ANESTHESIA Flashcards

1
Q

ASA class breakdown

A
1 = healthy
2 = mild systemic disease (HTN, DM), active smoker, pregnancy
3 = severe systemic disease (stable angina, CHF, hx MI, CKD), morbid obesity
4 = severe systemic disease that is constant threat to life (unstable angina, mod-severe COPD)
5 = not expected to survive wo operation (MOF, sepsis, coagulopathy)
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2
Q

Succinylcholine should be avoided in which pts?

A
  • burn pts
  • massive tissue trauma (rhabdo)
  • upper and lower motor neuron lesions (spinal cord injuries)
  • NM disorders
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3
Q

C/I to nitrous oxide administration includes…

A
  • pneumothorax
  • SBO
  • w/ air-filled cavity (ie. pneumoperitoneum, increased middle ear pressure)

**bc can diffuse into any air-filled cavity to displace nitrogen

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4
Q

Which inhalation agent has highest incidence of postop nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A

prolonged use of nitrous oxide

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5
Q

ACC-AHA cardiac risk stratification for non-cardiac surgery

A

high risk >5% = any vascular surgery (except CEA)
intermediate 1-5% = CEA, head/neck/C/A surgery, ortho
low <1% = hernia, endoscopic, breast

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6
Q

1 predictor of post-op hospital mortality

A

renal failure

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7
Q

Steps of RSI

A
  1. oxygenation + short-acting induction agent
  2. muscle relaxant
  3. cricoid pressure
  4. intubation
  5. inhalational analgesic
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8
Q

MCC sudden rise ETCO2…? But should also be concerned for…?

A

hypoventilation.

malignant hyperthermia.

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9
Q

MCC sudden drop ETO2…? But should also be concerned for…?

A

tubing malfunction.

CO2 emboli.

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10
Q

Mgmt CO2 emboli

A
  1. stop CO2 insufflation, reduce pneumoperitoneum
  2. Trendelenburg + left lateral decub
  3. 100% FiO2
  4. aspirate off central line from RA
  5. pressors/inotrope + prolonged CPR, if necessary
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11
Q

What is MAC?

A

minimal alveolar concentration; smallest concentration of gas in which 50% pts will not move to painful stimuli

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12
Q

Low MAC means…?

A
  • more lipid soluble
  • more potent
  • slow speed induction
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13
Q

High MAC means…?

A
  • less lipid soluble
  • less potent
  • fast induction
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14
Q

Highest MAC agent is…?

A

nitrous oxide

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15
Q

Side effect: halothane

A
  • hepatitis
  • high degree cardiac depression
  • arrhythmia
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16
Q

Best agent for mask-induction for kids

A

Sevoflurane

17
Q

Best agent for NSGY procedures

A

Isoflurane

18
Q

Side effect: propofol

A
  • metabolic acidosis
  • hyperTG
  • rhabdo
  • propofol infusion syndrome
19
Q

Best IV anesthesia agent in pts with angina or HF

A

etomidate (few hemodynamic and cardiac effects)

20
Q

Which IV anesthesia agent can cause adrenal cortical suppression?

A

etomidate

21
Q

Which IV anesthesia agent has no respiratory depression effects?

A

ketamine

22
Q

Order of paralysis of muscles vs. recovery from paralysis with paralytic agent

A

paralyzed from head -> diaphragm.

recovers from diaphragm -> head.

23
Q

Tx malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene

24
Q

Paralytic agent that undergoes Hoffman elimination? Best used for pts w/…?

A

Cisatracurium.

For pts with liver or renal failure.

25
Q

Rocuronium is metabolized by?

A

liver

26
Q

Pancuronium is metabolized by?

A

kidney

27
Q

How to reverse non-depolarizing paralytic agents?

A

ACh-esterase inhibitors

28
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

blocks transmission signals by stabilizing Na-channels -> increase AP threshold (increases amount of Na needed to create AP)

29
Q

Longest lasting local anesthetic by longest > shortest

A

Bupivacaine > lidocaine > procaine

30
Q

Max dose lidocaine wo epi vs. w epi? How long do they last?

A

wo epi: 5 mg/kg (up to 60-min)

w/ epi: 7 mg/kg (up to 4-hr)

31
Q

Max dose bupivacaine? How long does it last?

A

3 mg/kg (up to 15-hrs)

32
Q

If give morphine via epidural, can cause…?

A

respiratory depression

33
Q

If give lidocaine via epidural, can cause…?

A

hypotension + bradycardia

34
Q

Which benzo is C/I pregnancy?

A

midazolam