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Vet3 > Animal care, pharmacology and surgery > Flashcards

Animal care, pharmacology and surgery Flashcards

1
Q

importance of patient history and client interaction

A

foundations on which sound medical and nursing interventions are based. Pay attention to the observations and concerns of the client, vet and staff.

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2
Q

communication

A

best clinical interview focuses on the patient.

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3
Q

5 vowels of a good interview

A

A- audition- listening carefully to the client’s story. E-evaluation- sorting data to determine which is important and which is irrelevant. I-inquiry- probing into the significant areas requiring more clarification. O-observation-observing nonverbal communication, body language, and facial expressions regardless of what is said. U-understanding- the clients concerns and apprehensions; enables interviewer to play more emphatic role

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4
Q

obtaining a history

A

info gathered while obtaining a history should alert the vet team to potential problems

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5
Q

introductory statement

A

introduce and explaining what he or she will be doing

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6
Q

patient characteristics

A

VAA obtains certain preliminary info such as patient characteristics

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7
Q

age

A

congenital diseases are predominant in young animals, and degenerative diseases can prevail in adults or older animal

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8
Q

breed

A

certain ones are predisposed to particular problems

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9
Q

gender

A

certain conditions are gender specific

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10
Q

reproductive status

A

dogs spayed at an early age are less likely to develop mammary tumours than intact dogs

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11
Q

questions for origin, prior ownership, and current env’t

A

where patient originated, where traveled, recently boarded, indoor, outdoor, free roaming or confined to house or yard, other animals, pets appetite, weight gains/losses, dry or wet food, brand name of food, amount of food consumed

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12
Q

past medical history

A

provides info about patients health before current illness, or anything else ie meds

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13
Q

vaccine schedule

A

some clients are not familiar with this, questions related to exposure to viruses or heartworm

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14
Q

presenting complaint

A

history of present complaint helps determine when animal was last normal, if condition is acute or chronic, previous meds and dosages, response to previous therapy, duration of progression of clinical signs

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15
Q

open ended questions

A

when did you first notice the problem, can you describe in detail the signs you observed, was there any change in routine

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16
Q

physical exam importance

A

all observations must be recorded accurately, including visual inspection, palpation, auscultation, and percussion.

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17
Q

systematic method of physical exam

A
  1. record temp, pulse and respirations. 2.evaluate disposition, activity level and overall body condition. 3. record each body system, integumentary, cardiac, genitourinary, nervous, ears, lymphatic, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, eyes, mucosa
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18
Q

vital signs

A

body temp, respiratory rate and effort, heart rate and rhythm and indications of perfusion

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19
Q

auscultation

A

listening to sounds produced by the body done with a stethoscope

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20
Q

weight

A

animal must be still to record an accurate weight and done at every visit regardless of reason

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21
Q

normothermia

A

maintenance of normal body temperature

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22
Q

hypothermia

A

abnormally low body temperature

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23
Q

hyperthermia

A

abnormally high body temperature

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24
Q

pulse

A

normal heart ranges: dogs 17-160 beats/ min, cats 150-210 beats/ min.

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25
Q

respiration

A

common sounds: harsh or static sounds, crackles or popping sounds, wheezing, upper airway, muffled or absent lung sounds, noisy breathing

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26
Q

bathing

A

protect eyes and ears. prevent water from entering the external ear canal by placing small cotton ball in each ear

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27
Q

skin care

A

watch for skin irritations

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28
Q

nail trimming

A

important to general care, avoid the quick

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29
Q

anal sac

A

normally secreats on its own, if not it can be emptied as part of the routine

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30
Q

ear care

A

must be examined carefully to avoid damage to the tympanic membrane

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31
Q

topical meds

A

applied to the skin. area usually shaved and cleaned (flea control)

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32
Q

oral meds

A

most commonly used and as tablets and liquid

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33
Q

rectal meds

A

inserted into the rectum

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34
Q

nasal meds

A

inserted into the nasal cavity to be absorbed through the nasal mucosa (respiratory vaccines)

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35
Q

opththalmic meds

A

applied onto the eye to treat many parts of the eye anatomy (ointments)

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36
Q

otic meds

A

instilled in the ear canal (ear mites)

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37
Q

parenteral meds

A

injected via a sterile syringe and needle

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38
Q

intreadermal meds

A

injected into the epidermis of the skin (local anesthesia)

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39
Q

subcutaneous meds

A

injected into the subcutaneous layer of the skin

40
Q

intramuscular meds

A

into the muscle

41
Q

intravenous meds and nutrition

A

absorbed directly into the blood stream

42
Q

urinary tract catheterization

A

access to bladder via the urethra

43
Q

gastric intubation

A

tubes inserted through the mouth to the stomach (short term feeding)

44
Q

wound

A

disruption of cellular and anatomic functional continuity. can either be acute or chronic

45
Q

types of acute wounds

A

surgical incisions, blunt trauma, bite wounds, burns, gunshots

46
Q

types of chronic wounds

A

decubital (pressure) ulcers, diabetic ulcers, vascular ulcers

47
Q

contaminated wounds become infected under the following circumstances

A

foreign bodies are present, excessive necrotic tissue is left in the wound, excessive bleeding results in higher levels of iron, local tissue defenses are impeded, vascular supply is altered, dirt and debris is present

48
Q

clean wounds

A

surgical wounds

49
Q

clean contaminated wounds

A

minor contamination

50
Q

contaminated

A

fresh traumatic injuries

51
Q

dirty

A

grossly infected or contaminated

52
Q

using antibacterials in a surgical wounds depends on

A

patients condition, immune status, er or elective surgery, location of the wound, duration of procedure, surgeons experience

53
Q

first aid

A

in the field and or before transport to a treatment facility, the wound should be protected with a bandage

54
Q

wound assessment

A

evaluation of the wounds location, size and depth, drainage, exudate, and signs of infection

55
Q

lavage

A

cleaning and debridement of wounds begins after the surrounding area has been cleaned. with a sterile solution ans gentle scrubbing are the primary methods for cleaning the wound

56
Q

anesthesia and analgesics

A

local, regional or general anesthesia may be used for wound management, analgesics can help reduce hemorrhage and prolong the anesthetic effect

57
Q

debridement

A

removal of devitalized or necrotic tissue is called debridement

58
Q

wound closure

A

a wound should be closed only when the vet is certain that all devitalized and contaminated tissue is removed. nature provides natural bandages as part of normal healing, artificial methods assist in the process

59
Q

functions of a bandage

A

protects, keeps wounds clean or sterile dressings in place, absorb exudate and debride a wound, vehicle for therapeutic agents, indicator of wound secretions, pack the wound, provide support for bony anatomic structures, support and stabilize soft tissues, secure splints, prevent weight bearing, provide compression to control hemorrhage, dead space and tissue edema, discourage self grooming, restrict motion, provide patient comfort, provide anesthetic appearance

60
Q

discharge info

A

strict confinement initially and then restricted activity during healing process, prevents licking or chewing (elizabethan collar), monitor for signs of excessive discomfort

61
Q

nursing care for recumbent patients

A

major concern id decubital (bed sores, pressure sores)

62
Q

chemical name

A

describes the drugs chemical composition

63
Q

generic name (nonproprietary)

A

not capitalized, most are referred to by the generic name in vet clinics

64
Q

trade name (proprietary)

A

given by manufacturer, capitalized because it is a proper noun

65
Q

generic drug names and trade

A

Ibuprofen, aspirin, acetaminophen. Tylenol, Excedrin, Advil

66
Q

solid drug

A

tablet, capsule, enteric-coated tablet, sustained release, implant

67
Q

semisolid

A

suppositories, liniment, ointment, cream, paste

68
Q

liquid

A

syrup, elixir, tincture, lotion, injectable

69
Q

enteric-coated tablets

A

special covering that protects the drug from the harsh acidic env’t of the stomach, prevents tablet from dissolving until it enters the intestine

70
Q

elixers

A

solutions of drugs dissolved in sweetened alcohol

71
Q

tinctures

A

alcohol solutions meant for topical application on the skin

72
Q

valid prescription includes

A

name, address and telephone number of person who wrote the prescription, date it was written, owners info and animal name and species, Rx symbol, drug name,concentration and # of units dispensed, Sig directions for client, signature of person who wrote the prescription, registration # of drug id controlled substance

73
Q

abbreviations used

A

bid, od, os, po, prn, twice daily, right eye, left eye, by mouth, as needed…q8h, qd, sid, stat, tid, every 8 hours, every day, once daily, immediately, three times daily

74
Q

proper drug storage

A

improperly stored can degenerate or become inactivated, providing a little or no benefit

75
Q

controlled substances (schedule drugs)

A

potential for physucal addiction, psychological addiction and or abuse. must be stored under lock and key, written records must be kept

76
Q

drug classifications

A

manufacturers are required to identify a controlled substance on its label with an upper C, followed by a Roman numeral this denotes the drugs theoretical potential for abuse

77
Q

drug classifications

A

C1- not used in vet medicine, C2- high potential for abuse, C3- some potential for abuse, C4- low potential for abuse, C5- over the counter meds

78
Q

surgery suite

A

vet assistant will usually prepare the patient, surgical instruments and operatory, usually includes a prep area, scrub area and surgery room

79
Q

surgery prep area

A

ideally adjacent to surgery room, patient prep and storage of surgical supplies

80
Q

scrub area

A

may be a small area with the scrub sink, autoclave and room to gown and glove, transitional area where the staff can prepare to move into the surgery room

81
Q

surgery room

A

ideally a separate room that should only be used for surgery, large enough for staff to move around and free of any clutter

82
Q

aseptic technique

A

term used to describe all the precautions taken to prevent contamination and ultimately infection of a surgical wound

83
Q

4 main factors determine whether infection occurs

A

number of microorganisms (high number), virulence of microorganisms (ability to cause disease_, susceptibility of the animal( natural resistance), route of exposure to microorganisms

84
Q

nosocomial infections

A

those which are acquired in a hospital setting

85
Q

4 main sources of potential contamination

A

operative personnel, surgical instruments and equipment, patient, surgical env’t

86
Q

sterilization

A

destruction of all microorganisms

87
Q

disinfection

A

destroys pathogenic microorganisms on nonliving objects

88
Q

autoclave

A

uses high temp and pressurized steam to sterilize instruments

89
Q

common terminology

A

-ectomy to remove, -otomy to cut into, -ostomy surgical opening, -rrhaphy surgical repair, -pexy surgical fixation, -plasty surgical alteration of shape or form

90
Q

ovariohysterectomy

A

spay, surgical removal of the ovaries and uterus

91
Q

orchiectomy

A

neuter or castration, surgical removal of the testes

92
Q

laparotomy

A

incision into the abdominal cavity, often through the flank

93
Q

gastrotomy

A

incision into the stomach

94
Q

preop evaluation

A

patient characteristics, medical history, physical exam, diagnostic testing

95
Q

patient requirements before procedure

A

withhold food for 8-12 hrs and water 2-4hrs before anesthesia. clipping hair and scrubbing the skin at the surgical site

96
Q

staff prep

A

scrubbing, gowning, and gloving

Vet3 (5 decks)

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