Anemia/Acute blood loss

Question 1

What is the RBC lifespan? When does marrow respond to low RBC?

Answer 1

150 d; starts to respond at 3 days but max response is 7-9 days

Question 2

What is the definition of anemia?

Answer 2

Decreased circuling RBC mass (PCV)

Question 3

horses do not release _______ so MCV is inconsistent

Answer 3

Reticulocytes

Question 4

What must you do for regenerative anemia diagnosis? What does it tell you?

Answer 4

BM aspirate; a myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio of less than 0.5 means regeneration

normal is about 1.1-2.0

Question 5

What is normal PCV/hct of a horse in %?

Answer 5

30-45%

Question 6

**WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ANEMIA IN HORSES????

Answer 6

ANEMIA OF CHRONIC INFLAMMATION!!!***

Question 7

Is iron def. anemia common in horses?

Answer 7

No, horses on pasture are unlikely to have iron def.

Question 8

What are the 4 nutritional causes of anemia that we talked about in class?

Answer 8

iron def anemia, vit B12 def, vitamin B6 def, folate def

Question 9

___ and ____ neonatal isoerythrolysis are the most antigenic and cause the most severe hemolysis

Answer 9

Aa and Qa

Question 10

__ is protective and RBC will be removed before hemolysis occurs, however, ____ and ____ cause severe hemolysis

Answer 10

Ca; Aa and Qa

Question 11

Neonatal isoerytholysis prevention=

Answer 11

Test the mare for NI antigens about one month before foaling and test colostrum, muzzle at risk foal for 25 hrs

Question 12

what can tell you when anti-RBC antibodies have disappeared from colostrum and the foal can nurse

Answer 12

jaundiced foal agglutination test

Question 13

No agglutination = no ____ and is fine for foal to nurse

Answer 13

no antibody and is fine for the foal to nurse

Question 14

EIA virus

Answer 14

reportableeeee, retrovirdiae, lentavirus, infection is lifelong and incurable

Question 15

is there a vax for EIA virus? How is it controlled?

Answer 15

No vax; controlled via regulatory testing contact tracing and removal from herd

Question 16

EIA transmission

Answer 16

Tabanid flies, large flies carrying a lot of blood

painful bite makes them go to other horses, can also get it from dirty needles, blood doping, in-utero and milk or semen

Question 17

EIA CS

Answer 17

anemia, fever, icterus, swollen legs/edema, petechia, epistaxis, melena, deathhh

Question 18

What are the 3 clinical forms of EIA?

Answer 18

acute infection
asym. carrier
swamp fever

Question 19

What is involved with the acute infection form of EIA virus?

Answer 19

Fever, thrombocytopenia, lethargy, inappetence, may die

Question 20

What is involved with the asymptomatic carrier form of EIA virus?

Answer 20

most common*
no CS, carrier for life- resides in DNA and can become infected/have CS again if virus mutates in DNA/patient becomes immunosuppressed, important reservoir for spread of the virus

Question 21

What is involved with the swamp fever form on EIA?

Answer 21

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, wt loss, dependent edema, poor-doers

Question 22

What is the test of choice for doing Coggins test?

Answer 22

AGID (agar gel immunodiffusion test)

takes about one day but can take up to 60 to detect antibody but is a confirmatory test

Question 23

What is a rapid Coggins test/ takes like an hour.

Answer 23

ELISA test
will need to confirm with AGID is positive
more likely to give false positive than AGID

Question 24

EIA positive horses, what to do???

Answer 24

1. euth
2. diagnostic or regulatory facility
3. permanent isolation forever at least 200 yards away
   reactors are marked with lip tatt or branded

Question 25

Recombinant erythropoietin may stimulate some erythropoiesis but different enough from equine EPO that what might occur?

Answer 25

that cross reacting antibodies may occur --> fatal aplastic anemia--> DO NOT GIVE TO HORSES for blood doping!!!

Question 26

what will agglutination look like on slide?

Answer 26

Flakes of blood

Question 27

Normal is ____ | abnormal is ____

Answer 27

normal is rouleaux | abnormal is agglutination

Question 28

Coomb's test-

Answer 28

detects RBC membrane bound antibody, endpoint is RBC agglutination used to detect antibodies that act against the surface of your red blood cell

Question 29

If anticoagulated blood auto agglutinates then...???

Answer 29

anti-RBC antibodies are present, no need for coombs test

Question 30

Equine anti-RBC antibodies act primarily as what?

Answer 30

Hemolysins

Question 31

Heparin causes what to the blood? What does DMSO cause?

Answer 31

Heparin causes microagglutination of RBC, DMSO causes hemolysis if given more than 10% in solution

Question 32

Penicillin and B lactams may cause what??

Answer 32

IMHA

Question 33

Red maple (acer rubrum) toxicity--

Answer 33

storms or clippings of red maple cause oxidant toxin and cause heinz body anemia in horses

Question 34

How can we tx acer rubrum (red maple) toxicity???

Answer 34

IV fluids, Vit C, vit E, steroids, +/- furosemide, transfusion

Question 35

what is reportable and is endemic in most of the world, is a tick borne disease

Answer 35

Piroplasmosis (Including Theileria equi and Babesia caballi)

Question 36

What tick borne disease looks like mallase cross on slides?

Answer 36

Thelleria equi

Question 37

Piroplasmosis tx-

Answer 37

Imidocarb b diproprionate 4mg/kg IM q 72 hrs for 4 treatments

Question 38

Theileria equi

Answer 38

transient stage within peripheral blood mononuclear cells • Horse = reservoir • Infection persists for life and may pass transplacentally

Question 39

Babesia caballi-

Answer 39

direct sporozoite RBC infection • May or may not clear infection after variable time • Ticks = reservoir

Question 40

Options for + horses for piroplasmosis--

Answer 40

Approved federal tx program with Imidocarb, lifelong quarantine, or euth

Question 41

What is a reportable illness that has C. sonorensis as its vector esp. common in imported horses?

Answer 41

African horse sickness

Question 42

Anaplasma phagocytopgilum is another tick borne disease, causes ______ and diagnosis is

Answer 42

fever; PCR

Question 43

MHC and MCHC are falsely elevated due to ____

Answer 43

hemolysis

Question 44

acute vs chronic blood loss

Answer 44

Acute- Hct and TP normal, loss of whole blood, splenic contractions replace some of lost RBC Chronic- Hct low or normal, TP low, fluid shift to compensate for lost RBC volume

Question 45

M:E stands for

Answer 45

myeloid to erythroid ratio

Question 46

Test mare for neonatal isoerythrolysis antigens how long before foaling?

Answer 46

one month before foaling