Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole?

A

Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole that targets anaerobic microorganisms by forming cytotoxic free radicals that damage bacterial DNA, leading to strand breakage and cell death.

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2
Q

What is the antibacterial spectrum of metronidazole?

A

Active against anaerobic bacteria (Bacteroides spp., Clostridium difficile) and protozoa (Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Trichomonas vaginalis). No activity against aerobes.

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3
Q

What are the major uses of metronidazole?

A

Used for amebiasis, bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, intra-abdominal infections, C. difficile colitis, and part of H. pylori treatment.

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4
Q

What are the major side effects of metronidazole?

A

GI distress, metallic taste, neurotoxicity (dizziness, vertigo, peripheral neuropathy), oral yeast infections, and Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol.

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5
Q

What are the drug interactions of metronidazole?

A

Alcohol (Disulfiram-like reaction), CYP450 inducers (reduce efficacy), CYP450 inhibitors (increase toxicity), Warfarin (increased anticoagulation).

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6
Q

Which organisms commonly cause UTIs?

A

Escherichia coli (most common), Klebsiella spp., Enterococcus spp., Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Proteus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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7
Q

What is the first-line oral therapy for UTIs in non-pregnant women?

A

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid, Macrodantin), Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim), and Fosfomycin.

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nitrofurantoin?

A

Inhibits bacterial DNA and RNA synthesis by interfering with bacterial ribosomal proteins and enzymes.

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9
Q

What is the antimicrobial spectrum of nitrofurantoin?

A

Active against E. coli, Klebsiella spp., Enterococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp. Not effective against Proteus spp. or Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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10
Q

Why should renal function be evaluated before nitrofurantoin use?

A

Nitrofurantoin requires renal excretion to reach therapeutic levels in urine. Poor renal function (GFR < 35 mL/min) can lead to inadequate levels and increased systemic toxicity.

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11
Q

What are the side effects of nitrofurantoin?

A

GI upset, pulmonary toxicity (acute pneumonitis, chronic fibrosis), peripheral neuropathy, autoimmune hepatitis (rare).

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12
Q

Is nitrofurantoin safe for use in children and pregnancy?

A

Safe in children >1 month. Generally safe in pregnancy except in the first trimester (birth defect risk) and near term (hemolytic anemia risk).

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13
Q

What are fungi and their characteristics?

A

Eukaryotic organisms with chitin-containing cell walls and ergosterol in their cell membranes. Includes yeasts, molds, and mushrooms.

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14
Q

What is the difference between systemic and superficial mycoses?

A

Superficial mycoses affect skin, nails, and mucosa (e.g., candidiasis, tinea infections). Systemic mycoses affect internal organs and deep tissues (e.g., cryptococcal meningitis, histoplasmosis).

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15
Q

What is the difference between opportunistic and non-opportunistic fungal pathogens?

A

Opportunistic fungi infect immunocompromised hosts (e.g., Candida, Aspergillus). Non-opportunistic fungi infect healthy individuals (e.g., Histoplasma, Coccidioides).

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16
Q

What are polyenes and their mechanism of action?

A

Polyenes (e.g., Amphotericin B, Nystatin) bind to ergosterol in fungal membranes, forming pores that cause cell leakage and death.

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17
Q

What are imidazoles and their mechanism of action?

A

Imidazoles (e.g., Ketoconazole, Clotrimazole) inhibit 14-alpha-demethylase, blocking ergosterol synthesis and disrupting fungal membrane function.

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18
Q

What are common side effects of azoles?

A

Hepatotoxicity, QT prolongation, CYP450 inhibition leading to drug interactions.

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19
Q

What is the structure of a virus?

A

Contains genetic material (DNA or RNA), a protein capsid, an optional lipid envelope, and surface proteins for host attachment.

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir and valacyclovir?

A

They are guanosine analogs phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase, inhibiting viral DNA polymerase and causing chain termination.

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21
Q

What are the side effects of acyclovir?

A

GI upset, nephrotoxicity (especially IV formulation), headache, dizziness.

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22
Q

What drugs are used to treat influenza?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors (Oseltamivir, Zanamivir), Adamantanes (Amantadine, Rimantadine - not recommended due to resistance).

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23
Q

What are the drug interactions of fluoroquinolones?

A

Inhibit CYP450 (increase warfarin, theophylline, caffeine levels). Absorption reduced by antacids, sucralfate, zinc, and iron supplements.

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24
Q

Why is ganciclovir the drug of choice for CMV?

A

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase, but causes severe neutropenia and is teratogenic (Black Box Warning: avoid in pregnancy).

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25
Q

What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance?

A

Modification of target sites (MRSA), efflux pumps (tetracyclines), enzymatic inactivation (beta-lactamases).

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26
Q

What is the difference between empiric, therapeutic, and prophylactic antibiotic therapy?

A

Empiric: broad-spectrum, before culture results. Therapeutic: directed at identified pathogen. Prophylactic: prevents infection in high-risk patients.

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27
Q

What is the role of MIC in antibiotic selection?

A

MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration) is the lowest antibiotic concentration that prevents bacterial growth, guiding dosage selection.

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28
Q

What is the post-antibiotic effect (PAE)?

A

Persistent bacterial suppression even after antibiotic levels drop below MIC. Seen in aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones, allowing once-daily dosing.

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of macrolides?

A

Macrolides bind irreversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting translocation in bacterial protein synthesis.

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30
Q

Are macrolides bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Macrolides are bacteriostatic but can be bactericidal at higher doses.

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31
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of macrolides?

A

Gram-positive (Streptococcus, Staphylococcus), Gram-negative (H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis), Atypicals (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella).

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32
Q

What are the most common side effects of macrolides?

A

GI distress, cholestatic jaundice, ototoxicity, QTc prolongation, liver toxicity.

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33
Q

How do erythromycin & clarithromycin affect other drugs via the P450 system?

A

Inhibit CYP3A4, increasing levels of statins, warfarin, theophylline, sildenafil.

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34
Q

What is the role of fidaxomicin (Dificid)?

A

Macrocyclic antibiotic for C. difficile; narrow spectrum, minimal systemic absorption, lower recurrence than vancomycin.

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35
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of clindamycin?

A

Gram-positive aerobes (Staph, Strep, MRSA), anaerobes (Bacteroides, C. perfringens).

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36
Q

What is clindamycin most commonly used for?

A

Skin/soft tissue infections, anaerobic infections, dental infections, osteomyelitis.

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37
Q

What is the most serious side effect of clindamycin and how is it treated?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis from C. difficile. Treat with oral vancomycin or metronidazole.

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38
Q

What are potential drug interactions with clindamycin?

A

Neuromuscular blockers (enhanced blockade), macrolides (antagonism), CYP3A4 interactions.

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39
Q

Why is the oxazolidinones class important in infection treatment?

A

Effective against drug-resistant Gram-positives: MRSA, VRE, penicillin-resistant Strep.

40
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of linezolid?

A

Gram-positive bacteria including MRSA, VRE, Streptococci, Corynebacterium, Listeria.

41
Q

What lab work should be done weekly for linezolid?

A

Monitor CBC weekly due to risk of thrombocytopenia, neuropathy, optic neuritis.

42
Q

What drug interactions should be monitored with linezolid?

A

Linezolid is a weak MAO inhibitor; risk of serotonin syndrome with SSRIs, MAOIs, tyramine-rich foods.

43
Q

What is Synercid’s (quinupristin/dalfopristin) spectrum of activity?

A

Active against VRE (except E. faecalis), MRSA, penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae.

44
Q

What is the major side effect of Synercid and how does it impact drug interactions?

A

Venous irritation, hyperbilirubinemia, arthralgia. Inhibits CYP3A4, increasing drug toxicity.

45
Q

What is the antimicrobial mechanism of sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

A

Sulfonamides inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase; trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking folate synthesis.

46
Q

What are the primary uses of sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

A

TMP-SMX for UTIs, PCP, toxoplasmosis, Listeria, MRSA.

47
Q

What serious disorders are linked to sulfonamides?

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, hemolytic anemia (G6PD deficiency), kernicterus in neonates.

48
Q

How does sulfonamide-induced crystalluria occur and how can it be prevented?

A

Acetylated metabolites precipitate in acidic urine. Prevent with hydration and urine alkalinization.

49
Q

What is the mechanism of fluoroquinolones and their spectrum of activity?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (Gram-negative) and topoisomerase IV (Gram-positive).

50
Q

What are the major adverse effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

Tendinitis, QTc prolongation, CNS toxicity, peripheral neuropathy, arthropathy.

51
Q

What drug interactions are significant with fluoroquinolones?

A

CYP1A2/3A4 inhibition increases warfarin, theophylline, caffeine levels. Antacids reduce absorption.

52
Q

What is the spectrum of activity and therapeutic use of daptomycin?

A

Gram-positive spectrum: MRSA, VRE, Streptococcus. Used for cSSSIs, bacteremia, right-sided endocarditis.

53
Q

What are the major side effects and renal requirements for daptomycin?

A

Myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, eosinophilic pneumonia. Requires renal dose adjustment.

54
Q

What lab monitoring is required for daptomycin?

A

Monitor creatine phosphokinase (CPK), renal function, WBC count.

55
Q

What is the difference between microbial colonization and infection?

A

Colonization is the presence of bacteria without causing disease, whereas infection involves bacterial invasion and an immune response.

56
Q

What are the key diagnostic methods for identifying an infection?

A

Patient history, physical examination, elevated WBC count, inflammatory markers, and culture growth.

57
Q

What are common causes of antimicrobial treatment failure?

A

Incorrect antibiotic selection, poor drug penetration, noncompliance, inadequate dosing.

58
Q

What are less common causes of antimicrobial treatment failure?

A

Immunosuppression, superinfections, biofilms, drug interactions.

59
Q

What are the major mechanisms of action of antibiotics?

A

Cell wall inhibitors, protein synthesis inhibitors, nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors, folate metabolism inhibitors, membrane disruptors.

60
Q

What are best practices for preventing antimicrobial resistance?

A

Use narrow-spectrum antibiotics, avoid unnecessary prescriptions, hand hygiene, patient education.

61
Q

What is the mechanism of action and spectrum of natural penicillins?

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Covers Gram-positive bacteria, some Gram-negatives, anaerobes, and spirochetes.

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action and spectrum of extended-spectrum penicillins?

A

Similar to natural penicillins but with expanded Gram-negative coverage, including Haemophilus influenzae and E. coli.

63
Q

What are the characteristics of first-generation cephalosporins?

A

Good for Gram-positive cocci (MSSA, Streptococci), used in surgical prophylaxis.

64
Q

What are the characteristics of second-generation cephalosporins?

A

Better Gram-negative coverage, used for respiratory infections.

65
Q

What are the characteristics of third-generation cephalosporins?

A

Excellent Gram-negative coverage, some cross the blood-brain barrier.

66
Q

What are the characteristics of fourth- and fifth-generation cephalosporins?

A

Broad spectrum including Pseudomonas (fourth-gen), MRSA coverage (fifth-gen).

67
Q

What are the indications and toxicities of aminoglycosides?

A

Used for severe Gram-negative infections; nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity.

68
Q

What are the indications and toxicities of macrolides?

A

Used for respiratory infections, atypicals; GI disturbances, QT prolongation.

69
Q

What are the indications and toxicities of sulfonamides?

A

Used for UTIs, pneumocystis pneumonia; hypersensitivity reactions, crystalluria.

70
Q

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, broad Gram-negative activity.

71
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis.

72
Q

How do penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

Bind to PBPs, preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking, leading to bacterial lysis.

73
Q

Which beta-lactams can penetrate Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Aminopenicillins (ampicillin, amoxicillin) and extended-spectrum cephalosporins (ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefepime).

74
Q

What are the four main classes of penicillins and their coverage?

A

Penicillin G (narrow, sensitive), Nafcillin (staph coverage), Aminopenicillins (broader Gram-negative), Piperacillin (Pseudomonas).

75
Q

What are the four generations of cephalosporins and their characteristics?

A

First-gen (Gram-positive), second-gen (more Gram-negative), third-gen (broad Gram-negative), fourth-gen (Pseudomonas), fifth-gen (MRSA).

76
Q

Why are beta-lactams vulnerable to beta-lactamase inactivation?

A

Beta-lactamases hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring, inactivating the drug.

77
Q

What are the major allergic reactions associated with penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Immediate (anaphylaxis), accelerated (urticaria), delayed (maculopapular rash).

78
Q

What is the role of beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitors bind to and inactivate beta-lactamases, preserving antibiotic activity.

79
Q

Why are IV penicillins often used with aminoglycosides?

A

Beta-lactams weaken the cell wall, enhancing aminoglycoside penetration.

80
Q

What are common resistance mechanisms to penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Beta-lactamase production, porin mutations, altered PBPs.

81
Q

What are common drug interactions with penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Probenecid inhibits excretion, warfarin enhances anticoagulation, aminoglycosides increase nephrotoxicity.

82
Q

What is the spectrum and indications of carbapenems?

A

Broad spectrum, covering Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and anaerobes. Used for multi-drug resistant infections.

83
Q

What is the spectrum and indications of monobactam (Aztreonam)?

A

Effective against Gram-negative aerobes, safe for penicillin-allergic patients.

84
Q

When is vancomycin the drug of choice?

A

DOC for MRSA, C. difficile (oral form), severe beta-lactam-allergic infections.

85
Q

How does vancomycin treat C. difficile infections?

A

Oral vancomycin is used because it remains in the gut and is not systemically absorbed.

86
Q

What are the most serious side effects of vancomycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, Red-Man Syndrome.

87
Q

Why is therapeutic drug monitoring necessary for vancomycin?

A

Trough levels are critical for efficacy and preventing toxicity.

88
Q

What is the difference between vancomycin and telavancin?

A

Telavancin is more potent, disrupts membrane potential, but causes more nephrotoxicity and QT prolongation.

89
Q

What is the mechanism of action and clinical uses of tetracyclines?

A

Binds 30S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis; used for acne, MRSA, atypicals.

90
Q

What are common adverse effects of tetracyclines?

A

Photosensitivity, esophagitis, hepatotoxicity, tooth discoloration in children.

91
Q

How do macrolides interact with CYP450 enzymes?

A

Inhibit CYP450, increasing levels of warfarin, statins, theophylline.

92
Q

What is the spectrum and clinical use of linezolid?

A

Covers Gram-positive bacteria including MRSA and VRE.

93
Q

What are key drug interactions of linezolid?

A

Risk of serotonin syndrome with SSRIs, hypertensive crisis with sympathomimetics.

94
Q

What is the mechanism of action of azole antifungals?

A

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis, disrupting fungal cell membranes.

95
Q

What is the mechanism of action of neuraminidase inhibitors for influenza?

A

Block neuraminidase, preventing viral release.

96
Q

What is the role of ganciclovir in CMV infections?

A

Used for CMV infections, but causes bone marrow suppression.