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MICROBIOLOGY > Antimicrobial agents > Flashcards

Antimicrobial agents Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is the father of chemotherapy?

A

Paul Ehrlich

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2
Q

Paul Ehrlich coined the term Selective toxicity and Chemotherapy. Explain them in your own words.

A
  • Selective toxicity only effect on the microbes inhabiting the host.
  • Chemotherapy is treatment of infectious disease.
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3
Q

What is the mode of action of penicillin?

A

It infiltrates the cell-wall-building-enzyme and able to do so due to it’s same morphology.

this enzyme is known as cross linking transpeptidase/Penicillin Binding Protein.

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4
Q

Penicillin G and Penicillin V are Natural Penicillins. What is the character of Natural Penicillin?

A
  • Narrow spectrum
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5
Q

Where is Penicillin V administer?

A

Orally

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6
Q

Where is Penicillin G administer?

A

Intravenously

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7
Q

Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Isoxazolyl is a?

A

Penicillinase resistant

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8
Q

Aminopenicillins are? , and is partnered to?

A

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid
Ampicillin + Sulbactam
Pipercillin + Tazobactam
———————————————————
- Amoxicillin has a better GI absorption than Ampicillin
- Clavulanic acid is isolated from streptomyces clavuligeris
- Tazobactam is a more potent inhibitor that has broader spectrum than Clavulanic

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9
Q

Define broad spectrum

A

Could be used to treat variety of bacteria, gram positive and gram negative.

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10
Q

Carboxypenicillins and Ureidopenicillins are Extended Spectrum Penicillins. (A) Which one has a special advantage against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and (B) which one is made from modification of ampicillin structure?

A

Carboxypenicillins (A)
Ureidopenicillin (B)

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11
Q

Which generation of Cephalosporins has great effect on Enterococci and Pseudomonas but has has limited effect on gram negative?

A

Third generation

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12
Q

Which generation is effective against MRSA? *also what is the meaning of MRSA

A

Fifth generation; Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

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13
Q

What is the substitution to the third generation of Cephalosporins?

A

Cefuroxime

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14
Q

Aztreonam and Tigemonam are both Monobactam?
Which one is the first member of the new class of antibiotics?

A

Aztreonam

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15
Q

Aztreonam has a magic bullet for what family of bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas

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16
Q

Polypeptide antibiotics is known for their excellency against aerobic and anaerobe gram___ bacteria?

A

gram positive

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17
Q

In polypeptide antibiotics, which one causes redman’s syndrome, Vancomycin or Bacitranin?

A

Vacomycin

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18
Q

What does mycobacteria contains that enables them to resist decolorization from (add) + (add) ?

A

Contains Mycolic acid

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19
Q

It inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid?

A

Isoniazid

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20
Q

Aminoglycosides binds to (add) are broad spectrum in which aa are linked by glycosidic bonds. What is its mode of action?

A

Mismatches codons and anticodons which leads to faulty protein programing.

add: 30’s ribosomes

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21
Q

“micin” is isolated from?

A

Micromonospora

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22
Q

Tetracycline is known to bind in _______. It has four fused ring with a system of ______.

A

30s ribosomal; system of conjugated double system

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23
Q

Macrolides and Lincosamides binds to ___ ribosomal. Lincomides resembles _____. Common characteristics of Macolides is large lactone ring, ketone group, and glycosidically linked amino sugar. Their mode of action is to block _________?

A

Macrolides and Lincosamides binds to 50s ribosomal.
Lincomides resembles sulfanamides ( sulfamethoxazole).
Their MOA block is to peptide bond

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24
Q

Is the magic bullet for Pseudomonas?

A

Aztreonam

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25
Q

Streptomyces Cattleya?

A

Thienamycin

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26
Q

Cefuroxime substituted the ________?

A

third generation of cephalosporins

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27
Q

Where is Clavulanic acid isolated from?

A

Streptomyces clavuligeris

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28
Q

Ureidopenicillis is made from modification of____?

A

ampicillin’s structure

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29
Q

What are the Penicillinase inhibitors?

A
  • Clavulanic acid
  • Sulbactam
  • Tazobactam
30
Q

Primarily against Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Generation 1

31
Q

POLYPEPTIDE ANTIBIOTICS: Vacomycin adverse effect is?

A

Redman’s syndrome

32
Q

Macrolide cures (add) from (add). It binds to 50s and has the same MOA to Lincosamides, what is that?

A

Inhibits peptide bonds

33
Q

Is the treatment for Typhoid fever (Salmonella typhi). Isolated from Streptomyces Venezeulae?

A

Chloramphenicol

34
Q

Choramphenicol is associated to?

A

Baby Blue Syndrome, Bone marrow suppression, and Aplastic Anemia

35
Q

50s: Streptogramins is the treatment against VRSA, MRSA, VRE. Where is Vancomycin isolated from?

A

Streptomyces orientalis

36
Q

What is the treatment against MRSA, VRE, VRSA?

A

50s: Streptogramins

37
Q

Daptomycin injures Plasma Membrane and isolated from Streptomyces roseosporus. WHO removed it from?

A

Essential list medicines in 2019

38
Q

What is the mode of action of sulfanamides(sulfamethoxazole) and Sulfone(Dapsone)?

A

It inhibits PABA an enzyme that synthesize dihydrofolic acid; and it can due to its the same morphology.

39
Q

Trimetethoprim blocks the ______?

A

tetrahydrofolic synthesizing enzyme

40
Q

what blocks the tetrahydrofolic synthesizing enzyme?

A

Trimethoprim

41
Q

Stops the incorporation of the mycolic acid?

A

Ethambutol

42
Q

A slow growing bacteria and is also known as Hansen’s disease?

A

Leprosy

43
Q

IMPORATANT METABOLITES: If sulfanamides can inhibits the dihydrofolic and tetradirofolic, then what inhibits the folic acid?

A

Sulfone(Dapsone)

44
Q

What does azoles do?

A

blocks the synthesis of ergosterol

45
Q

Polyenes mode of action?

A

Binds to ergosterol

46
Q

Azoles mode of action?

A

Inhibits synthesizing Ergosterol

47
Q

Ampicillin is believed to bind to ______?

A

sterol membrane

48
Q

Absorption is increased with fatty acids?

A

Griseofulvin

48
Q

GRISEOFULVIN is known to _____?

A

increase activity with the use of fatty acid

49
Q

What PBP is responsible for the septum formation?

A

PBP 3

50
Q

What PBP enzyme is responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis?

A

PBA 1a & 1b

51
Q

What PBP enzyme is responsible for maintenance the bacteria’s cell shape?

A

PBP 2

52
Q

What PBP is responsible for the hydrolysis of D alanine?

A

PBP 4

53
Q

interferes with the formation of the initiation complex between 30s and 50s subunits.

A

Oxazolidinone

54
Q

Isolated from Streptomyces roseosporus?

A

Daptomycin

55
Q

Crystalluria, Steven-Johnson syndrome, Kernicterus, and Anemia is the adverse effects of?

A

Sulfonamides

56
Q

What is the treatment for pneumocystis pnuemonia (common for aids)?

A

pentamidine isethionate

57
Q

/Tolnaftate/ is the alternative treatment for Athlete’s foot

A

What is the alternative treatment for the athlete’s foot?

58
Q

ANTIPOTOZOAL AGENTS: The widely used antiprotozoal drugs is?

A

Metronidazole

59
Q

ANTIPROZOAL: Trypanosoma cruzi causes?

A

American sleeping sickness (Chaga’s disease)

60
Q

/Nifutimox and Benzidazole/ is the treatment for American Sleeping disease caused by trypa cruzi

A

What is the treatment for American Sleeping disease?

61
Q

T. brucei causes African Sleeping sickness.
A. T. brucei gambiense - Western and Central African Sleeping sickness
B. T. brucei rhodesiense - Eastern and Southern African Sleeping sickeness

A

Match the ff:
Eastern A. T. brucei gambiense
Central B. T. brucei rhodesiense
Southern
Western

62
Q

Increases the membrane permeability to calcium contraction vacuolization parasite death

A

Paraziquantel

add: treats most of the platyhelminths cestodes caused disease…the taenia’s

63
Q

Protease inhibitors are:
- Saquinavir
- Ritonavir
- Indinavir
- Atazanavir
- Nelfinavir
- Fosamprenavir

A

Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Indinavir, Atazanavir, Nelfinavir, Fosamprenavir

64
Q

/Melarsoprol/ is the treatment for T. Brucei

A

What is the treatment for T. Brucei?

65
Q

terminal prophylaxis for travelers from area where P. vivax and P. ovale are endemic.

A

Primaquine

66
Q

Recommended prophylaxis for travelers in malaria-endemic areas without examination for P. falciparum chloroquine resistance.

A

Mefloquine and Atovaquone-proguanil

67
Q

DOC in P. Falciparum which is administered orally and IV.

Quinidine Gluconate and Quinidine sulfate

A

Quinidine Gluconate (oral)
Quinidine Sulfate (IV)

68
Q

Quinidine sulfate is administered as?

A

IV

69
Q

Quinidine gluconate is administered as?

A

Orally

MICROBIOLOGY (6 decks)

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