Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of lidocaine toxicity?

A
  1. Seizures
  2. Profound hypotension
  3. Perioral numbness
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2
Q

What are the 6 classifications of ASA?

A

(a) ASA I: normal, healthy patient
(b) ASA II: mild systemic disease
(c) ASA III: severe systemic disease
(d) ASA IV: severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
(e) ASA V: moribund patient not expected to survive without operation
(f) ASA VI: brain-dead organ donor

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3
Q

What is the RCRI risk factors list?

A

(i) High-risk procedure
(ii) History of ischemic heart disease
(iii) History of CHF
(iv) History of cerebrovascular disease
(v) Preoperative treatment with insulin
(vi) Preoperative serum creatinine >2 mg/dL

Class I: zero risk factors, 0.4% risk of mortality
Class II: 1 risk factor, 0.9% risk of mortality
Class III: 2 risk factors, , 6.6% risk of mortality
Class IV : 3 or more risk factors, 11% risk of mortality (highly recommend BB)

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4
Q

MELD Score?

A

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease
- Measures creatinine, INR, and bili (predicts mortality rate)

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5
Q

What is the endogenous cortisol output in an adult?

A

Normal adult: 8-25mg/day

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6
Q

What is the endogenouse cortisol output for an adult undergoing major surgery?

A

75-100mg/day

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7
Q

How to prevent adrenal insufficiency?

A

100mg Hydrcortisone IV

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8
Q

What is the Wells criteria for DVT?

A

Predict the likelihood of DVT
(i) Lower extremity trauma, surgery, or immobilization (+1)
(ii) Immobilization (3 days) or recent surgery (4 weeks) (+1)
(iii) Tenderness along femoral or popliteal vein lines (+1)
(iv) Limb swelling (+1)
(v) Calf enlargement (>3 cm circumference, 10 cm below tibial tuberosity) (+1)
(vi) Pitting edema (+1)
(vii) Dilated collateral superficial veins (nonvaricose) (+1)
(viii) Previous DVT (+1)
(ix) Malignancy (6 months) (+1)
(x) IV drug use (+3)
(xi) Alternative diagnosis more likely than DVT (–2)

(b) Total score 0–1: unlikely for DVT
(c) Total score 2+: likely for DVT

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9
Q

What is the Wells criteria for PE?

A

(i) Clinical signs/symptoms of DVT (+3)
(ii) PE is likely diagnosis (+3)
(iii) Tachycardia (heart rate >100 beats/min) (+1.5)
(iv) Immobilization (3 days) or recent surgery (4 weeks) (+1.5)
(v) History of DVT or PE (+1.5)
(vi) Hemoptysis (+1)
(vii) Malignancy (6 months) (+1)

Score 0-4: unlikely for PE
Score 5+: likely for PE

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10
Q

What are the clinical signs for severe malnutrition?

A

(1) Weight loss >15% over the previous 3 months
(2) Hypoalbuminemia (<3.0 g/dL)
(3) Anergy
(4) Transferrin <200 mg/dL

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11
Q

What is the best skin prep in terms of hair?

A

Remove hair on the day of surgery with an electric clipper?

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12
Q

When is shaving bad for surgery?

A

Shaving the night before surgery is associated with compensatory bacterial proliferation and increased risk of wound infection.

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13
Q

6 indications for endocarditis prophylaxis:

A

(1) Prosthetic heart valves
(2) Congenital valve disease
(3) Rheumatic valve disease
(4) History of endocarditis
(5) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
(6) Mitral valve prolapse with murmur (Barlow syndrome)

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14
Q

What is the minimum gauge IV catheter need to initiate anesthesia?

A

18 gauge IV catheter

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15
Q

What do you do with insulin on the day of surgery for patients with diabetes requiring insulin?

A

Use half the dose of long lasting insulins

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16
Q

What do you do with oral diabetic medications in patients with diabetes requiring these medications?

A

Hold oral diabetic medications

17
Q

What are the 5 common causes of fever?

A

Wind
Water
Walking
Wound infection
Wonder drugs

18
Q

What is the most common cause of fever when it occurs less than 24h post-operatively?

A

Less than 24 hours—classically relegated to atelectasis due to inability to clear pulmonary secretions, but more likely be due to effect of systemic inflammatory cytokine release after major surgery

19
Q

What is the most common cause of fever when it occurs less than 24-48h post-operatively?

A

24–48 hours—respiratory complications, catheter-related infection

20
Q

What is the most common cause of fever when it occurs less than 48-72h post-operatively?

A

48–72 hours—
bloodstream infection, thrombophlebitis,
wound infection,
urinary tract infection,
pneumonitis,
intraabdominal abscess,
postoperative pancreatitis,
drug allergy,
Candida sepsis if receiving total parenteral nutrition, other causes

21
Q

What is cricoid pressure?

A

Manual pressure on cricoid cartilage to occlude the esophagus and decrease aspiraiton of gastric contents

22
Q

What is rapid sequence anesthesia induction? (5)

A

Oxygenation
Short induction agent
Paralytic
Cricoid pressure
Intubation
Inhalation aesthetic

23
Q

4 contraindications to succinylcholine?

A

Patient with burns
Neuromuscular disease/paraplegia
Eye trauma
ICP

*because risk of hyperkalemia

24
Q

In what environment does lidocaine not work?

A

Acidic environments, such as abscess

25
Q

How do you make lidocaine feel less burn ?

A

Add sodium bicarbonate

26
Q

What are the contraindications to nitrous oxide? (3_

A

Middle ear occlusions
Pneumothorax
SBO
*poorly soluble in serum

27
Q

What are the 2 causative agents for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Volatile anasthetics
Succinylcholine

28
Q

What is the earliest signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Rising end tidal CO2

29
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Increased body temperature*
Hypoxia
acidosis
Tachycardia
rising end tidal CO2*

30
Q

What is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

IV dantrolene
Body cooling
Discontinuation of volatile anasthetics

31
Q

48-year-old woman undergoes a hysterectomy and develops an
acute increase in end tidal CO2 in the middle of the operation and
then develops a very high fever, cardiac arrhythmia, acidosis, and
hyperkalemia

A

Malignant hyperthermia

32
Q

W

A