anti- convulsants Flashcards

1
Q

What are neurotransmitter receptors?

A

proteins

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2
Q

What do neurotransmitter receptors match?

A

match the size & shape of a neurotransmitter

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3
Q

How are neurotransmitter receptors named?

A

named according to the transmitter they bind with

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4
Q

neurotransmitters are ______________ or ______________ depending on the type of receptor it bind to

A

inhibitory or excitatory

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5
Q

What neurotransmitters are inhibitory?

A
  • dopamine
  • serotonin
  • GABA
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6
Q

What neurotransmitters are excitatory?

A
  • acetylcholine (ACH)
  • norepinephrine
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7
Q

Where is acetylcholine (ACH) found?

A

found in CNS, PNS, & ANS

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8
Q

is ACH excitatory or inhibitory?

A

can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on the neurons secreting it

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9
Q

Is ACH excitatory or inhibitory in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

excitatory at neuromuscular junction

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10
Q

is ACH excitatory or inhibitory in the autonomic nervous system?

A

inhibitory; slows HR

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11
Q

What is serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) derived from?

A

derived from tryptophan

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12
Q

Where is serotonin primarily found?

A
  • GI tract
  • platelets
  • brainstem
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13
Q

What feeling does serotonin contribute to?

A

contributes to feeling of well being & mood regulation

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14
Q

Where is dopamine mainly located?

A

in the substantia nigra of midbrain/basal ganglia region

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15
Q

What does dopamine control?

A
  • behavior & cognition
  • volutary motor movement
  • motivation & punishment
  • reward & attention
  • memory
  • learning
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16
Q

What neuropsychiatric & voluntary motor movement disorders is dopamine involved in?

A
  • social phobia
  • ADHD
  • SUD
  • parkininsons
  • tourettes
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17
Q

What is the chief inhibitory transmitter in the CNS?

A

gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)

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18
Q

What effect does GABA have on the brain?

A

relaxing, antianxiety & aniconvulsant effect on brain

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19
Q

What effect does GABA have on the muscles?

A

inhibitory effect on muscles (decrease muscle spasm & improve tone)

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20
Q

What is norepinephrine in the brain?

A

an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

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21
Q

What is norepinephrine in the endocrine system?

A

a stress hormone within the endocrine system

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22
Q

What part of the nervous system is norepinephrine a part of?

A

sympathetic nervous system

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23
Q

what does norepinephrine play a role in?

A

plays a role in fight or flight response

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24
Q

What is glutamate a major mediator of?

A

major mediator of excitatory signal

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25
Q

What functions is glutamate involved in?

A
  • cognition
  • memory
  • learning
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26
Q

What is action potential (neuron conduct impulses)?

A
  • abrupt changes in membrane potential which permit nerve signals to be transmitted from the cell body down the axon
  • stimulated sodium, potassium, & calcium ions to move across axon membrane
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27
Q

In what state are neurons usually?

A

polarized (negatively charged state)

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28
Q

What happens when a neuron receives a signal?

A

it becomes positively charged & this increase in positive charge sens the message down the nerve

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29
Q

What are the three phases of action potential?

A
  • depolarization of the neuron = positively charged ion
  • repolarization of neuron = return of neuron to a negative value
  • resting period
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30
Q

What impulses can lead to seizures?

A

impulses that do not maintain a systematic order (excitatory, inhibitory, & rest phase become irregular & chaotic) can lead to seizures

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31
Q

What is a seizure?

A

a single episode of abnormal electrical discharge from cortical neurons that results in an abrupt & temporary altered state

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32
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

a group od syndromes characterized by unprovoked, recurrent seizures

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33
Q

What is status epillepticus?

A

continuous seizure activity for more than 5 minutes or 2 or more sequential seizures that occur without full recovery of consciousness between attacks

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34
Q

What are the common causes of seizures?

A

trauma
ETOH withdrawal
illicit drug use
brain tumor
congenital malformations
stroke
metabolic disorders
- uremia, electrolyte imbalance
alzheimers
neurodegenerative disease
idiopathic

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35
Q

What can trigger a seizure?

A
  • flashing lights
  • stress
  • certain drugs
  • metabolic changes
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36
Q

What are the 5 common causes of epilepsy?

A

genetic causes
head trauma
medical disorders
prenatal injury
developmental disorders

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37
Q

What should we know about genetic causes of epilepsy

A

> 30 mutated genes have been found in families with epilepsy
- may occur in genes coding for different things (ex. ion channels, neuronal receptors, transcription factors)
- many pediatric epilepsies are associated w/ randon gene mutation for the first time (de novo)
- about half of seizure disorders, no genetic or structural abnormality is present

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38
Q

What medical disorders can cause epilepsy?

A
  • dementia
  • meningitis
  • encephalitis
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39
Q

What developmental disorders can cause epilepsy?

A
  • autism
  • down syndrome
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40
Q

how do seizures work?

A
  • messages from the body are carried by the neurons (nerve cells) of the brain through discharges of electrochemical energy
  • these impulses occur in bursts
  • during periods of unwanted discharges, parts of the body may act erratically
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41
Q

What is needed for an actual seizure to occur?

A
  • excitable neurons
  • increased excitatory glutaminergic activity
  • reduction in activity of normal inhibitory GABa projection
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42
Q

Who can have a seizure?

A

anyone!

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43
Q

what are the two classifications of seizures?

A

focal or partial
generalized

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44
Q

what are the two kinds of focal or partial seizures?

A

simple partial
complex partial

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45
Q

What are the types of generalized seizures?

A

absence (petit mal)
tonic-clonic (grand mal)
atonic/akinetic (drop attacks)
status epilepticus

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46
Q

Where in the brain are focal seizures?

A

start 7 remain in 1 hemisphere

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47
Q

In focal seizures there are _____- ___________ burst of action potentials 7 ____________________

A

high- frequency; hypersynchronization (large number of neurons dire action potentials together)

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48
Q

what do focal seizure affect?

A

sensory & motor function
autonomic sx
automatism

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49
Q

What are the autonomic sx of focal seizures?

A

due to stimulation of ANS
- pallor
- sweating
- pupillary dilation
- epigastric sensation

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50
Q

What is automatism?

A

coordinated involuntary movements occuring during state of impaired consciousness either during or after seizure. Pt is unaware, often associated with temporal seizures

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51
Q

Is pt aware or unaware in focal seizures?

A

awareness can be maintained or lost

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52
Q

do pts have aura with focal seizures?

A

some may experience a warming sensation before seizure

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53
Q

What are characteristics of focal seizures when pt retains awareness?

A
  • no impairment of consciousness
  • similar to partial seizures
  • may have movement of body parts
  • may experience an aura
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54
Q

What are characteristics of a focal seizure when awareness is altered?

A
  • impairment of consciousness
  • spreads to both hemispheres
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55
Q

What are characteristics of partial seizures?

A
  • begins in part of one hemisphere (typically in the temporal lobe)
  • may be simple or complex
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56
Q

In what part of the brain does a generalized seizure occur?

A
  • start in 1 hemisphere & spreads w/ involvement of both hemisphere
  • affects both hemispheres of the brain
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57
Q

do generalized seizures have motor sx?

A

may have motor and/or nonmotor sx

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58
Q

is consciousness maintained or impaired in generalized seizures?

A

impairment of consciousness

59
Q

What occurs in a tonic-clonic seizure (grand mal)?

A

begin with rigid violent contractions (tonic) followed by repetitive clonic activity of all extremities; body stiffness & relaxation

60
Q

What are tonic seizures characterized by?

A
  • muscle stiffness
  • dilation of pupils
  • altered respirations
  • usually less than a minute
61
Q

what are absence seizures characterized by?

A

short episodes of staring & loss of consciousness
- last around 10 seconds

62
Q

What are myoclonic seizures characterized by?

A
  • bilateral jerking of muscles
  • no loss of consciousness
63
Q

What are atonic seizures characterized by?

A
  • sudden loss of muscle tone causing a person to collapse or drop to the ground
64
Q

is status epilepticus an emergency?

A

yes; a neurological emergency

65
Q

What does status epilepticus need?

A

requires immediate intervention because of the extreme energy expenditure & potential lack of oxygen during prolonged seizures

66
Q

how is a seizure dx?

A

H & P
neurological exam
diagnostic procedures

67
Q

What diagnostic procedures are used to dx a seizure?

A
  • chemistries/ blood work for toxins to check for drug-related causes
  • toxicology screen
  • CT/MRI to r/o structural causes like tumors
  • EEG to measure brain rhythms & to capture abnormal brain activity during a seizure
68
Q

What are the three phase of a seizure?

A

pre-ictal
ictal
post-ictal

69
Q

What is the pre-ictal phase of a seizure?

A

when seizure may be started by a trigger and/or preceded by an aura

70
Q

What happens during the ictal phase of a seizure?

A
  • actual seizure
  • increases in metabolic demand
71
Q

What happens in the post-ictal phase?

A
  • has decreased responsiveness
  • feels fatigue
72
Q

What is important to do during the post-ictal phase?

A

keep pt safe & monitor their recovery

73
Q

What are anticonvulsants also known as?

A

antiepileptic drugs (AED)

74
Q

What are indications for anticonvulsants?

A
  • used for long term management of chronic epilespsy
  • management of seizures not caused by epilepsy
  • off-label uses
75
Q

What are the off-label uses for anticonvulsants?

A
  • anxiety
  • bipolar disorder
  • chronic pain
  • migraines
76
Q

What is selection of medication for tx based on?

A

classification of seizures & epilepsy
- broad spectrum
- narrow-spectrum

77
Q

What are broad spectrum anticonvulsants used for?

A

effective for tx of focal & generalized seizure

78
Q

What are narrow spectrum anticonvulsants used for?

A

used primarily for focal- onset seizures (including focal which evolve to b/l convulsive seizures)

79
Q

What are the factors that are evaluated when selecting an anticonvulsant medication?

A
  • efficacy
  • tolerability
  • presence of comorbidites
  • pharmacokinetic profile
  • potential drug-drug interactions
  • ease of use
  • cost
    -age
  • gender
80
Q

list examples of anticonvulsants that work as NA+ channel blockers?

A
  • carbamazepine
  • oxcarbazepine (trileptal)
  • eslicarbazepine
  • felbamate
  • lamotrigine
  • lacosamide ( vimpat)
  • phenytoin & fosphenytoin(IV)
  • topiramate
  • valproate
  • rufinamide
81
Q

list examples of anticonvusants that work as glutamate receptor blockers?

A
  • topiramate
  • zonisamide (zonegran)
  • perampanel
  • felbate
  • levetiracetam
  • brivaracetam (PO, IV only > 16 yo)
82
Q

list examples of anticonvusants that work as calcium channel blockers?

A
  • ethosuximide
  • gabapentin
  • lamotrigine (lamictal)
  • pregabalin
  • valproic acid
  • zonisamide
83
Q

list examples of anticonvusants that work as GABA enhancers?

A
  • benzodiazepines
  • barbiturates
  • valproic acid (depakote)
  • gabapentin
  • pregabalin
  • ethosuximide
84
Q

How do meds that block sodium channels work?

A
  • prevent return of the channel to active state; stabilizes them; inactive state
  • prevent repetitive firing
85
Q

How do meds that block calcium channels work?

A
  • calcium going in during cells resting state facilities development of an action potential
  • inhibits slow depolarization which is needed for spike-wave bursts
  • these meds help to “lock the channel”
86
Q

How do meds that enhance GABA work?

A
  • may enhance Cl- influx which makes cell more negative and harder for cell to generate action potential
  • some decrease metabolism of GABA so more is available
87
Q

How do meds that block glutamate work?

A
  • bind glutamate which is an excitatory neurotransmitter
  • glutamate receptor has 5 potential binding sites
88
Q

anticonvulsants are to __________ seizures; not ____

A

control; cure

89
Q

What is the anticonvulsant prescribed based on?

A

type of seizure

90
Q

What do many anticonvulsants require?

A

blood monitoring

91
Q

What patient education should be given related to anticonvulsants?

A
  • take as precribed
  • never stop taking on own
  • side effect management
92
Q

What class is phenytoin a part of?

A

sodium channel blocker

93
Q

How does phenytoin work?

A
  • works to stabilize the neurons from becoming too excited
  • stops the spread of seizure activity in the motor cortex
94
Q

phenytoin is _______ (90%) protein- bound meaning it has a higher risk for ______ _____________

A

highly; drug interactions

95
Q

What are indications for Phenytoin?

A

tonic- clonic seizures
status epilepticus
prophylaxis for surgery

96
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20mcg/ml; very narrow therapeutic range

97
Q

What should you monitor in pts taking phenytoin?

A

peak & troughs

98
Q

What are the routes of administration for phenytoin?

A

PO, IM, & IV

99
Q

What are precautions for giving IV phenytoin?

A
  • infuse over 30-60 minutes
  • can be very irritating to veins
100
Q

What should you do for those taking phenytoin & on tube feeds?

A

need to stop tube feed for 2 hrs before & after giving med

101
Q

What are the side effects of phenytoin?

A

neurologic
- drowsiness
- ataxia
- irritability
- visual problems
- peripheral neuropathy
- N/V
- headache
cardiovascular
- hypotension
- arrhythmias
skin
- rash
- steven- johnsons syndrome
other
- suicidal thoughts
- gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth)

102
Q

How does phenobarbital work?

A

inactivates fast sodium channels leading to enhanced GABA effects & decreased glutamate release

103
Q

What class is phenobarbital in?

A

barbiturates

104
Q

What is the half-life of phenobarbital?

A

very long half-life

105
Q

What are the side effects of phenobarbital?

A
  • sedation
  • respiratory depression
  • diplopia (double vision)
  • cognitive skill impairment
  • hypotension
  • hyperactivity & inattention in children
106
Q

What can phenobarbital cause?

A

physical dependence

107
Q

What is carbamazepine’s mechanism of action similar to?

108
Q

What class does carbamazepine belong to?

A

sodium channel blockers

109
Q

What types of seizures is carbamazepine used for?

A
  • used for several different types of seizures
  • drig of choice for partial & generalized tonic-clonic seizures
  • avoid in absence or myoclonic seizures as it may worsen them
110
Q

Carbamazepine inhibits the spread of __________ activity

111
Q

Where should carbamazepine be kept?

A

needs to be kept in a dry location (not a bathroom)

112
Q

for what disorders is carbamazepine used off-label?

A
  • trigeminal neuralgia
  • bipolar disorder
113
Q

What does carbamazepine interact with?

A

oral contraceptives; reducing their effectiveness

114
Q

What labs should be performed when taking carbamazepine?

A

CBC (esp. WBC)
drug levels
sodium
CBC
LFTs
BUN/Cr (esp in those with renal impairment)

115
Q

What is the therapuetic level of carbamazepine?

A

4-12 mcg/ml

116
Q

What are side effects of carbamazepine?

A
  • rash
  • steven johnson syndrome
  • increased SI
  • headache
  • diplopia
  • ataxia
  • drowsiness
  • sedation
  • N/V
  • hyponatremia
  • decreased blood counts (neutropenia & thrombocytopenia)
117
Q

should carbamazepine be taken with or without food?

A

take with food

118
Q

What should you never do when taking carbamazepine?

A

stop abruptly

119
Q

oxycarbazepine has the same efficacy as _________________, but is better tolerated

A

carbamazepine

120
Q

What does oxycarbazepine work as?

A

a sodium channel blocker

121
Q

When is oxycarazepine used?

A

used as adjunctive therapy or monotherapy for partial seizures in children & adults

122
Q

With what seizures should oxycarbazepine not be used?

A

absence & myoclonic because it may worsen them

123
Q

oxycarbazepine decreases efficacy of _____ _______________

A

oral contraceptives

124
Q

What can oxycarbazepine increase the risk of?

A

suicidal ideations

125
Q

How does valproic acid/ valproate work?

A

inactivation of fast sodium channels; GABA enhancer

126
Q

What are the indications for valproic acid?

A
  • absence seizures
  • myoclonic seizures
  • tonic-clonic seizures
  • partial seizures
  • neonatal seizures
127
Q

When is valproic acid used off-label?

A

used to contol sx of acute mania in bipolar disorder

128
Q

What can valproic acid be given with?

129
Q

What are the side effects of valproic acid?

A
  • N/V
  • sedation/ dizziness
  • pancreatitis
  • increased ammonia levels
  • thrombocytopenia (monitor CBC)
  • suicidal thoughts
  • liver toxicity
130
Q

What should you monitor with a pt on valproic acid?

A

monitor CBC
monitor LFTs
check therapeutic levels

131
Q

What is the therapeutic level of valproic acid?

A

50-100 mcg/ml; narrow therapeutic range

132
Q

Should valproic acid be taken with or without food?

A

taken with food

133
Q

How should IV valproic acid be given?

A
  • must be diluted with at least 50ml NSS or D5W
  • give over an hour (no more than 20mg/min)
134
Q

What should you avoid with valproic acid?

A

avoid sudden withdrawal

135
Q

How does gabapentin work?

A

thought to act on calcium channels to decrease glutamate & increase GABA in the brain

136
Q

What are indications for gabapentin?

A

partial seizures
new onset epilepsy

137
Q

with what seizures should gabapentin not be given?

A

myoclonic seizures; may worsen them

138
Q

What are the off- label uses for gabapentin?

A
  • chronic neuropathic pain
  • anxiety
  • hot flashes/night sweats
  • headaches
  • hiccups
  • alcohol withdrawal
139
Q

What are the side effects of gabapentin?

A
  • fatigue (often given at night)
  • mental cloudiness
  • leukopenia
  • edema
  • weight gain
  • emotional lability
  • tremors
  • GI side effects
  • suicidal thoughts
140
Q

What should you do for renal patients taking gabapentin?

A

reduce dose in renal patients

141
Q

when should gabapentin be used cautiously?

A

cautious use in those with an addiction history

142
Q

Do you need to monitor drug levels for gabapentin?

143
Q

how should you stop gabapentin?

A

withdrawal slowly

144
Q

When will gabapentin doses be very high?

A

doses will be very high for pain control