Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO > Animal Phys (11.1-4) > Flashcards

Animal Phys (11.1-4) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What do bones and exoskeletons do?

A

Anchor muscles and act as levers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are synovial joints

A

Capsules that surround and enclose the point of contact between two bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Three main components of synovial joints

A
  • Joint capsule: seals joints to prevent dislocation
  • Cartilage: covers bones to prevent friction
  • Synovial fluid: provides lubrication (reduces friction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Annotate the diagram of a human elbow

A

8-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do muscles do?

A

Contract to provide the force needed for movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the antagonistic nature of skeletal muscle

A

-Skeletal muscle exist in antagonistic pairs
-This enables opposing movements at a joint
-When one muscle contracts the antagonistic muscle relaxes
e.g Bicep contracts the triceps relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe antagonistic pairs of muscle in an insect leg

A

-A flexor contracts to cause the hind leg to bend and prepare the insect to push off the ground
-An extensor contracts to cause the hind leg to straighten, causing the insect to actually launch
-As one contracts the other relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are Skeletal muscles organized?

A

Skeletal muscle consists of muscular bundles surrounded by connective tissue
-Each bundle contains multiple muscle fibers, formed from fused muscle cells
-Fibres contain many myofibrils that are arranged into repeating sarcomeres

  • Sacromere < myofibrils < Fibres < bundle < muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Features of muscle Fibres

A

-Multinucleated: Fibres are formed from the fusion of individual muscle cells
-Many mitochondria: Muscle contraction requires significant ATP expenditure
-Sarcoplasmic reticulum: Internal membrane network is specialized (Ca2+)
-Myofibrils: Tubular myofibrils run the length of a fiber to cause contraction
Myofibrils are composed of actin and myosin myofilaments (estirad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Myofibrils consist of?

A

repeating contractile units called sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Sarcomeres contain?

A

-Thick myosin filaments flanked by thin actin filaments (both anchored by Z discs)
-Movement of the thin filament along the thick filament causes contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Draw a labeled diagram of the structure of a sacromere

A

1_1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are binding sites on actin in relaxed muscles blocked by?

A

regulatory protein: Tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When motor neuron sends a signal for contraction what is released and from where?

A

Calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does muscle contraction involve the sliding of?

A

Myofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Outline the contraction of muscle by sliding of actin and myosin filament

A

-ATP binds to the myosin head, breaking the cross bridge
-ATP hydrolysis causes the myosin head to swivel (change angle) THe heads store potential energy from ATP
-The myosin head binds to the next actin binding site further from the center of the sarcomere
-ADP and phosphate is released and the head pushes actin towards the centre of the sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why does muscle contraction require significant ATP expenditure

A

-ATP hydrolysis breaks the cross bridge and re-orients the myosin heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How would you detect state of muscle contraction in an electron micrograph?

A

Sliding of filaments causes the sarcomere to shorten and muscle contracts
-Light bands become narrower, whereas dark bands stay the say

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What nitrogenous waste does aquatic animals excrete

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What nitrogenous waste does birds and reptiles excrete

A

Uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What nitrogenous waste products does mammals excrete

A

Urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do amphibians release ammonia

A

As larva and release urea after metamorphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the flow of energy regarding nitrogenous I waste?

A

Requires energy to convert ammonia into urea, and even more to uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the benefit of uric acid?

A

It is water insoluble, can be expelled without water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two ways animals maintain water balance?

A

Osmoconformers
Osmoregulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Osmoconformers

A

Match their osmolality to the environment
-Requires less energy to achieve osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are osmoregulators

A

-Maintain a constant internal osmolarity
-provides independence from environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a Hemolymph

A

Characteristics of tissue fluid and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Outline the Malpighian Tubule system

A

Insects have a fluid circulatory system called the hemolymph (like blood system in humans)

  • The hemolymph is connected to the digestive tract and branches from the stomach as Malpighian tubes collecting nitrogenous wastes and water
  • Tubules carries these products to the gut combining with digestive products.
  • Solutes water and salts are reabsorbed into the hemolymph at the hindgut, bu the nitrogenous wastes are defecated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Draw a labelled diagram of the human kidney

A

-Cortex
-Medulla
-Renal artery
-Renal Vein
Renal pelvis
-Ureter
Check the note for the functions and drawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Draw a labelled diagram of the nephron

A

Glmerulus+Bowman’s Capsule
Convoluted Tubules (proximal/distal)
Loop of Henle+Collecting duct
Vasa Recta (blood network)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 key processes via which nephrons excrete waste and regulate water levels

A

-Ultrafiltration: Blood is filtered at the Bowman’s capsule to form a filtrate
-Selective reabsorption: Usable content is reabsorbed by convoluted tubules
-osmoregulation- Salt gradient is established in the medulla to retain water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

High pressure in capillaries of the glomerulus force what fluid out?

A

Glomerular filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define Utrafiltration?

A

Most solutes are filtered out but most proteins are not. Separation of particles differing in nanometers is called ultrafiltration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Three key components of Ultrafiltration

A

-Fenestrations: 100nm fenestrations (small holes) between cells allows fluid but not red blood cells to escape
-basement membrane (‘Filtration’): Non specifically restricts passage of large materials (cells and proteins)
-Podocytes: Creates very narrow gaps to prevent large molecules from being filtered out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the second excretory process that occurs in the nephorn

A

Selective reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where in the nephron does selective reabsorption occur

A

Proximal convoluted tubule (sometime occurs in distal tubule)
-Tubule walls are lined with microvilli and connected by tight junctions (no gaps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is actively absorbed in selective reabsorption

A

-Sodium ions actively transported from filtrate to outside the tubule
-Chloride ions follow sodium due to charge gradient of sodium ions
-Organic nutrients (glucose, amino acids) are co-transported with sodium ions
water will consequently follow the movement of the mineral ions (via passive osmosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the third Excretory process that occurs in the nephron

A

osmoregulation
(It is the control of water balance in the blood, tissue or cytoplasm of a cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Outline osmoregulation’s role in the nephron

A

-Loop of Henle establishes a high salt concentration (hypertonic) in the medulla which draws water out of the filtrate to be retained within the bloodstream
-The collecting ducts contain channels that control the amount of water retention
|this expression fo these channels (aquaporin) is regulated by hormone ADH
The amount of water retention will determine the concertation of the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what do the Loop of Henle do?

A

establish a salt gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Outline the structure and function of the loop of Henle

A

-Descending limb is permeable to water (not salts) and so the filtrate becomes more hypertonic in the medulla (water is lost)
-Ascending limb is permeable to salts (but not water) and so the filtrate becomes less hyper in the cortex (loses salt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Outline the function of the Vasa Recta

A

The blood within the vasa recta flows in an opposite direction tot he filtrate flowing in the loop of Henle
-Salts (from ascending limb) move towards medulla
-Water (from descending limb) move towards cortex

This countercurrent exchange acts to concentrate the salts within the deep medulla (ensuring it is hypertonic)
-The salt gradient serves to draw water (via osmosis) from the collecting ducts (controls water retention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the length of loop of Henle determine?

A

Salt gradient and influences water conservation
(larger salt gradient means more water reabsorbed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the length of the loop of Henle in aquatic animals?

A

short (less reabsorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the length of the loop of Henle in desert animals?

A

Long (more reabsorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does release of ADH do?

A

Increase the permeability of the ducts to water and therefore increases the reabsorption of water into bloodstream

48
Q

What does dehydration do?

A

will lower blood pressure and inhibit sweating [lethargy]

49
Q

what does overhydration do?

A

may cause tissue damage 9 due to cell swelling) [Headache]

50
Q

Composition of Blood in the real artery is different from that in the renal vein

A

memorize the chart in the note 0_0

51
Q

presence of what in urine indicates disease and why?

A

Kidney is suppose to prevent excretion of some materials
-Glucose: diabetes
-Proteins: Kidney damage
-Blood cells: Infections or cancer
-Drugs/toxin: drug use

52
Q

what is Hemodialysis

A

Involves external filtering of the blood, removed and pumped through a dialyzer

53
Q

What is kidney transplant

A

involve the replacement of a defective kidney with one from a genetic match

54
Q

What causes kidney failure?

A

Untreated kidney diseases

55
Q

What is Gametogenesis

A

Process by which haploid sex cells (gametes) are formed
-In males, the process is called spermatogenesis and produces spermatozoa
-In females, the process is called oogenesis and produces ova (eggs)

56
Q

Where does Gametogenesis occur

A

In gonads

57
Q

Outline the process of gametogenesis

A

-Multiple mitotic divisions and cell growth of precursor germ cells
-Two meiotic divisions (meiosis I and II) to produce haploid daughter cells
-differentioation of the haploid daughter cells to produce functional gametes

58
Q

Where does Spermatogenesis occur?

A

In the seminiferous tubules of the testes (male gonads)

59
Q

How many gametes are produced per germ cell which differentiate into sperm

A

Four

60
Q

Duration of Spermatogenesis

A

Continuous (slows with age)

61
Q

Annotate a diagram of seminiferous tubule and ovary to show the stages of Gametogenesis

A

-Sertoli cell
-Basement membrane
-Spermatogonia 2n
-1 Spermatocyte 2n
-2 Spermatocyte n
-Spermatid n

62
Q

Where does oogenesis begin?

A

In the ovaries of a female fetus

63
Q

what happens to germ cells in Oogenesis?

A

Divide by mitosis

64
Q

Outline the process of Oogenesis

A

-germ cells grow and divide by mitosis and a single layer of cells grow around them called follicle cells, to form a primary follicle. No further development occurs until puberty.
-Primary follicles are released during menstruation and one can develop into the mature follicle containing the secondary oocyte

65
Q

Annotate the diagram of Ovaries

A

THERE IS SO MUCH CONTENT

66
Q

Contrast Spermatogenesis and oogenesis

A

Occurs in testes———————Occurs in Ovaries
4 gametes (sperm)——————1 Gamete (ovum) plus 3 polar bodies
Equal division of cells—————-Unequal division of cytoplasm
Occurs continuously——————–Occurs in stages
Lifelong process infinite—————-Ends at Menopause (finite)

67
Q

Annotate Sperm

A

I am forgetting all the contents!!!

68
Q

Annotate Egg (Animal phys)

A

he stabs him

69
Q

What is Fertilization (animal phys)

A

the fusion of egg and sperm to form a diploid zygote

70
Q

External Fertilization of animals

A

Aquatic Animals release gametes directly into water with many risks such as predation, temperature, pH and Pollution

71
Q

Internal Fertilization of Animals

A

Zygotes protected from environment inside the mother. Terrestrial animals releasing gametes into environment would dry out

72
Q

How is Polyspermy prevented?

A

Acrosome reaction
|To enter the egg, sperm must penetrate the glycoprotein coat (Zona Pellucida)
-The perm binds to zona pellucida
-The acrosome cap releases enzymes which soften the glycoprotein matrix

Penetration of the Egg membrane
|The acrosome reaction exposes an area of the membrane at the tip fo the sperm that has proteins to bind to the egg membrane
-The first sperm through the zona pellucida can then fuse with the egg and transfer its nucleus

Cortical Reaction
|The cortical reaction occurs once the sperm has penetrated the egg in order to to prevent polyspermy
-Cortical granules release enzymes that act to destroy sperm binding proteins on the jelly coat
-Enzymes also thicken and harden the glycoprotein matrix of the jelly coat

73
Q

What happens to a zygote post fertilization

A

-undergoes multiple equal mitotic division to form a morula
-Unequal division of the morula will result in the formation fo the bastocyst

74
Q

What happens to Blastocyst after 7 days

A

The zona pellucida breaks down and the outer blastocyst develops cilia to implant itself onto the uterus lining (implantation)
the blastocyst exchanges material with the mother’s blood and grows + develops

75
Q

What happens to blastocyst after 8 weeks

A

Bone tissue forms and the embryo is considered a fetus and soon visible male or female

76
Q

Role of HCG in early preg

A

Early pregnancy embryo produces HCG which stimulates the corpus Luteum within the ovary to keep producing progesterone and estrogen

77
Q

What do the Placenta do

A

Nourishes a developing embryo

78
Q

What is the Placenta made of

A

Fetal tissue in contact with maternal tissues in uterine wall

79
Q

Festus also forms what to support and protect the developing fetus

A

Ammonitic sac which contains amniotic fluids

80
Q

What do the Pacental villus do?

A

Increases in number during pregnancy to cope increasing demands
Extent into intervillous spaces and exchange material between the mum and fetus

81
Q

Where does the Meteranl Blood flow

A

in the Intervillous space

82
Q

What separates maternal and fetal blood

A

Placental barrier made of cells

83
Q

Is the placenta Selectively permeable?

A

True

84
Q

What doe mum give the fetus

A

oxygen, Nutrients, Vitamins and antibodies

85
Q

What do the Fetus give the mum

A

Wastes (carbon dioxide, urea) & dissapointment
water flows in both direction mum and fetus

86
Q

What do the Fetus give the mum

A

Wastes (carbon dioxide, urea) & disappointment
water flows in both direction mum and fetus

87
Q

What is the Placenta responsible for?

A
88
Q

What Happens to the placenta after 9 weeks

A

Takes over hormone production form the corpus luteum

89
Q

What happens if the Placenta fails to overthrow the Corpus Luteum

A

Miscarriage

90
Q

Relationship between mass and gestation period

A

Bigger the size longer the preg, so positive correlation

91
Q

What happens when Progesterone inhibits oxytocin secretion

A

inhibits the contractions of the muscular outer wall of the uterus the myometrium

92
Q

Outline Birth controlled by positive feed back loop

A

-Oxytocin simulates myometrium to contract
-Detected by stretch receptors and send signals to the brain
-Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary
-Oxytocin causes myometrium to contract which further stretches the uterine walls

93
Q

What do unique molecular marker on cells of multicellular organisms do?

A

Identify the cells as being part of the organism

94
Q

Examples of Molecular markers on cells

A

-Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins on all nucleated human cells
-ABO blood group system present on red blood cells (no nucleated)

95
Q

What does the ABO blood system mean?

A

Certain protein markers present on red blood cells that makes blood (A, B, AB, O) types

96
Q

What is Humoral Immunity

A

The targeting of external antigens by B lymphocytes
-B lymphocytes will produce antibodies that are specific to the given antigen

97
Q

How are B lymphocytes activated?

A

-Innate immune cells engulf pathogens and present antigens to T Hcells
-Activated T Hcells release cytokines to trigger the right B lymphocyte

98
Q

What is Clonal selection?

A

Only B cells that make antibodies specific to an antigen activate

99
Q

Outline the activation of B cells

A

Activated B cells divide and multiply to form many clones
-Most clones turn into short lived plasma cells
-A small amount develop into long living memory cells

100
Q

How does Antibodies destroy pathogens?

A

-Opsonization: pathogens made more recognizable
-Agglutination: Pathogens become clumped
-Neutralization: Pathogenic regions blocked
|Pathogens: prevents viruses from docking to cells
|Toxins: Prevents toxins from binding to cells
-Complement Activation: Compliment proteins bind to pathogens and poke a hole spilling its guts

101
Q

How does long term immunity work?

A

Long term immunity depends on the persistence of memory cells
-Memory cells react faster and with greater potency to a reinfection
-Disease symptoms do not develop upon re exposure

102
Q

Modes of Transmission

A

-Direct contact
-Exchange of Bodily fluids 0_0
-Contamination
-Airborne
-Animals (Zoonosis)

103
Q

What are vaccines

A

Weakened forms of pathogens that triggers an immune response but does not cause the disease

104
Q

How does Vaccines work?

A

–Triggers a primary immune response, producing memory cells
–When exposed to the pathogen a secondary immune response is initiated
–The more potent response prevents the development of disease

105
Q

What is a vaccines duration of effect depended on?

A

Survival of memory cells

106
Q

What can be done to replenish memory cells?

A

Booster shots

107
Q

How can Non-vaxxed individuals be protected

A

Herd immunity

108
Q

What is an Epidemic?

A

Increased number of infection within a given region

109
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

Epidemics that has spread across a large geographical area

110
Q

What was the first infectious disease in humans eradicated

A

Small Pox

111
Q

What does Histamines do?

A

Dilation of blood vessels in infected areas to increase the blood flow and recruit white blood cells

112
Q

What secretes Histamines?

A

-Whiteblood cells in response to infections

113
Q

What causes Allergic symptoms

A

Histamines

114
Q

What are Monoclonal antibodies

A

Antibodies that are artificially derived from a lone B cell clone

115
Q

How are Monoclonal Antibodies produced

A

-An animal is injected with an antigen to produce antigen specific plasma cells
-Plasma cells are fused with tumor cells capable of infinite divisions
-Resulting Hybridoma cells produce endless amounts of monoclonal antibodies

116
Q

Diagnostic use of Monoclonal antibodies

A

preg test
-hCG and monoclonal antibodies are used in a process called ELISA

BIO (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions