Antibiotic Flashcards

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1
Q

Beta lactam antibiotics

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Monobactam
Carbapenem

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2
Q

Polypeptide cell wall synthesis inhibitor

A

Vancomycin
Bacitracin
Polymixin
Gramicidin

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3
Q

DOC for MRSA and Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Vancomycin

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4
Q

Red Man Syndrome

A

Vancomycin

Others niacin, curare, Calcium channel blockers

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5
Q

MOA of Beta-lactam antibiotics:

A

Inhibits transpeptidation or cross linking of peptidoglycan chains

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7
Q

Anti-pseudomonal antibiotic

A
Ticarcillin
Piperacillin-tazobactam
Ceftazidime
Cefoperazone
Cefipime
Cefpirome
Aztreonam
Carbapenem (exc ertapenem)
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8
Q

Decreases penicillin clearance

A

Probenecid

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9
Q

Antibiotics that Antagonizes penicillin

A

Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin

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10
Q

Penicillin causing interstitial nephritis

A

Methicillin

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11
Q

All cephalosporins are renally excreted via except

A

Cefoperazone

Ceftriaxone

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12
Q

2nd gen cephalosporins for mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection

A

Cefotetan

Cefoxitin

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13
Q

DOC for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

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14
Q

Empiric treatment for meningitis, PRSP

A

Ceftriaxone

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15
Q

Cephalosporin causing cholestatic jaundice

A

Ceftriaxone

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16
Q

5th gen cephalosporins

A

Ceftaroline
Ceftobiprole

Used for MRSA

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17
Q

Broadest spectrum antibiotic

A

Carbapenem

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18
Q

Empiric therapy for severe infections secondary to drug resistant organisms

A

Carbapenem

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19
Q

Inhibits renal dihydropeptidase I

A

Cilastatin

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20
Q

Side effect of imipenem-cilaststin

A

CNS!

Seizure, confusion, encephalopathy

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21
Q

Side effect of aztreonam

A

GI upset with superinfection

Vertigo

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22
Q

Inhibits n-acetylmuramic acid formation

A

Fosfomycin

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23
Q

Vancomycin resistant enterococci and staphylococci

A

Daptomycin
Linezolid
Tigecycline
Streptogramin

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24
Q

30S inhibitor

A

Aminoglycoside- blocks formation of initiation complex, inhibits translocation

Tetracycline- blocks tRNA binding to acceptor site

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25
Q

50S Inhibitor

A

Inhibits transpeptidation:
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (macrolides)
Lincosamide (clindamycin)

Lincosamide- inhibits initiation
Streptogramin- blocks exit of nascent polypeptide

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26
Q

All protein synthesis inhibitors are STATIC except

A

Aminoglycoside

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27
Q

Exhibits concentration dependent killing and post-antibiotic effect

A

Aminoglycoside

Fluoroquinolones

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28
Q

Aminoglycoside used in enterococcal carditis, TB, plague

A

Streptomycin

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29
Q

Most ototoxic aminoglycoside

A

Amikacin

Kanamycin

30
Q

Most vestibulotoxic aminoglycoside

A

Tobramycin

Gentamicin

31
Q

Most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside (acute tubular necrosis)

What other drugs cause ATN?

A

Gentamicin, tobramycin

Amphotericin
Cephalosporin
Vancomycin

32
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotic with activity against intracellular bacteria, spirochetes, and mycoplasma

A

Tetracycline

33
Q

Tetracycline absorption inhibited by

A

Food

Multivalent cations

34
Q

Excretion of doxycycline

A

Feces

35
Q

DOC leptospirosis, lyme disease, amebiasis

Alternative for chlamydia, cholera

A

Doxycycline

36
Q

Antibiotic used for ADH secreting tumors

A

Demeclocycline

37
Q

Side effect of tetracycline

A

Fanconi syndrome
Vestibular toxicity
Photosensitivity (demeclocycline)

38
Q

Contraindicated in pregnancy since it deposits in fetal bones and teeth

A

Tetracycline

39
Q

Contraindicated in children since it causes tooth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

40
Q

Doxycycline + isotretinoin

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

41
Q

Gray baby syndrome

Aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

42
Q

Most common drug associated with Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

Others: penicillin, cephalosporins

43
Q

DOC for atypical pneumonia and mycobacterium avium cellulare

A

Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin)

44
Q

Causes eosinophilia, acute cholestatic hepatitis

A

Erythromycin

45
Q

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

A

Sulfamethoxazole

46
Q

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim

Methotrexate

47
Q

Burn antibiotics

Which of tue following penetrates eschars?

A

Silver sulfadiazine

Mafenide- penetrates eschars

48
Q

All penicillins are excreted in the urine except

A

Ampicillin

Nafcillin

49
Q

DOC for syphilis and RF/RHD

A

Benzathine penicillin

50
Q

Side effect of sulfonamides

A

Kernicterus (tx: phenobarbital)
SJS
Hemolysis (G6PD Deficiency)
Crystalluria

51
Q

Top 3 causes of SJS

A

Co-trimixazole
Anticonvulsant
Allopurinol

52
Q

Drugs that causes hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

Sulfonamides
Anti-malarials
Dapsone

53
Q

Inhibits topoisomerase II

A

Fluoroquinolones

54
Q

All fluoroquinolones are excreted renally except

A

Moxifloxacin

55
Q

Respiratory fluoroquinolone

A

3rd gen: levooxacin, gemifloxacin, moxifloxacin

56
Q

Contraindicated in pregnant patients and children since it is toxic to cartillage

A

Fluoroquinolones

57
Q

Absorption of fluoroquinoles is decreased by

A

Multivalent cations

58
Q

Nitrofurantion can eliminated urinary tract pathogens except

A

Proteus and pesudomonas

59
Q

Releases cytotoxic products when bacterial ferrodoxin reduces this drug’s nitro group

A

Metronidazole

60
Q

DOC for amebiasis, giardiasis, bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

61
Q

Metallic tases

A

Metronidazole

62
Q

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

What is its side effect?

A

Isoniazid

Peripheral neuritis (tx: pyridoxine)

63
Q

Inhibits RNA polymerase

A

Rifampicin

Red-orange secretions

64
Q

Most hepatotoxic anti-TB drug

A

Pyrazinamide

Also causes polyarthralgia

65
Q

Causes optic neuritis

A

Ethambutol

66
Q

Aminoglycoside TB drug

Used for severe TB infections

A

Streptomycin

67
Q

DOC for leprosy

A

Dapsone

68
Q

DOC for dapsone resistant leprosy

A

Clofazimine

Causes skin discoloration

69
Q

Mycobacterium avium complex prophylaxis

A

Azithromycin