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Anesthesia 1 > Anesthetic Agents & Adjuncts > Flashcards

Anesthetic Agents & Adjuncts Flashcards

1
Q

Not a true anesthetic, used for other desirable affects.

Ex. Pain meds, sedatives/tranquilizers, anticholinergics

A

Anesthetic Adjunct

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2
Q

4 ways to classify anesthetic agents and adjuncts

A
  1. Route
  2. Time period
  3. Principle effect
  4. Chemistry
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3
Q

Bind to and stimulate receptors

A

Pure Agonist

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4
Q

Bind to receptors but do not stimulate them (reversal agents)

A

Pure antagonists

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5
Q

Bind to and partially stimulate receptors

A

Partial agonist

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6
Q

Bind to more than one receptor type and stimultaneously stimulate at least one, and blocking at least one

A

Agonist/Antagonists

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7
Q

Agonist ____________ receptors

Antagonists _________ receptors

A

stimulates

blocks

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8
Q

The most commonly used anesthetics are NOT___________

A

analgesics

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9
Q

Analgesics provide pain relief ________ by producing unconsciousness

A

indirectly

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10
Q

When analgesics are used they must be administered as __________

A

adjuncts

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11
Q

Drugs that can be safely mixed in the same syringe, whereas others are incompatible

A

Combination Drugs

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12
Q

Two _____ soluble drugs that can be mixed

A

Water

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13
Q

Valium (Diazepam) is _____ water soluble

A

NOT

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14
Q

Valium + ________ is combined as a 50:50 vol. mixture

A

Ketamine

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15
Q

Incompatible drugs are still administered just __________ together in same syringe

A

not mixed

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16
Q

4 controlled substances

A
  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Dissociatives
  3. Barbiturates
  4. Opioids/narcotics
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17
Q

Disadvantage of a drug:

A

being a controlled substance

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18
Q

4 regulatory considerations

A
  1. detailed record keeping is required
  2. 5 drug schedules
  3. double lockbox, secured to wall
  4. abuse potential are significant disadvantages
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19
Q

Term that describes the period immediately preceding the induction of anesthesia

A

Preanesthesia

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20
Q

Process by which an animal leaves the normal conscious state and enters and unconscious state.

A

Induction

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21
Q

3 preanesthetics

A
  1. anticholinergics
  2. tranquilizers/sedatives
  3. opioids
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22
Q

Heart protectants

A

anticholinergics

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23
Q

Calming/sleep effects

A

Tranquilizers/sedatives

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24
Q

3 tranquilizers/sedatives

A

phenothiazines
benzodiazepines
alpha 2 agonists

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25
Q

Analgesics (narcotics)

A

Opioids

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26
Q

4 reasons for preanesthetic administration

A
  1. Calm/sedate an excited, frighteneed, vicious animal
  2. Reduce possible adverse effects of anesthetics
  3. Reduce amt of anesthetic required
  4. Decrease pain during surgery and in the postoperative period and allow for a smoother recovery
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27
Q

Preanesthetics are usually given ________prior to induction

A

15-20 minutes

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28
Q

Most drugs given to anesthesia patients have _______effects on the body

A

adverse

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29
Q

Anticholinergics AKA:

A

Parasympatholytics

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30
Q

These block binding of the neurotransmitter acetlycholine at the muscarinic receptors; act to reverse parasympathetic effects like bradycardia, salivation, peristalsis, pupil constriction

A

Anticholinergics

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31
Q

This blocks the stimulation of the vagus nerve; prevents bradycardia and cause HR to increase; prevents bradycardia

A

Atropine

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32
Q

Heart protectant AKA:

A

Atropine

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33
Q

At premedication doses, ______________ prevent a decrease in HR

A

anticholinergics

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34
Q

Duration for atropine is _____ minutes

A

60-90

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35
Q

Atropine is not a _________

A

sedative

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36
Q

Atropine has a _____ onset and a ______duration depending on the route

A

fast; short

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37
Q

This suppresses salivation; longer duration of action and shorter onset than atropine; newer; minimally crosses placental barrier;

A

Glycopyrrolate

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38
Q

Glycopyrrolate has ______ arrhythmias

A

fewer

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39
Q

Some effects of anticholinergics:

A 
reduction of secretions 
mydriasis 
bronchodilation 
arrythmias 
thickening of respiratory/salivary secretions 
inhibit intestinal peristalsis
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40
Q

3 classes of tranquilizers/sedatives

A

phenothiazines
benzodiazepines
alpha 2 agonists

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41
Q

Tranquilizers/Sedatives may cause:

A

ataxia, prolapse of 3rd eyelids, respiratory distress, unusual behavior

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42
Q

Non-controlled substances; calming, sedation, decreased interest, vasodilation, antiarrythmia action, antiemetic effects, antihistamine effects, reduction in seizure threshold, penile prolapse, decreased PCV

A

Phenothiazines

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43
Q

Sleeping sedative; suppress sympathetic nervous system; cause hypothemia due to vasodilation effects; non controlled

A

Phenothiazines

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44
Q

Approved for use in dogs/cats/horses
IM or IV
No reversal agent
BRIGHT YELLOW

A

Acepromazine

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45
Q

Avoid Acepromazine with:

A 
Stallions
Epileptics 
Boxers 
Liver failure 
hypotensive patients
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46
Q

Higher doses do not increase sedative; potency increased in geriatric; neonate/sick patients; hypotension is a major concern; avoid in carotid horses

A

Acepromazine Use

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47
Q 
Minor tranquilizers/WIDE SAFETY MARGINS
Controlled substances 
Reversible w/flumazenil 
Muscle relaxants  
No analgesic effects
A

Benzodiazepines

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48
Q

Diazepam(Valium)
Zolazepam(component of Telazol)
Midazolam(Versed)
Lorazepam(Ativan)

A

Benzodiazepines

49
Q

Benzodiazepines are reversed with ____________

A

Flumazenil

50
Q 
IV route 
NOT water soluble 
Compatible with Ketamine 
Controlled drug 
Great for heart patients 
Muscle relaxation
A

Diazepam

51
Q

Drug of choice for seizure patients:

A

Diazepam

52
Q 
Water soluble
Used as appetite stimulant in cats and ruminants 
IM or SC or IV
Minimal sedation 
Minimal cardiovascular effects
A

Midazolam

53
Q

2 advantages of Midazolam are:

A

Multiple routes

Can be mixed

54
Q 
Fast onset
Reversibility 
Analgesic effects 
Not controlled 
Causes bradycardia
A

Alpha 2 Agonists

55
Q

This drug is in young/healthy patients ONLY

A

Alpha 2 Agonists

56
Q

Effects of Alpha 2 Agonists

A

Stimulation of SNS(fight or flight)

Causes sedation

57
Q

Alpha 2 agonists are metabolized by the ______ and excreted in the _______

A

liver; urine

58
Q

Other effects of Alpha 2 Agonists:

A 
80% reduction of thipental 
50% reduction of propofol and inhalant agents 
Hyperglycemia 
Hypothermia 
Polyuria
59
Q

Xylazine AKA:

A

Rompun

60
Q

First widely used A2A
IM or IV
Analgesic/Sedative

A

Xylazine

61
Q

Xylazine is ____% in small animals & _____% in large animals

A

2; 10

62
Q

Xylazine is reversed with ______

A

Yohimbine (IV)

63
Q

Most commonly used A2A in dogs/cats
Limited data
Greater potency
Dexdomitor

A

Dexmedetomidine

64
Q

Reversal agent for Dexmedetomidine:

A

Atipamazole (Antisedan)

65
Q

Dexmedetomidine has a _____ minutes onset (IM)

A

10-15

66
Q

Used in horses
Potent sedative
A2A

A

Detomidine

67
Q

Because of the adverse cardiovascular effects and prolonged duration of the A2A, use of a ________ _____ is often advisable

A

reversing agent

68
Q

Yohimbine reverses ________
Tolazoline reverses ________
Atipamazole reverses ____________

A

xylazine
xylazine
dexmedetomidine

69
Q

A2A works by displacing the ______ from the receptors

A

agonists

70
Q

A2A have few ______ _______ at clinical doses

A

adverse effects

71
Q

Do not give A2A when ______________ have been given

A

anticholinergics

72
Q

Non-specific alpha antagonist

Reverses sedative/cardiovascular effects of xylazine in ruminants,

A

Tolazoline

73
Q

Reverse effects of xylazine in dogs, cats, horses, exotics; Reversal agent for Rompin

A

Yohimbine

74
Q

Antisedan;
Specific for reversal of decmedetomidine;
IM only;

A

Atipamazole

75
Q

Atipamazole’s reversal occurs in ________ minutes after IM

A

5-10

76
Q

Opioids/Opiates/Narcotics are used for what:

A

treat pain

77
Q

3 types of opiods/opiates/narcotics

A

natural;
synthetic;
narcotic;

78
Q

Increasing doses of _______ cause bad side effects

A

Narcotics

79
Q

Administering pain meds prior to sensitization (prior to animal feeling pain)

A

preemptive analgesia

80
Q

Whats the primary use for narcotics/opioids?

A

analgesics

81
Q

__________stimulates GI tract when given IM; causes bradycardia & respiratory depression

A

Opioids/Narcotics

82
Q

4 types of opioid receptors:

A
  1. Mu
  2. Kappa
  3. Sigma
  4. Delta
83
Q

Pure agonist= ______pain relief & ______side effects

A

excellent; more

84
Q

Partial agonist= ______pain relief & ______side effects

A

good; few

85
Q

Agonist/Antagonist=______pain relief &______side effects

A

mild; very few

86
Q

5 types of Pure Agonist:

A
  1. Morphine
  2. Hydromorphone
  3. Oxymorphone
  4. Fentanyl
  5. Meperidine
87
Q

First narcotic used; Myocardial depressant; w/ caution in cats/horses; effective for moderate to severe pain; increases GI stimulation; pure agonist

A

Morphine

88
Q

Not as potent as oxymorphone, less expensive; similar to morphine in the effects; can be combined; pure agonist

A

Hydromorphone

89
Q

Meperidine AKA:

A

Pethidine

90
Q

WEAK analegesic effects; can be combined with other drugs; aka pethidine; pure agonist

A

Meperidine

91
Q

Fewer side effects & longer duration; less V+, doesn’t decrease BP; great for analgesia in sick/cardiovascularly impaired animals; combined w/tranquilizer, acepromazine; pure agonist

A

Oxymorphone

92
Q

Most potent analgesics (lower does); rapid onset IV; CRI or transdermal patch***, epidural, IM and SC

A

Fentanyl

93
Q

Wear gloves; clip/prep skin (water); 3-5 day application

A

Fentanyl transdermal patch

94
Q

The _________ patch is not effective immediately upon placement

A

fentanyl

95
Q

DO NOT ___ the patches, multiple ones may be used

A

cut

96
Q

Cats: apply ____ hours prior
Dogs: apply ____ hours prior

A

6; 12

97
Q

Only partially stimulate the opioid receptors; EX. Buprenorphine

A

Partial Agonist

98
Q

Buprenorphine AKA:

A

buprenex

99
Q

Mild/moderate pain relief; PO for cats or injectable; partial agonist; longest duration (6-12 hours)

A

Buprenorphine

100
Q

Do not stimulate the mu receptors, but stimulates the kappa receptors; provides pain relief; does NOT depress the respiratory/cardiovascular systems as much as narcotics do

A

Agonist/Antagonist

101
Q

Butorphanol AKA

A

Torbugesic/Torbutrol

102
Q

Mild to moderate visceral pain; duration 1-2 hours; at low doses it acts as an antitussive for C+ patients; weak but still an analgesic

A

Butorphanol

103
Q

Nalbuphine AKA

A

Nubain

104
Q

WEAK NOT EVEN CONTROLLED; analgesic & sedative

A

Nalbuphine

105
Q

Bind to receptors without stimulating them; not controlled; called reversal agents

A

Pure Antagonists

106
Q

Effective in reversing narcotics ONLY; emergency situation; reverse the effects of pure agonists

A

Naloxone

107
Q

Effect of Opioids:

A

Depression*** or excitement

108
Q

A hypnotic state produced in which the patient appears sedate, yet can be aroused with stimulation

A

Narcosis

109
Q

_____display bizarre behavior patterns & _______ is used at lower dosages in _____than in dogs

A

Cat; Morphine; Cat

110
Q

Degree of pain relief varies between members of this class

A

Analgesic effects

111
Q

_____ ___________ are most effective for severe pain, where mixed ______/_________ and _____ ________ are bets for mild to moderate pain relief

A

Pure Agonist; Agonists/Antagonists; Partial Agonists

112
Q

Adverse effects of opioids:

A

respiratory depression/panting; GI stimulation/constipation; bradycardia; salivation

113
Q

Opioids are very often used in combination with a ____________ or __________

A

tranquilizer or sedative

114
Q

SLEEP+__________ _______=HAPPY PATIENT

A

PAIN RELIEF

115
Q

The two drugs used in combination for neuroleptanalgesia

A

Acepromazine+Morphine

116
Q

Oxymorphone+___________
___________+ Valium
Acepromazine+ __________

A

Acepromazine; Oxymorephone; Morphine

117
Q

BAG combo consists of what 3 drugs?

A

Butophanol; Acepromazine; Glycopyrolate

118
Q

sBAG combo consist of what 3 drugs?

A

Buprenorphine; Acepromazine; Glycopyrolate

119
Q

The need for detailed record keeping and abuse potential are significant disadvantages of:

A

Regulatory considerations

Anesthesia 1 (4 decks)

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