Anticoagulation Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Clot Formation

1) vasospasm of injured blood vessel ___ passage
2) platelets release chemical making nearby platelets sticky; platelet ___forms
3) a strong clot forms by a cascade mechanism that culminates in activation of ___ , an enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin
4) plasminogen is coverted to ___ by plasminogen activators
5) ___ is digested, blood flow restored

A

1) consitrictis
2) plug
3) thrombin
4) plasmin
5) fibrin

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2
Q

Clotting Factors

Serine Proteases
- ___ down-stream factors to ___ them
- Examples - Factors: XII, XI, X, IX, VII, II (pro-___)
- cleave factors ___ and ___
- Protein ___ (Anti-coagulants)

A
  • cleave, activate
  • pro-coagulants
  • coagulant
  • Va, VIIIa
  • C
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3
Q

Clotting Factors

Glycoproteins
- Co-factors for activation of ___
- Examples - Factors: VIII, V, III (tissue factor), protein ___
- bind to and inhibit ___ (anti - ___ III)

A
  • proteases
  • S
  • thrombin, thrombin
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4
Q

Clotting Factors

  • Ca2+ (Factor ___ ) - links certain factors to ____
  • transglutaminase - ___ fibrin fibers (Factor ___ )
  • fibrinogen/fibrin - ultimately, the substrate protein for thrombin (Factor ___ ) that ___ to form clot
A
  • IV, phospholipid membranes
  • cross-links, XIII
  • IIa, polymerizes
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5
Q

Genetic Clotting Factor Disease

Hemophilia A - deficiency in factor ___ - 1 in 5,000 males

Hemophilia B - deficiency in factor ___ - 1 in 25,000 males

Factor V Leiden - resistance to cleavage protein ___ (5% of Caucasians)

A
  • VIII
  • IX
  • C
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6
Q

Where are clotting factors produced?

  • all except for von Willebrand factor are made in the ___
  • vWF is produced in the ___ , subendothelium, and megakaryocytes
  • factor ___ is also produced in the endothelium
  • ___ can have unpredicable effects on coagulation
A
  • liver
  • endothelium
  • VIII
  • liver disease
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7
Q

Where does coagulation occur?

Extrinsic - required a ___ factor extrinsic to the blood. Important when vessel is damaged and blood leaks out

Intrinsic - triggered when ___ in exposed on the wall of the blood vessel

A
  • tissue
  • collagen
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8
Q

Coagulation Cascade - Intrinsic Pathway

  • all components in the blood
  • initiated by contact with negatively charged collagen of diseased or injured vessel
  • blood in ___ clots by this mechanism
A
  • all
  • collagen
  • test tube
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9
Q

Coagulation Cascade - Extrinsic pathway

  • relies on factors outside blood stream for activation
  • release of tissue ___ initiates pathway
  • rapid (about ___ secs) to start clot formation)
A
  • thomboplastin
  • 15
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10
Q

Activation of the Extrinsic of Tissue Factor Pathway to coagulatoin

  • ___ is expressed on the surface of cells outside of but near blood vessels
  • factor ___ normally resides in blood
  • TF binding to factor ___ activates it
  • factor ___ binds and cleaves actor ___
A
  • tissue factor
  • VII
  • VII
  • VIIa, X
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11
Q

Common Pathway

  • ___ activation plays a central role in final steps of clot formation
  • converts ___ into long strands of insoluble ___
  • activates Factor ___ which then ___ fibrin to form a stable clot incorporated into platelet plug
A
  • thrombin
  • fibrinogen, fibrin
  • XIII, crosslinks
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12
Q

Convergence with intrinsic pathway

Factor ___ binds Factor ___ on the surface of platelets and activates Factor ___

A

IXa, VIIa, X

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13
Q

Feedback mechanism which increase coagulation

Thrombin
- activates factor ___ and ___
- enhances platelet activation

Platelet activation - increases activation of Factor ___, Factor ___ , and cleavage of ____

A
  • V, VIII
  • VII, X, prothrombin
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14
Q

Feedback mechanism which decrease coagulation

Anti-thrombin
- neutralizes procoagulant serine ____ (thrombin, Xa, IXa)
- reaction acelerated by ___

Protein C system
- activated by thrombin binding to ___
- activated protein ___ complex (APC) forms a complex with protein ___ to inactivate factors ___ and ___

Factor Xa
- activates tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) to block initial activation of factor ___

A
  • protease
  • heparin
  • thrombomodulin
  • C, S, Va, VIIIa
  • VII
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15
Q

Common Tests of Hemostatic Function

Platelet Count
- too low = ___ = bone marrow malfunction, nutritional deficiencies
- too high = ___

Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
- plasma + thromboplastin + Ca - clots in 12-14 seconds
- INR (internal normalized ratio) is a normalized value for each lot of ___
- used to monitor ___ therapy

aPTT
- plasma + phospholipid (no TF) + activating agent - clots in 26-33 seconds
- used to monitor ___ therapy

Fibrinogen
- less common. range from 200-400 mg/dL

D-dimer
- product of ___ breakdown

A
  • thombocytopenia
  • thrombocytosis
  • thromboplastin
  • warfarin
  • heparin
  • fibrin
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16
Q

In vitro measure of coagulation

1) calcium + blood = recalcification time 2-4 min
2) calcium + partial thromboplastin (just phospholipids) + kaolin + blood = activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT; 23-33 seconds) = ____ pathway
3) calcium + thromboplastin + blood (T.P. is tissue factor and phospholipids) - prothrombin time (PT; 12-14 seconds) = ___ pathway

A
  • intrinsic
  • extrinsic
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17
Q

INR

a normal PT time is 11-14 seconds. Due to differences in patches of tissue factor, producers must assign an international sensitivity index (ISI) to their product.

Normal INR = ___ - ___
Therapeutic INR ~ ___ - ___
INR > ___ = risk of hemorrhage

A

0.8-1.2
2-3
3

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18
Q

Therapeutic Indication for Anticoagulation

prevent excessing clotting that can lead to ___ of blood vessels
- stroke
- post MI
- unstable angina
- DVT
- pulmonary embolisms
- artificial surfaces

A
  • occlusion
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19
Q

Vitamin K

  • fat-soluble vitamin
  • involved in post-translation modification of prothrombin, factors ___ , ___ , and ___ (vit K dependent)

Uses
- individuals with abnormalities in fat absorption
- reverse anticoagulant effect of excess ___

A

VII, IX, X
- warfarin

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20
Q

Vitamin K Antagonist - Warfarin

  • Vitamin ___ Antagonists
  • Coumarin anticoagulants
  • originally found in spoiled clover hay as substances that caused hemorrhage in cattle
  • all derivates are water soluble ___
  • warfarin is the most commonly used
  • racemic mixture ( __ isomer most potent)
A
  • K
  • lactones
  • S
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21
Q

Warfarin - MOA

vitamin K is essential for post-translation modification of clotting factors ___ , ___ , ___ , and ___ and anticoagulation proteins ___ and ___

Warfarin acts by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors ___ , ___ , ___ , and ___

Vitamin K action
- carboxylase catalyzes the gama-carboxylation of Glu in ___
- Vitamin K is ___ in the process
- coumadin inhibits vit K-epoxide reductase ( ___ ), thus blocking ___of Vit K epoxide back to its active form

A
  • VII, IX, X prothrombin II, C, S
  • II, VII, IX, X
  • prothrombin
  • oxidized
  • VKORC1, reduction
22
Q

Warfarin Therapeutic actions

___ onset of action
- must deplete the pool of circulating ___
- max effect in ___ - ___ days after start of therapy
- loading dose: 5 mg/day
- maintenance dose: 2.5-5 mg/day

After discontinuing therapy
- factors must be re-synthesized to return to normal PT (several ___ )

A

delayed, clotting factors
- 3-5 days
- days

23
Q

Warfarin Metabolism

  • metabolized in the liver by CYP ___ (S-warfarin)
  • t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs
  • termination of action is not correlated with plasma warfarin levels, but reestablishment of normal ___

over dose - latrogenic hemorrhage
- discontinue warfarin therapy
- administer Vit K1 (high levels can activate warfarin-inhibitied ___ )
- in serious hemorrhage - ____ replaces clotting factors faster than Vit K therapy

A
  • CYP2C9
  • 36-48
  • clotting factors
  • reductase
  • plasma
24
Q

Warfarin Necrosis

  • some patients have a deficiency of protein __
  • this protein is an innate ___ that requires vitamin K dependent carboxylation for its activity
  • since warfarin initaitally decreases protein ___ levels faster than the coagulation factors, it can paradoxically ___ the blood tendency to coagulate when treatment is begun
  • many patients when starting on warfarin are given ___ in parallel to combat this
  • a deficiency in protein ___ would lead to the same necrosis
A
  • C
  • anticoagulant
  • C, increase
  • heparin
  • S
25
Q

Drugs that Diminish warfarin’s Anticoagulant Effect

  • cholestyramine - inhibits warfarin absorption in the ___
  • barbiturates, carbamazepine, rifampin - accelerates warfarin metabolism by ___ P450 enzymes
  • Nephrotic syndrome/hypoproteinemia - decreased albumin, increased ___ warfarin, decreased t1/2
  • reduced vitamin K - ___ warfarin-induced epoxide reductase inhibition
  • pregnancy (bad dr) - ___ levels of clotting factors
A
  • GI tract
  • inducing
  • free
  • bypasses
  • increased
26
Q

Drugs that enhance warfarins anticoagulant effect

  • chloral hydrate - displaces warfarin from plasma ___
  • chloramphenicol, SSRIs, amiodarone - decreases warfarin metabolism by ___ hepatic P450
  • broad spectrum antibiotics - reduce availability of vit K in the ___
  • anabolic steroids - inhibits ___ and increases ___ of clotting factors
A
  • albumin
  • inhibiting
  • GI tract
  • synthesis, degradation
27
Q

Warfarin

Adverse Effects
- hemorrhage
- drug-drug interactions

Contraindications
- when risk of ___ is greater than potential benefits (uncontrolled alcohol/drug abuse, unsupervised dementia/psychosis)
- never use in ___ (teratogen)

A
  • hemorrhage
  • pregnancy
28
Q

Mechanism of Heparin

  • free antithrombin can slowly inactivate Factors ___ , ___ , ___ , ___ , ___ , and ___
  • heparin binding to AT changed the protein conformation; this ___ interaction of AT with target factors
  • the ratio of AT activity is typically ___ (thrombin:factor Xa)
  • LMWH are too small to bind AT and ___ , thus have greater specificity for inhibiton of ____
  • Overall, heparin acts by accelerating AT reactions to inactivate ___ and ___
A
  • Xa, IXa, XIa, XIIa, IIa, VIIa
  • increases
  • 3:1
  • thrombin, Factor Xa
  • thrombin, Factor Xa
29
Q

Heparin - Clinical Use

administration - effective ___
- intermittenet IV inj
- Continuous IV infusion - easiest to control
- SC inj

adjust dosing according to ___ tests
- ___ therapeutic range = 1.5-2 x normal
- cleared rapidly from blood (t1/2 = 30-180 min)

anticoagulant effect disapprears within ___ of dicontinuation of therapy

A
  • immediately
  • coagulation
  • aPTT
  • hours
30
Q

Adverse Effects of Heparin

latrogenic hemorrhage can occur at any site
risk factors:
- patients over ___
- ___ patients
- severe ___
- ___ drugs

Treatment
- stop heparin (short t1/2)
- life threatening bleeding: administer specific antagonist
- ___ - binds tightly to heparin to neutralize the anticoagulant action

A
  • 50
  • ulcer
  • hypertension
  • antiplatelet
  • protamine sulfate
31
Q

Hepatin Reversal

Heparin Inhibitor: protamine sulfate
- a low molecular weight ___ protein which forms a stable complex with ___ charged heparin through multiple electrostatic interactions
- administered IV to rapidly reverse the effects of heparins in situations of life threatening hemorrhage/great heparin excess
- not as effective with ___
- does not reverese effects of ___

A
  • polycationic
  • negatively
  • LMWH
  • fondaparinux
32
Q

Adverse Effects - Heparin - thrombocytopenia (HIT)

type 1: mild, transient due to direct action on ___

type 2: severe, develops ___ - ___ days after starting therapy
- ___ develop to platelet (PF4)-heparin complex
- ___ - associated with extended therapy (3-6 months)

A
  • platelets
  • 7-12
  • antibodies
  • osteoporosis
33
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

unfractionated heparin can cause thrombocytopenia and thrombosis in patients producing an ___ to a complex of heparin and platelet factor 4
- HIT risk: unfractionated heparin > LMWH > fondaparinux

A

antibody

34
Q

Heparin Chemistry

  • straight chain sulfated mucopolysaccharides - produced by ___ cells and ___
  • mixture of 5-30 kDa (mean ~ ___ kDa) compounds
  • extracted from ___ small intestine or ___ lung
  • anticoagulant activity standardized by bioassay - expressed as units ~ 120 USP units/mg is st activity
  • sulfate groups (negatively charged) required for binding to ___ are indicated in blue
A
  • mast cells, basophils
  • 15 kDa
  • porcine, bovine
  • antithrombin
35
Q

LMWH

Examples: ___ and ____
- obtained from ___ of unfractionated porcine heparin
- equal efficacy to heparin
- increased bioavailability for ___ site of adm (only route)
- less frequent dosing (1-2x daily); ___ t1/2 than heparin
- no monitoring of ___ needed

A

dalteparin
enoxaparin
- depolymerization
- equal
- SQ
- longer
- clotting

36
Q

Advantages of LMWH

more ___ pharmacokinetic profile
- good bioavailability from ___ injection site
- less ___ binding/more ___ dosing
- ___ t1/2 (fewer inj)
- ___ incidence of HIT/osteoporosis

A

predictable
- SQ
- protein, uniform
- longer
- lower

37
Q

UFH - Heparin Summary

routes of administration: ___ and ___

advantages
- ___ onset and clearance
- anticoagulation effect easily ___
- ok in ___ failure
- can be rapidly reversed with ___

disadvantages
- frequent ___ required
- HIT

A
  • IV, SQ
  • rapid
  • monitored
  • renal
  • protamine
  • monitoring
38
Q

LMWH - Heparin Summary

examples: ___ and ___
routes of administration: ___ only
advantages:
- ___ duration of action when administered ___ (as compared to heparin)
- monitoring is generally ___

disadvantages:
- relatively contraindicated in ___ failure
- unknown optimal dosing in morbidly ___ patients
- if monitoring is needed, it requires an ___ level (less available than aPTT)
- HIT (mixed data on whether risk is equal to or lower compared to UFH)

A

dalteparin, enoxaparin
SQ
- longer, SQ
- unnecessary
- renal
- obese
- anti-factor Xa

39
Q

Factor Xa Inhibitor

Fondaparinux Sodium
- synthetic sulfated pentasaccharide
- mechanism: indirectly inhibits factor Xa by selectively binding ___
- route of administration: ___, can be given at home
- t1/2 ~ 17-21 hrs - can be given ___ daily
- predicatable PK and dose response; does not require monitoring

A
  • anti-thrombin
  • SQ
  • once
40
Q

Factor Xa Inhibitor

Fondaparinux sodium
Use:
- venous thromboembolism: acute ___ and ___
- ___ in patients undergoing hip fracture surgery, hip replacement, knee replacement or abdominal surgery

Low potential for ___
- action not reversed by ___

A
  • DVT, PE
  • prophylaxis
  • HIT
  • protamine sulfate
41
Q

DOACs/NOACs

Direct Factor Xa Inhibitors (4)

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

A

direct factor Xa inhibitors
- rivaroxaban
- apixaban
- edoxaban
- betrixaban

direct thrombin inhibitors
- dabigatran

42
Q

orally available factor Xa inhibitors - rivaroxaban and apixaban

  • rivaroxaban t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs
  • apixaban t1/2 = __ hrs
  • treatment and prevention: ___ and ___
  • prevention of thrombosis in non-valvular ___
  • dose reduction with impaired ___ function
  • risk of ___ and ___ in patients undergoing spinal puncture or epidural anesthesia
  • increased risk of ___ upon discontinuation
  • fixed dosing, monitoring not required
A
  • 5-9 hrs
  • 12 hrs
  • VT, PE
  • A-fib
  • renal
  • hematoma, paralysis
  • thrombosis
43
Q

orally available factor Xa inhibitors - edoxaban (Savaysa)

  • t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs
  • treatment of ___ and ___ after 5-10 days with parenteral anticoagulant
  • prevention of thrombosis in NV ____
  • not used in patients with CrCl > ___ mL/min
  • increased risk of ___ events upon premature discontinuation
  • risk of ___ and ___ in patients undergoing spinal puncture or epidural anesthesia
  • fixed dose, anticoagulation monitoring not required
A
  • 10-14
  • VT, PE
  • A-fib
  • 95 mL/min
  • ischemic
  • hematoma, paralysis

cant use this drug if your kidneys work too well

44
Q

orally available factor Xa inhibitors - betrixaban (Bevyxxa)

  • t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs
  • prevention of ___ in hospitalized patients at risk
  • dose reduction in patients with severe ___ impairment
  • avoid in patients with moderate to severe ___ impairment
  • fixed dose, no monitoring of coagulation required
  • risk of ___ and ___ in patients undergoing spinal puncture or epidural anesthesia
  • increased risk of ___ events upon premature discontinuation
A
  • 19-27 hrs
  • VTE
  • renal
  • hepatic
  • hematoma, paralysis
  • ischemic
45
Q

Antidote for Factor Xa inhibitors

Andexanet - reversal agent of Xa inhibitors ___ and ___.
- Recombinant protein that mimics factor ___. It can bind drug, but lacks enzymatic activity.
- under investigation or use with ___ and ___
- given ___ to patients with uncontrolled or life threatening bleeding
- black box warning: increased risk for ___ events

A
  • apixaban, rivaroxaban
  • Xa
  • edoxaban, enoxaparin
  • IV
  • thromboembolic
46
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors (DTI): Mechanism

  • DTIs can bind to the ___ site of thrombin, to ___ of thrombin, or both
  • DTIs can inhibit both ___ and ___ bound thrombin
  • direct thrombin inhibitors can also reduce platelet ___
A
  • active, exosite
  • soluble, fibrin
  • aggregation
47
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

non-heparinoid parenteral agents - do not act through ___. Inhibit ___ thrombin and ___ thrombin

___ - peptide from saliva gland of medicinal leach

A
  • AT-III
  • free
  • fibrin bound
  • Hirudin
48
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

Lepirudin (Refludan)
- recombinant hirudin grown in yeast
- ___ protein (65 amino acids), given ___
- highly ___ direct inhibitor of thrombin ( ___ binding at active aite and exosite 1)
- inhibition of thrombin is ___
- ___ values increase dose-dependently
- can produce ___ reactions
- excreted via the ___
- treatment of ___

A
  • small, IV
  • specific, bivalent
  • irreversible
  • aPTT
  • hypersensitivity
  • kidney
  • HIT
49
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

Bivalirudin (Angiomax)
- ___ amino acid, synthetic peptide
- binds to the ___ site and ___ of thrombin
- Binding is ___ with ___ onset and ___ duration
- given ___ during percutaneous coronary angioplasty
- eliminated by ___ excretion
- t 1/2: ___
- low bleeding risk, doesn’t induce ___ formation

A
  • 20
  • catalytic, exosite I
  • reversible, rapid, short
  • IV
  • renal
  • 25 min
  • antibody
50
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

Argatroban
- derived from ___
- binds reversibly to the ___ site of thrombin
- does not require ___ for activity
- can ___ free and clot associated thrombin
- therapy monitored using ___
- given ___ , t1/2 ~40-50 min
- metabolized in liver (CYP ___ )
- approved treatment for ___ or coronary artery thrombosis in patients with ___
- ___ in PCI procedures

A
  • L-arginine
  • active
  • anti-thrombin
  • inhibit
  • aPTT
  • IV
  • 3A4/5
  • HIT, HIT
  • prophylaxis
51
Q

Orally administered direct thrombin inhibitor

dabigatran (Pradaxa)
- t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs
- indicated for prevention of ___ and systemic ___ in patients with non-valvular ___
- eliminated by ___ excretion - avoid in cases of severe ___ impairment
- monitoring unnecessary
- anticoagulant activity reversed by ___ IV

A
  • 12-14 hrs
  • stroke, embolism, a-fib
  • renal, renal
  • idarucizumab (Praxbind)
52
Q

Reversing the action of thrombin inhibitors

Idaruizumad (Praxbind)
- humanized monoclonal antibody that directly binds to ___ with ___ x greater affinity than thrombin
- does not bind other thrombin inhibitors such as ___ , ___ , or ___

A
  • dabigatran, 350x
  • hirudim, bivalirudin, argatroban