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ANS Flashcards

1
Q

efferents from spinal cord to 1st ganglion

A

pre-gangionic fibre

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2
Q

Describe the general model of the SNS

A
  1. motor output to the SNS descends from the brain OR input from afferent (the body) synpases on neurons in the intermediolateral cell column (gray matter)
  2. SNS neurons send efferent axons through the white rami communicates to paravertebral ganglion
  3. within the paravertebral ganglion, the axon can:
    - synapses within paravertebral at that level
    - continue to another paravertebral at a different spinal level
    - pass through the paravertebral ganlion and continue to a prevertbral ganlion and synpase there
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3
Q

efferents from gangion to target organ

A

post-ganglionic fibre

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4
Q

where is the SNS found?

A

Found in lamina VII of the
thoracic and upper lumbar
spinal cord

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5
Q

what pathways also impact the activity of neurons in the intermediolateral horn/column

A

reflex pathways

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6
Q

describe option one of SNS

A

synapses on a neuron in the paravertebral ganglion at that same spinal level

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7
Q

what does option one control

A

Model is typical of sympathetic inputs to skin, blood vessels at that spinal level

also some of the inputs to the heart and lungs

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8
Q

describe option 2

A

synapses on a neuron in a paravertebral ganglion at a different spinal level

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9
Q

what ganglia receive fibres from the upper thoracic inter mediolateral horn:

A

cervical ganglia

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10
Q

Superior cervical ganglion = level
Middle cervical ganglion =
Inferior cervical ganglion =

A

superior = C1-C4
middle = C5-C6
inferior = C7-C8

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11
Q

The _______ cervical ganglion fuses with fibres from the first
thoracic ganglion to form the stellate ganglion

A

inferior

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12
Q

Middle + stellate – SNS input to:

A

heart, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

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13
Q

_______ cervical ganglion – SNS
input to the cranial nerves. Which cranial nerves?

A

Superior
- nerves travel along blood vessels and often join the parasympathetic fibres of cranial nerves

CN III, VII, IX, X

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14
Q

The heart and lungs receive inputs from “Option __” and “Option __” gray
ramii

A

1 and 2
forms web-like cardiac and pulmonary plexuses that innervate these structures

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15
Q

Long ciliary nerves → SNS input to ______

A

pupil
- cause pupillary dilation
-accompany short ciliary nerves for cranial nerve 3

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16
Q

SNS input tends to make tears, saliva _____ “watery”, more “mucus-y”

A

less watery
CN VII, IX

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17
Q

describe option 3

A

passes through the paravertebral ganglion (no synapse) → synapses on a prevertebral ganglion

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18
Q

greater splanchnic nerve →

A

celiac ganglion (T5 – T9)

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19
Q

lesser splanchnic nerve →

A

superior mesenteric ganglia,
aorticorenal ganglia (T10 – T11)

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20
Q

least splanchnic nerve →

A

renal plexus/ganglia (T12)

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21
Q

lumbar & sacral splanchnic nerves→

A

inferior mesenteric ganglia,
plexuses to pelvic and lower abdominal organs (L1 – L2)

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22
Q

The sympathetic nervous system has ____ pre-ganglionic fibres and _____ post-ganglionic fibres

A

short pre ganglionic
long post ganglionic

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23
Q

Sympathic nervous system has neuronal cell bodies in the ___________ horn of ___to___

A

Neuronal cell bodies in the intermediolateral horn of T1
– L2

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24
Q

SNS: ____-ganglionic fibres can be white rami communicantes
from the spinal cord or splanchnic nerves

A

Pre-ganglionic fibres

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25
Parasympathetic nervous system has ____ pre-ganglionic fibres and ____ post-ganglionic fibres
long pre short post
26
PNS: neuronal cell bodies in the ______ or _____ spinal levels
in the brainstem (cranial nerve nuclei) or sacral spinal levels
27
the PNS has ____ prevertebral or postvertebral ganglia
NO prevertebral or postvertebral ganglia
28
PNS: Edinger-Westphal nucleus (midbrain) → ciliary ganglion
controls Pupillary constriction (CN III)
29
Superior salivatory nucleus (pons) → sphenopalatine ganglion
controls Lacrimal gland, nasal mucous secretions (CN VII):
30
Superior salivatory nucleus (pons) → submandibular ganglion controls
Sublingual, submaxillary salivary glands (CN VII):
31
Inferior salivatory nucleus (medulla) → otic ganglion controls
Parotid salivary glands (CN IX):
32
Salivary & lacrimal secretion is mainly under ____________ nervous system control
parasympathetic
33
more saliva, more watery, more digestive enzymes
PNS
34
less fluid, more “sticky” saliva
SNS
35
what cranial nerve is responsible for most parasympathetic output
the vagus
36
the vagus: Longest course of any cranial nerve – leaves through jugular foramen and descends alongside the
carotid arteries
37
Vagus nerve: Forms anterior and posterior trunks at the stomach and divides to supply plexuses in the abdominal cavity, all the way to the left _____
(distal) colon
38
Basic PaNS Anatomy – Sacral Efferents bodies are found
in S2 – S4 levels
39
PaNS sacral efferents travel with pelvic splanchnic nerves to supply: (3)
▪ the rectum ▪ bladder ▪ male and female reproductive organs
40
main receptors and neurotransmitter for SNS Preganglionic
Nicotinic and acetylcholine
41
main receptors and neurotransmitters for SNS Postganglionic
Neurotransmitters: Norepinephrine (+ Epinephrine in adrenal medulla) Receptors: Adrenergic Alpha and Beta
42
Receptors and Neurotransmitter PaNS Preganglionic
Acetylcholine Nicotinic
43
Receptors and Neurotransmitter PaNS Postganglionic
Neurotransmitter Acetylcholine Receptors: Muscarinic
44
Notable exceptions for SNS postganglionic
Acetylcholine in skin Adrenal glands don’t have post-ganglionic innervation… they “are” the ganglion
45
Is preganglionic myelinated or non-myelinated?
preganglionic = myelinated postganglionic = nonmyelinated
46
where is SNS preganglionic located? where is postganglionic?
pre: Intermediolateral column, T1 – L3 post: Prevertebral and paravertebral
47
where is PaNS preganglionic located? where is postganglionic?
pre: Brainstem nuclei & sacral segments post: Small ganglia in walls of viscera
48
Increases glucose availability (gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis) Increases blood flow to skeletal muscles, heart Decreases blood flow to GI tract, skin, kidneys Reduced contraction of bladder, contraction of urethral sphincter Major neurotransmitters: epinephrine and norepinephrine
“Fight or Flight” = SNS
49
the sympathetic nervous system tends to supply visceral AND “non-visceral” organs. What do non visceral organs include?
* Skin (blood vessels, glands) * Skeletal muscles (blood vessels, general metabolism)
50
Bronchoconstriction and increased mucous secretion Increases digestive function and GI motility Increased blood flow to external genitalia Major neurotransmitter: acetylcholine
“Rest and digest”
51
the parasympathetic nervous system has relatively little impact on blood vessels outside of:
the GI system the reproductive system
52
Acetylcholine is synthesized in _________ nerve terminals and then stored in vesicles
presynaptic
53
Acetyl-CoA + Choline ----------------> what enzyme?
Acetylcholine Enzyme: choline acetyltransferase
54
After it is secreted into the synapse, it’s degraded by ___________. What is it degrade to?
acetylcholinesterase Degraded to acetate and choline (choline is taken back up into the presynaptic terminal)
55
Acetylcholinesterase is widely distributed in connective tissue throughout the body and in the synapse of _________ terminals
cholinergic
56
Norepinephrine synthesis: What happens outside the vesicle?
Tyrosine -----> Dopa (hydroxylation) Dopa -----> Dopamine
57
Norepinephrine synthesis: what happens inside the vesicle?
dopamine is transported into the synaptic vesicle: Dopamine --------> Norepinephrine
58
Norepinephrine synthesis: In the adrenal medulla, most norepinephrine is converted into _________ through ________ (in the vesicle)
Norepinephrine ---> Epinephrine (methylation)
59
hormones made by your adrenal glands
Catecholamines
60
___to___ of secreted norepinephrine is taken up again into the presynaptic terminal. Is this an option for epinephrine?
50 – 80% Not an option for epinephrine, which is secreted into the bloodstream by the adrenal medulla (endocrine)
61
Norepinephrine can be broken down by _________ oxidase near the synapse
monoamine
62
Norepinephrine can also be broken down by ___________
catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) COMT is widely distributed throughout tissues
63
Both the parasympathetic _________ and sympathetic _______ outputs are important for pupillary size. However, focusing the lens is mostly under control of the _____________ system
para - constriction sympathetic - dilation parasympathetic
64
strongly stimulated by parasympathetic activity – lots of watery secretions that are rich in enzymes (when enzymes apply)
Nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastrointestinal glands:
65
The glands of the intestines are less controlled by the ____, more by the food in the ________
ANS more by the food in the lumen of the gut
66
Sweat glands are stimulated by the ____ – however, the neurotransmitter secreted is acetylcholine
SNS
67
Blood vessels: Sympathetic nervous system – vasoconstriction in most vascular beds – mediated by _____ receptors
alpha-1 receptors
68
Sympathetic nervous system: Vasodilation in others mediated by ______ receptors in skeletal muscles, heart, liver
beta-2 receptors
69
______ nervous system – very limited effect on any blood vessels outside the GI tract and reproductive organs
Parasympathetic
70
Heart: SNS– _____ receptors increase contractility (basically, force of contraction) and heart rate → increased cardiac output
Sympathetic nervous system – beta-1
71
Heart: PaNS ________ receptors decrease heart rate but have a small (negative) influence on contractility
muscarinic receptors
72
Gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, hyperglycemia with _________ nervous system stimulation
sympathetic
73
Baroreceptor reflex afferent: efferent:
afferent – baroreceptors from CNs IX and X efferent – parasympathetic and sympathetic → CN X, thoracic plexus
74
GI reflexes mediated by sensing food (whether sight/taste/smell or presence of food/secretions in the lumen) afferent: efferent:
afferent: visceral receptors from CN X efferent: CN X
75
Micturition (urination) reflex: afferents & efferents at the level of the ______ spinal cord
sacral
76
– a substance that activates a receptor when it binds to it
Agonist
77
a partial agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor but doesn’t activate it fully
Variation
78
a substance that inactivates a receptor or enzyme when it binds to it
Antagonist - Can be reversible – it will eventually “let go” of the receptor or enzyme Can be irreversible – it stays bound, and the receptor or enzyme (usually enzyme) is rendered useless
79
Alpha and beta receptors have _______ affinities for different agonists and antagonists
different
80
Reserpine – blocks VMAT → _________ of catecholamines
depletion causes a decrease in catecholamine transmission
81
Non-vesicle-mediated “leakage” of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal. Is this an increase?
Amphetamine, and tyramine - optimize the release of dopamine Increase in catecholamine transmission - make it more leaky and dopamine will escape
82
Inhibition of reuptake at the presynaptic terminal. Cocaine, selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (i.e. Effexor). increase or decrease?
increase
83
Inhibition of NT degradation. Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors (tranylcypromine). increase or decrease?
Increase catecholamine transmission
84
Inhibition of NT release due to auto-receptor activation. Clonidine is thought to be a major example. Increase or decrease?
causes a decrease in catecholamine transmission
85
Clonidine is a selective alpha-__ agonist
alpha-2 agonist
86
Acts on presynaptic terminals to reduce adrenergic transmission in the central nervous system. Sits ahead of the sympathetic nervous system.
Clonidine
87
Isoproterenol and dobutamine are mostly used in internal medicine/intensive care settings. Isoproterenol activates.... Dobutamine activities... which increases blood pressure the most
Isoproterenol: Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptors Dobutamine: activates beta-1 receptors with less beta2 receptor effect
88
Albuterol, salbutamol are inhaled selective _____ agonists
beta-2 Activate beta-2 receptors in the bronchioles
89
Phenylephrine: selective agonist for alpha-__ receptors
alpha-1 receptors The main indication is as an over-the-counter decongestant. Causes vasoconstriction and decreased secretions from the nasal mucosa (more blood = more mucous production) Can also be used IV (emergently) to increase blood pressure

BMS 100 (37 decks)

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