Anti-infectives

Question 1

What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics?

Answer 1

They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 2

True or False: Antivirals can completely eliminate viral infections.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

Answer 3

Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit their growth.

Question 4

Name one example of a macrolide antibiotic.

Answer 4

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin.

Question 5

Fill in the blank: ______ are used to treat infections caused by protozoa.

Answer 5

Antiparasitics

Question 6

Which of the following is a common antifungal medication: A) Amoxicillin B) Fluconazole C) Aciclovir?

Answer 6

B) Fluconazole

Question 7

Name one common side effect of azole antifungal medications.

Answer 7

Liver toxicity, rash, headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, elevated liver enzymes.

Question 8

What is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic?

Answer 8

An antibiotic that is effective against a limited range of bacteria.

Question 9

Which class of antibiotics drug class is doxycycline?

Answer 9

Tetracyclines

Question 10

Fill in the blank: ______ inhibitors are used to treat HIV infections.

Answer 10

Protease

Question 11

What is the primary mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones?

Answer 11

They inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis.

Question 12

Name one example of a broad-spectrum antibiotic.

Answer 12

Amoxicillin, gentimicin, piperacillin - tazobactam.

Question 13

What does the term ‘empirical therapy’ refer to?

Answer 13

Treatment initiated before a definitive diagnosis is made, based on the most likely pathogens.

Question 14

What is the significance of the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?

Answer 14

It is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that prevents bacterial growth.

Question 15

True or False: Vaccines are considered a type of anti-infective agent.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

What is the function of aminoglycosides?

Answer 16

To inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria.

Question 17

Name one factor that can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

Answer 17

Overuse of antibiotics

Question 18

Fill in the blank: ______ is a common viral infection treated with antivirals.

Answer 18

Influenza

Question 19

What is the primary use of sulfonamides?

Answer 19

To treat bacterial infections by inhibiting folic acid synthesis.

Question 20

True or False: The use of anti-infectives can disrupt normal flora.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

What is the role of probiotics in relation to antibiotics?

Answer 21

To restore normal gut flora after antibiotic treatment.

Question 22

Name one example of an antiviral drug.

Answer 22

Oseltamivir, tenofivir, valaciclovir, aciclovir, etc.

Question 23

True or False: Antifungal resistance is a growing concern in clinical practice.

Answer 23

True

Question 24

Fill in the blank: ______ is a type of infection that requires antifungal treatment.

Answer 24

Candidiasis

Question 25

What is the role of the World Health Organization (WHO) in combating infectious diseases?

Answer 25

To coordinate global efforts to control and prevent infectious diseases.

Question 26

Name one strategy to prevent antibiotic resistance.

Answer 26

Using antibiotics only when necessary.

Question 27

True or False: All anti-infective agents are safe for use in pregnant women.

Answer 27

False

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of aminoglycosides? a) Nephrotoxicity b) Ototoxicity c) Hemorrhagic cystitis d) Vestibular toxicity

Answer 28

c) Hemorrhagic cystitis

Question 29

Aminoglycosides bind to the ________ ribosomal subunit, interfering with bacterial protein synthesis.

Answer 29

30S

Question 30

What are aminoglycosides primarily used to treat?

Answer 30

Aminoglycosides are primarily used to treat serious bacterial infections caused by Gram-negative organisms, such as Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella species.

Question 31

What is the significance of "post-antibiotic effect" in aminoglycosides?

Answer 31

The "post-antibiotic effect" refers to the continued suppression of bacterial growth after the antibiotic concentration has fallen below the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). This means that aminoglycosides can remain effective even after the drug levels decrease.

Question 32

True or False: Carbapenems are effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, but they are not useful against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Answer 32

False (Carbapenems are effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa, though resistance can occur).

Question 33

Which carbapenem is typically preferred for use in patients with a history of seizures, due to its lower risk of causing neurotoxicity? a) Imipenem b) Meropenem c) Doripenem d) Ertapenem

Answer 33

b) meropenem

Question 34

Which of the following bacteria is commonly treated with glycopeptides like vancomycin? a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Answer 34

b) Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA)

Question 35

True or False: Glycopeptides are only effective against Gram-negative bacteria.

Answer 35

False (Glycopeptides are effective against Gram-positive bacteria).

Question 36

Which of the following is a common side effect of vancomycin? a) Nephrotoxicity b) "Red man syndrome" c) Ototoxicity d) Both a and b

Answer 36

d) Both a and b

Question 37

Clindamycin is commonly used to treat infections caused by: a) Anaerobes b) Gram-negative bacilli c) Enterococci d) All of the above

Answer 37

a) Anaerobes (also has some gram-positive coverage).

Question 38

True or False: Lincosamides are not effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae infections.

Answer 38

False.

Question 39

Which of the following is a common side effect of lincosamides? a) Diarrhea b) C. difficile infection c) Hepatotoxicity d) All of the above

Answer 39

d) All of the above

Question 40

Clindamycin is often used for skin and soft tissue infections caused by ____________ species.

Answer 40

Staphylococcus or Streptococcus

Question 41

Which antibiotics are lincosamides?

Answer 41

Clindamycin and lincomycin.

Question 42

Which generation of cephalosporins is most effective against Gram-negative bacteria? a) First generation b) Second generation c) Third generation d) Fourth generation

Answer 42

c) Third generation

Question 43

True or False: First-generation cephalosporins, such as cephalexin, are primarily effective against Gram-negative organisms.

Answer 43

False (First-generation cephalosporins are more effective against Gram-positive organisms, with limited activity against Gram-negative bacteria).

Question 44

Which of the following cephalosporins is most commonly used to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? a) Cephalexin b) Cefazolin c) Ceftriaxone d) Cefepime

Answer 44

d) Cefepime

Question 45

Which generation are the cephalosporins matched with? a) Ceftaroline b) Cefepime c) Cefazolin d) Cefaclor e) Ceftriaxone

Answer 45

First Generation: Cefazolin Second Generation: Cefaclor Third Generation: Ceftriaxone Fourth Generation: Cefepime Fifth Generation: Ceftaroline

Question 46

Fill in the Blank: Macrolides, such as erythromycin and azithromycin, inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ________ ribosomal subunit.

Answer 46

50S

Question 47

Which of the following is a common indication for macrolide antibiotics? a) Treatment of infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria b) Upper respiratory infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Skin infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Infections caused by Escherichia coli

Answer 47

b) Upper respiratory infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 48

True or False: Macrolides, such as azithromycin, are often used to treat respiratory tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

Answer 48

True.

Question 49

True or False Quinolones are effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, but they are ineffective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Answer 49

False (Quinolones are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, particularly ciprofloxacin).

Question 50

Which of the following is a major side effect of quinolones? a) Tendonitis and tendon rupture b) Hepatotoxicity c) Hemolytic anemia d) Ototoxicity

Answer 50

a) Tendonitis and tendon rupture

Question 51

Which of the following infections is rifampin commonly used to treat? a) Tuberculosis b) Upper respiratory infections c) Skin infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli

Answer 51

a) Tuberculosis