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Equine 2 exam 2 > Anemia/Acute blood loss > Flashcards

Anemia/Acute blood loss Flashcards

1
Q

What is the RBC lifespan? When does marrow respond to low RBC?

A

150 d; starts to respond at 3 days but max response is 7-9 days

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2
Q

What is the definition of anemia?

A

Decreased circuling RBC mass (PCV)

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3
Q

horses do not release _______ so MCV is inconsistent

A

Reticulocytes

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4
Q

What must you do for regenerative anemia diagnosis? What does it tell you?

A

BM aspirate; a myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio of less than 0.5 means regeneration

normal is about 1.1-2.0

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5
Q

What is normal PCV/hct of a horse in %?

A

30-45%

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6
Q

**WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ANEMIA IN HORSES????

A

ANEMIA OF CHRONIC INFLAMMATION!!!***

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7
Q

Is iron def. anemia common in horses?

A

No, horses on pasture are unlikely to have iron def.

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8
Q

What are the 4 nutritional causes of anemia that we talked about in class?

A

iron def anemia, vit B12 def, vitamin B6 def, folate def

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9
Q

___ and ____ neonatal isoerythrolysis are the most antigenic and cause the most severe hemolysis

A

Aa and Qa

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10
Q

__ is protective and RBC will be removed before hemolysis occurs, however, ____ and ____ cause severe hemolysis

A

Ca; Aa and Qa

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11
Q

Neonatal isoerytholysis prevention=

A

Test the mare for NI antigens about one month before foaling and test colostrum, muzzle at risk foal for 25 hrs

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12
Q

what can tell you when anti-RBC antibodies have disappeared from colostrum and the foal can nurse

A

jaundiced foal agglutination test

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13
Q

No agglutination = no ____ and is fine for foal to nurse

A

no antibody and is fine for the foal to nurse

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14
Q

EIA virus

A

reportableeeee, retrovirdiae, lentavirus, infection is lifelong and incurable

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15
Q

is there a vax for EIA virus? How is it controlled?

A

No vax; controlled via regulatory testing contact tracing and removal from herd

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16
Q

EIA transmission

A

Tabanid flies, large flies carrying a lot of blood

painful bite makes them go to other horses, can also get it from dirty needles, blood doping, in-utero and milk or semen

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17
Q

EIA CS

A

anemia, fever, icterus, swollen legs/edema, petechia, epistaxis, melena, deathhh

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18
Q

What are the 3 clinical forms of EIA?

A

acute infection
asym. carrier
swamp fever

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19
Q

What is involved with the acute infection form of EIA virus?

A

Fever, thrombocytopenia, lethargy, inappetence, may die

20
Q

What is involved with the asymptomatic carrier form of EIA virus?

A

most common*
no CS, carrier for life- resides in DNA and can become infected/have CS again if virus mutates in DNA/patient becomes immunosuppressed, important reservoir for spread of the virus

21
Q

What is involved with the swamp fever form on EIA?

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, wt loss, dependent edema, poor-doers

22
Q

What is the test of choice for doing Coggins test?

A

AGID (agar gel immunodiffusion test)

takes about one day but can take up to 60 to detect antibody but is a confirmatory test

23
Q

What is a rapid Coggins test/ takes like an hour.

A

ELISA test
will need to confirm with AGID is positive
more likely to give false positive than AGID

24
Q

EIA positive horses, what to do???

A
  1. euth
  2. diagnostic or regulatory facility
  3. permanent isolation forever at least 200 yards away
    reactors are marked with lip tatt or branded
25
Q

Recombinant erythropoietin may stimulate some erythropoiesis but different enough from equine EPO that what might occur?

A

that cross reacting antibodies may occur –> fatal aplastic anemia–> DO NOT GIVE TO HORSES for blood doping!!!

26
Q

what will agglutination look like on slide?

A

Flakes of blood

27
Q

Normal is ____

abnormal is ____

A

normal is rouleaux

abnormal is agglutination

28
Q

Coomb’s test-

A

detects RBC membrane bound antibody, endpoint is RBC agglutination
used to detect antibodies that act against the surface of your red blood cell

29
Q

If anticoagulated blood auto agglutinates then…???

A

anti-RBC antibodies are present, no need for coombs test

30
Q

Equine anti-RBC antibodies act primarily as what?

A

Hemolysins

31
Q

Heparin causes what to the blood? What does DMSO cause?

A

Heparin causes microagglutination of RBC, DMSO causes hemolysis if given more than 10% in solution

32
Q

Penicillin and B lactams may cause what??

A

IMHA

33
Q

Red maple (acer rubrum) toxicity–

A

storms or clippings of red maple cause oxidant toxin and cause heinz body anemia in horses

34
Q

How can we tx acer rubrum (red maple) toxicity???

A

IV fluids, Vit C, vit E, steroids, +/- furosemide, transfusion

35
Q

what is reportable and is endemic in most of the world, is a tick borne disease

A

Piroplasmosis (Including Theileria equi and Babesia caballi)

36
Q

What tick borne disease looks like mallase cross on slides?

A

Thelleria equi

37
Q

Piroplasmosis tx-

A

Imidocarb b diproprionate 4mg/kg IM q 72 hrs for 4 treatments

38
Q

Theileria equi

A

transient stage within peripheral blood mononuclear cells
• Horse = reservoir
• Infection persists for life and may pass transplacentally

39
Q

Babesia caballi-

A

direct sporozoite RBC infection
• May or may not clear infection after variable time
• Ticks = reservoir

40
Q

Options for + horses for piroplasmosis–

A

Approved federal tx program with Imidocarb, lifelong quarantine, or euth

41
Q

What is a reportable illness that has C. sonorensis as its vector esp. common in imported horses?

A

African horse sickness

42
Q

Anaplasma phagocytopgilum is another tick borne disease, causes ______ and diagnosis is

A

fever; PCR

43
Q

MHC and MCHC are falsely elevated due to ____

A

hemolysis

44
Q

acute vs chronic blood loss

A

Acute- Hct and TP normal, loss of whole blood, splenic contractions replace some of lost RBC
Chronic- Hct low or normal, TP low, fluid shift to compensate for lost RBC volume

45
Q

M:E stands for

A

myeloid to erythroid ratio

46
Q

Test mare for neonatal isoerythrolysis antigens how long before foaling?

A

one month before foaling

Equine 2 exam 2 (11 decks)

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