum lipid profile

Renal function (eg, serum creatinine level, creatinine clearance, urinalysis) should be evaluated before the administration of lithium; patients with reduced renal function are at risk for lithium toxicity. Serum lithium levels should be monitored every 2 to 3 days during initial therapy and every 3 to 6 months during maintenance. Other parameters that should be evaluated at least once a year include a complete blood count with differential, serum electrolyte levels, renal function, and thyroid function.

37
Q

Considerations for All Antidepressants

A
  • symptoms resolve slowly
  • Failure when taken 1 month without success
  • Taper on and taper off – do not stop abruptly
  • Antidepressants have nearly equal efficacy
  • All may increase suicidal tendencies (BBW), particularly early on
38
Q

Depression is the second most common psychiatric disorder. True or false.

A

True.

axiety is #1

60% of people dont seek help

39
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

This drug increases serotonin only and produces CNS excitation and is useful in pts experiencing fatigue.

a. Divalproex
b. Carbamazepine
c. Fluoxetine
d. Venlafaxine

A

c. Fluoxetine

40
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

This drug increases serotonin and norepinephrine and produces CNS excitation and is useful in pts experiencing fatigue.

a. Menlafaxine
b. Imipramine
c. Fluoxetine
d. Venlafaxine

A

d. Venlafaxine

So does IMIPRAMINE!!! (tricyclic antidepressant)

Duloxetine is given off label for CHRONIC PAIN

41
Q

Fluoxetine (SSRI), Venlafaxine (SNRI) like mostly all other antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction and weight gain. True or false.

A

True.

take drug holidays by skipping days to take a break

42
Q

Because Fluoxetine (SSRI), Venlafaxine (SNRI) produce CNS exitation, what are some s/s a pt may experience?

A

insomnia, agitation, nervousness

43
Q

A nurse notices a patient experiencing altered mental staus, autonomic symptoms, and neuromuscular excitation . She knows the pt is taking antidepressant and St. johns Wort can assume the patient is experiencing what syndrome and has to take what steps to help the patient?

SSRI/SNRI combined with MAOI or St. Johns wort

A

Serotonin syndrome and withhold the drug

44
Q

Because pts sometimes have trouble with adherence to medications the nurse knows that withdrawl syndrome is not a risk in patients taking antidepressants. True or false.

A

False.

Because pts sometimes have trouble with adherence to medications the nurse knows that withdrawl syndrome is a risk in patients taking antidepressants.

45
Q

A patient who is pregnant should know that an adverse effect of what two drugs is persistent pulmonary hypertension that poses a risk for cognitive delay or death in the neonate?

a. Fluoxetine & Venlafaxine
b. Imipramine & Phenelzine
c. Bupropion & Lorazepam
d. Zolbidem & Secobarbital

A

a. Fluoxetine & Venlafaxine

46
Q

Older patients, those with history of GI ulcers or bleeding, and those on antiplatelets/anticoagulants should be aware that what two medications pose a risk for GI Bleeding?

a. Fluoxetine & Venlafaxine
b. Imipramine & Phenelzine
c. Bupropion & Lorazepam
d. Zolbidem & Secobarbital

A

a. Fluoxetine & Venlafaxine

47
Q

citalopram greater than 40mg/day

A

can cause dysrhythmias

48
Q

Since Imipramide secondarily blocks cholinergic and histamine receptors the nurse the knows the patient may experience orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects, sedation and cardiac toxicity. True or false.

A

True.

Orthostatic Hypotension NI:
- slow position changes, monitor BP & HR

Anticholinergic Effects NI:
- Blurred vision – cautious with dangerous activity
- Urinary Retention – Increase fluid intake
- Dry Mouth – Sugar free candy
- Constipation – increased fiber

Sedation (antihistamine) NI:
- avoid hazardous activities, take at night

Cardiac toxicity NI:
- baseline ECG

49
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

This drug increases serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine and by preventing their breakdown through MOA.

a. Phenelzine
b. Imipramine
c. Fluoxetine
d. Venlafaxine

A

a. Phenelzine

AE: CNS stimulation and orthostatic hypotension

50
Q

A pt taking Phenelzine needs to avoid tyramine rich foods and all other drugs to avoid a hypertensive crisis, which of the following foods does the patient need to avoid?

a. overripe vegetables and fruits
b. potatoes
c. rice
d. fermented, smoked, or aged meats or fish
e. cheese
f. alcohol

A

a. overripe vegetables and fruits
d. fermented, smoked, or aged meats or fish
e. cheese
f. alcohol

Avoid fermented, pasteurized, aged foods bc they are thyramine rich and cause Severe headache, Tachycardia, Hypertension, N/V, Confusion, Sweating Profusely.

51
Q

Bupropion can cause weight gain, sexual dysfunction because they decrease norepinephrine and dopamine. True or false?

A

False

Bupropion DOES NOT cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction and INCREASES norepinephrine and dopamine.

PT NEED TO BE ON LESS THAN 450MG/DAY TO AVOID SEIZURES

52
Q

Nonconventional Agents

Esketamine

A

Nasal spray form of ketamine

53
Q

Nonconventional Agents

Psilocybin

A

Magic Mushrooms

54
Q

A patient with depression has been prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement made by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication teaching?

a. “Disorientation and hallucinations are common.”
b. “The drug may enhance my interest in sex.”
c. “It may take 3 to 4 weeks before my mood is elevated.”
d. “I can stop this medication when I feel less depressed.”

A

c. “It may take 3 to 4 weeks before my mood is elevated.”

The half-life of this drug is prolonged; therefore, approximately 4 weeks of treatment are required to produce steady-state plasma drug levels. Antidepressants do not relieve symptoms immediately. Initial responses develop after 1 to 3 weeks. Maximal responses develop in 1 to 2 months. Adverse effects of fluoxetine include sexual dysfunction (eg, impotence, delayed or absent orgasm, delayed or absent ejaculation, and decreased sexual interest), weight gain, serotonin syndrome, and withdrawal syndrome. Serotonin syndrome (disorientation and hallucinations) is uncommon unless the patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor or ritonavir. The abrupt discontinuation of fluoxetine can cause withdrawal syndrome (eg, dizziness, headache, nausea, tremor, anxiety, and dysphoria).

55
Q

A patient is prescribed isocarboxazid for the treatment of depression. Which foods should the patient be taught to avoid?

a. Broccoli, shrimp, and yogurt
b. Tomatoes, chicken, and milk
c. Bananas, smoked fish, and cheese
d. Apples, steak, and cottage cheese

A

c. Bananas, smoked fish, and cheese

Foods that are high in tyramine should be avoided if a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor such as isocarboxazid. Dietary tyramine promotes the release of accumulated norepinephrine to cause massive vasoconstriction and the excessive stimulation of the heart. A hypertensive crisis may occur. Foods to avoid include yeast extracts, most cheeses, fermented sausages, and aged fish or meat.

56
Q

A patient is prescribed doxepin for the treatment of depression. Which over-the-counter medication should the nurse teach the patient to avoid?

a. Glucosamine sulfate
b. Omeprazole
c. Fish oil (omega-3 fatty acids)
d. Diphenhydramine

A

d. Diphenhydramine

Drugs that are capable of blocking muscarinic receptors will enhance the anticholinergic effects of doxepin and other tricyclic antidepressants. The nurse should warn patients against the concurrent use of other anticholinergic drugs such as scopolamine, antihistamines, and phenothiazines. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine.

57
Q

The nurse teaches a patient about bupropion. Which statement by the patient should the nurse question?

a. “I can take the drug with food to reduce nausea.”
b. “This drug will increase my interest in sex.”
c. “I may experience decreased appetite and weight loss.”
d. “I had a serious head injury 3 years ago.”

A

d. “I had a serious head injury 3 years ago.”

Bupropion is generally well tolerated, but it can cause seizures. Therefore, bupropion should be avoided in patients with prior head trauma, because their risk for seizures is increased. Bupropion does not cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction, and it appears to increase sexual desire and pleasure. Bupropion is administered orally and may be taken with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.

58
Q

Lorazepam enhances GABA activity that helps to inhibit nerve impulses, but adversely can cause CNS, IV respiratory, cardiac, and blood pressure depression. True or false?

A

True.

a pt should be tapered off this drug

  • IV can be fatal
59
Q

What is the antidote for (Lorazepam) a type of Benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

60
Q

Zolpidem is used for insomnia to help people fall asleep, but adversely cause sleep-related complex behaviors. True or false.

A

True.

61
Q

Barbiturates

This drug is used for seizures and anesthesia by increasing GABA effects by binding and holding the channel open, but are very dangerous because they have no ceiling.

a. Lorazepam
b. Zolbidem
c. Secobarbital
d. Ramelteon

A

c. secobarbital

ital

62
Q

Ramelteon

A
  • Hypnotic used for insomnia to help falling asleep

Mechanism of Action: Melatonin receptor agonist

63
Q

Blocks orexin to promote falling & staying asleep

a. Zolbidem
b. Secobarbital
c. Ramelteon
d. Suvorexant

orexin = tells the body to wake up, promotes the state of wakefulness

A

d. Suvorexant

64
Q

Types of Anxiety Disorders

A
  • Generalized anxiety disorder: uncontrollable worrying (>6 months)
  • Panic disorder: panic attacks
  • Obsessive-compulsive disorder: obsessions/compulsions consuming >1 hour per day
  • Social anxiety disorder (social phobia): irrational fear of situations that might bring scrutiny, embarrassment, or humiliation
  • Post-traumatic stress disorder: anxiety surrounding a traumatic event
65
Q

The nurse instructs a young adult patient about triazolam for the short-term management of insomnia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates an understanding of the instructions?

a. “The medication will not affect my breathing.”
b. “I can safely drink wine while taking this drug.”
c. “My chance of addiction to this drug is high.”
d. “This drug is safe to use if I am pregnant.”

A

a. “The medication will not affect my breathing.”

The use of oral benzodiazepines does not cause respiratory depression unless they are used with opioids, barbiturates, or alcohol. Patients who are taking benzodiazepines should be warned to abstain from alcohol. The chance of addiction to triazolam is low. Triazolam should not be taken during pregnancy.

66
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency department for the treatment of an overdose of alprazolam. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to this patient?

a. Protamine sulfate
b. Acetylcysteine
c. Naloxone
d. Flumazenil

A

d. Flumazenil

Flumazenil, which is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, can be used to treat benzodiazepine overdose. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose, acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, and naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose.

67
Q

A patient is prescribed venlafaxine and requests information about the medication. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. “You will need to talk with the doctor about that.”
b. “I will get you a pamphlet so that you can read about the drug.”
c. “Call your pharmacist, because he or she will know the most about this drug.”
d. “Venlafaxine is used to treat anxiety and depression.”

A

d. “Venlafaxine is used to treat anxiety and depression.”

Venlafaxine [Effexor XR] is used to treat anxiety and depression.

68
Q

The nurse provides teaching for a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder who has been prescribed Sertraline. Which statement by the patient indicates that more teaching is necessary?

a. “I may develop headaches and trouble sleeping.”
b. “I will feel better in 3 weeks.”
c. “I need to take this medication for at least a year.”
d. “I should watch my diet so that I don’t gain weight.”

A

b. “I will feel better in 3 weeks.”

Beneficial effects of sertraline develop slowly over several months to become maximal. Common side effects include nausea, headache, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction. Weight gain can also occur. Treatment lasts for at least a year, and a trial discontinuation is conducted.

69
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with social anxiety disorder. The patient is currently experiencing intense anxiety. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication for the immediate relief of anxiety?

a. Fluvoxamine
b. Paroxetine
c. Sertraline
d. Clonazepam

A

D. Clonazepam

Benzodiazepines (such as clonazepam and alprazolam) provide immediate relief of anxiety and can be used as needed for intense anxiety. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are first-line drugs for most patients with social anxiety disorder, and they are especially well suited for patients who fear multiple situations and are obliged to face those situations on a regular basis. Currently, only three SSRIs (fluvoxamine, paroxetine, and sertraline) are approved for social anxiety disorder. Initial effects take about 4 weeks to develop; optimal effects are seen in 8 to 12 weeks.

70
Q

Nonbenzodiazepine-Nonbarbiturate

Burspirone

A

NON sedating