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DPT Semester 1 > Anatomy Unit 2 > Flashcards

Anatomy Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

<p>the body of a vertebrae is made of what?</p>

A

<p>primarily spongy bone, helps with shock absorption</p>

<p>the edges (epiphyseal rim) are smooth compact bone</p>

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2
Q

<p>what forms the boundaries of the vertebral foramen?</p>

A

<p>body + veterbral arch</p>

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3
Q

<p>what forms the vertebral arch?</p>

A

<p>pedicles + lamina</p>

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4
Q

<p>what dopedicles do?</p>

A

<p>attach to vert body, form roof and floor of intervertebral foramena</p>

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5
Q

<p>what are lamina?</p>

A

<p>connect the pedicles and each other, form the posterior arch</p>

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6
Q

<p>what forms the vertebral canal?</p>

A

<p>lined up vertebral foramena</p>

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7
Q

<p>what forms intervetebral foramen?</p>

A

<ol> <li>Floor: Sup vert notch of pedicle</li> <li>Roof: inf vert notch of pedicle</li> <li>Post: lamina/zygapophyseal joint</li> <li>Ant: body/intervertebral disk</li></ol>

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8
Q

<p>what do the intervertebral foramen contain?</p>

A

<p>spinal nerves</p>

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9
Q

<p>how many processes are there on a typical vertebrae?</p>

A

<p>7</p>

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10
Q

<p>what are the 7 vertebral processes?</p>

A

<ol> <li>spinous (1),</li> <li>transverse processes (2),</li> <li>superior articular processes (2),</li> <li>inferior articular processes (2)</li></ol>

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11
Q

<p>what is the angle between transverse and spinous processes called? why?</p>

A

<p>Gutter, a lot of posterior muscles run through this space</p>

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12
Q

<p>what articulations form the zygapophysial joints?</p>

A

<p>superior and inferior articular processes</p>

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13
Q

<p>what is the orientation of the zygapophysial joints?</p>

A

<ol> <li>C: transverse</li> <li>T: oblique coronal</li> <li>L: (S) sagittal</li> <li>L: (I) coronal</li></ol>

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14
Q

<p>how many articulations does a typical vertebrae have?</p>

A

<p>6--between each vertebrae x2--zygapophyseal joint R/L x2</p>

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15
Q

<p>cervical discs size</p>

A

<p>large disc with small vertebral bodies</p>

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16
Q

<p>advantages of cervical disc/vertebrae size</p>

A

<p>allows for more movement</p>

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17
Q

<p>what movements can occurs at cervical zygapophyseal joints?</p>

A

<p>flex/extension; abd/adduct; rotation</p>

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18
Q

<p>6 identifying features of cervical vertebrae</p>

A

<p>1). transverse foramen</p>

<p>2). A/P tubercles</p>

<p>3). grooves for spinal nerves</p>

<p>4). uncinate processes</p>

<p>5). bifid spinous processes (C3-6)</p>

<p>6). vertebra prominens</p>

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19
Q

<p>where are the A/P turbercles of cervical vertebae located?</p>

A

<p>at ends of transverse processes provide muscle attachments for levator scapulae and scalene muscles</p>

<p>(There is a P tubercle in place of a spinous process at C1)</p>

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20
Q

<p>where are the grooves for spinal nerves located in cervical vertebrae?</p>

A

<p>in a sulcus between A/P turbecles of transverse processes</p>

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21
Q

<p>which cervical vertebrae has bifid spinous processes?</p>

A

<p>C3-C6</p>

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22
Q

<p>what is an uncinate process?</p>

A

<p>elevated S epiphyseal rim ant and lat.</p>

<p>allows free flex/ext but restricts abd/adduction</p>

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23
Q

<p>what limits abd/adduction at cervical vertebae</p>

A

<p>uncovertebral joints</p>

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24
Q

<p>What are uncovertebral joints?</p>

A

<p>exist between uncinate process of cervical vertebra and epiphyseal rim of vertebral body above</p>

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25
Q

<p>what passes through the Cerv transverse foramen</p>

A

<p>vertebral arteries and veins</p>

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26
Q

<p>T/F: the atlas (C1) has a vertebral body?</p>

A

<p>FALSE</p>

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27
Q

<p>what type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?</p>

A

<p>condyloid</p>

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28
Q

<p>T/F: the posterior atlanto-occipital membrane is a continuation of ligamentum flavum</p>

A

<p>TRUE</p>

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29
Q

<p>what does the atlas (C1) have in place of a body?</p>

A

<p>anterior arch connecting pedicles anteriorly</p>

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30
Q

<p>what do the lateral masses of C1 do?</p>

A

<p>transmit weight from head to C2, contain sup/inf articular processes</p>

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31
Q

<p>unique feature of the axis (C2)</p>

A

<p>dens (odontoid process)</p>

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32
Q

<p>which T vert do not have paired S/I costal facets?</p>

A

<p>T1, 10, 11, 12</p>

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33
Q

<p>Zygophyseal joints are stabilized by what accessory ligaments?</p>

A

<ol> <li>ligamentaflava</li> <li>interspinous ligaments</li> <li>supraspinous ligaments</li> <li>nuchual ligament</li> <li>intertransverse ligaments</li></ol>

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34
Q

<p>What does the ligamenta flava do?</p>

A

<p>interconnects adjacent laminae</p>

<p>they are elastic ligaments that limit flexion</p>

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35
Q

<p>how are the articular processes (zygapophyseal joints) oriented in T vert?</p>

A

<p>coronally</p>

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36
Q

<p>what movement is restricted at zygapophyseal joints in T vert?</p>

A

<p>Flex/ext</p>

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37
Q

<p>what limits ab/adduction at T vert?</p>

A

<p>rib articulations</p>

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38
Q

<p>where do ribs articulate with vertebrae?</p>

A

<p>Ribs 2-9: body of S/I vert and transverse process of inf vert</p>

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39
Q

<p>how are the S/I articulations (zygapophyseal joints) oriented in L vert?</p>

A

<p>S: sagittal</p>

<p>I: coronal</p>

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40
Q

<p>unique orientation of L5</p>

A

<p>body is higher A than P creating the lumbosacral angle</p>

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41
Q

<p>what 2 surfaces of the sacrum articulate with the hips?</p>

A

<p>1). sacral tuberosity</p>

<p>2). auricular surface</p>

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42
Q

<p>what type of joint does the pelvis and sacral tuberosity make?</p>

A

<p>fibrous, syndesmosis joint</p>

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43
Q

<p>what type of joint does the pelvis and auricular surface make?</p>

A

<p>planar, synovial joint</p>

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44
Q

<p>functional role of the coccyx</p>

A

<p>anchors the pelvic diaphragm, regulates pressure in the pelvic cavity</p>

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45
Q

<p>components of intervertebral disc</p>

A

<p>anulus fibrosis, nucleus pulposus</p>

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46
Q

<p>how is the annulus fibrosis arranged?</p>

A

<ol> <li>outer ring of fibrocartilage of disk arranged in concentric lamellae attached to the epiphyseal rim of the vertebra above and vertebra belowto hold them together.</li> <li>Twists to allow some rotation.</li> <li>All designed to keep the nucleus pulposus in the center</li></ol>

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47
Q

<p>anterior longitudinal ligament</p>

A

<p>runs from C1 and Occipital bone to pelvic surface of sacrum; limits vert column ext</p>

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48
Q

<p>posterior longitudinal ligament</p>

A

<p>weaker; runs from C2 to sacrum through the vertebral canal; limits vert hyperflexion</p>

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49
Q

<p>what are symphysis?</p>

A

<p>a type of cartilaginous joint</p>

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50
Q

<p>atlanto-occipital articulation</p>

A

<p>occipital condyles with superior articular processes of C1</p>

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51
Q

<p>what is the sacral canal?</p>

A

<p>continuation of vertebral canal; it houses the cuada equina</p>

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52
Q

<p>what is the role of the A/P sacral foramena</p>

A

<p>serve as openings for dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nerves</p>

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53
Q

<p>where does the sacrum articulate with L5?</p>

A

<p>L5 inferior articular process with superior articular process of sacrum</p>

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54
Q

<p>what is the sacral promontory?</p>

A

<p>projection of S1 into the pelvic cavity</p>

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55
Q

<p>Name the crests on the sacrum</p>

A

<ol> <li>median sacral crest</li> <li>intermediate sacral crest</li> <li>lateral sacral crest</li></ol>

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56
Q

<p>what forms the median sacral crest?</p>

A

<p>fused spinous processes on the dorsal surface</p>

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57
Q

<p>what forms the intermediate sacral crest?</p>

A

<p>fused articular processes of sacral vertebrae on the dorsal surface</p>

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58
Q

<p>What forms the lateral sacral crest?</p>

A

<p>fused transverse processes of sacral vertebae on dorsal surface</p>

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59
Q

<p>how does the sacrum articulate with the coccyx?</p>

A

<p>sacral cornu with the cornue of the coccyx</p>

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60
Q

<p>How many articulations form the atlanto-axial joint? Name them.</p>

A

<ol> <li>2 lateral atlantoaxial apophysel joints</li> <li>median atlantoaxial joint = pivot joint</li></ol>

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61
Q

<p>what is the median atlantoaxial joint comprised of?</p>

A

<ol> <li>synovial articulation between dens of C2 with anterior arch of C1</li> <li>synovial articulation between dens of C2 with cartilage of the transverse ligament</li></ol>

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62
Q

<p>Name the ligaments of the Atlanto-axial joint</p>

A

<ol> <li>transverse ligament of the atlas</li> <li>longitudinal bands</li> <li>cruciate ligament (transverse + longitudinal bands)</li> <li>alar ligaments</li> <li>tectoral membrane</li></ol>

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63
Q

<p>What is the role of the alar ligaments at the atlanto-axial joint?</p>

A

<p>connect dens to lateral foramen magnum</p>

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64
Q

<p>what is the role of the spinal curvatures?</p>

A

<ol> <li>shock absorption</li> <li>flexibility</li> <li>balance in upright posture</li></ol>

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65
Q

<p>what is the venous supply of the vertebral column?</p>

A

<ol> <li>anterior and posterior external vertebral plexus</li> <li>anterior and posterior internal vertebral plexus</li> <li>basivertebral vein</li></ol>

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66
Q

<p>what does the basivertebral vein do?</p>

A

<p>drains blood from vertebral body into anterior external and internal plexus</p>

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67
Q

<p>What is the neural supply of the vertebral column?</p>

A

<ol> <li>recurrent meningeal nerve</li> <li>articular branchs from medial branches from posterior rami</li></ol>

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68
Q

<p>what does the recurrent meningeal nerve do?</p>

A

<p>supplies dura mater, periosteum, ligaments, disks, and blood vessels of vertebrae with sensory and sympathetic innervations</p>

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69
Q

<p>How many bones are there in the skull?</p>

A

<p>8</p>

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70
Q

<p>What are the 8 bones of the skull?</p>

A

<p>1). frontal</p>

<p>2). ethmoid</p>

<p>3). sphenoid</p>

<p>4). occipital</p>

<p>5). temporal (2)</p>

<p>6). parietal (2)</p>

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71
Q

<p>what are the 3 regions of the skull?</p>

A

<p>1). roof (calvaria)</p>

<p>2). floor (base)</p>

<p>3). occiput (back)</p>

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72
Q

<p>how many bones make up the viscerocranium (facial bones)</p>

A

<p>15</p>

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73
Q

<p>what are the 15 bones in the viscerocranium?</p>

A

<ol> <li>mandible, ethmoid, vomer, maxillae (2),</li> <li>inferior nasal conchae (2),</li> <li>zygomatic (2),</li> <li>palatines (2),</li> <li>nasals (2),</li> <li>lacrimal (2)</li></ol>

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74
Q

<p>Which bones make up the orbit?</p>

A

<p>1). frontal,</p>

<p>2). ethmoid,</p>

<p>3). Lacrimal</p>

<p>4). Sphenoid</p>

<p>5). Zygomatic</p>

<p>6). Palatine</p>

<p>7). Maxilla</p>

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75
Q

<p>roof of orbit</p>

A

<p>orbital plate of frontal bone</p>

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76
Q

<p>medial wall of orbit</p>

A

<p>ethmoid and lacrimal bones</p>

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77
Q

<p>posterior wall of orbit</p>

A

<p>Sphenoid bone</p>

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78
Q

<p>lateral wall of orbit</p>

A

<p>Zygomatic bone</p>

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79
Q

<p>floor of orbit</p>

A

<p>palatine and maxilla bones</p>

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80
Q

<p>what bone does the optic canal pass through?</p>

A

<p>sphenoid</p>

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81
Q

<p>what bone is referred to as the keystone bone of the cranial cavity?</p>

A

<p>Sphenoid bone</p>

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82
Q

<p>what is found in the sella turcica?</p>

A

<p>pituitary gland</p>

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83
Q

<p>where is the pituitary gland?</p>

A

<p>sella turcica of the sphenoid bone</p>

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84
Q

<p>what passes through the superior orbital fissure?</p>

A

<p>CN 3, 4, 6, and CN V1</p>

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85
Q

<p>what is CN V1?</p>

A

<p>ophthalmic nerve of CN 5 (trigeminal nerve)</p>

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86
Q

<p>name the nerves that pass through the superior orbital fissure</p>

A

<ol> <li>occulomotor,</li> <li>trochlear,</li> <li>trigeminal (ophthalmic branch),</li> <li>abducens</li></ol>

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87
Q

<p>what passes through the foramen rotundum?</p>

A

<p>CN V2 (trigeminal - maxillary branch)</p>

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88
Q

<p>what passes through the foramen ovale?</p>

A

<p>CN V3 (trigeminal - mandibular branch)</p>

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89
Q

<p>what passes through the foramen magnum?</p>

A

<p>1). spinal cord and brain-stem,</p>

<p>2). vertebral arteries,</p>

<p>3). CN 11 comes into the skull this way</p>

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90
Q

<p>where is the jugular foramen?</p>

A

<p>posterior cranial fossa between occipital and temporal bone</p>

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91
Q

<p>what goes through the jugular foramen?</p>

A

<p>1). internal jugular vein,</p>

<p>2). CN 9</p>

<p>3). CN 10,</p>

<p>4). CN 11 (exits here)</p>

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92
Q

<p>name the nerves that pass through the jugular foramen</p>

A

<p>1). Glossopharyngeal,</p>

<p>2). Vagus,</p>

<p>3). Spinal Accessory</p>

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93
Q

<p>what attaches at the temporal styloid process?</p>

A

<p>pharynx and larynx</p>

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94
Q

<p>temporomandibular joint articulation</p>

A

<p>mandibular fossa, head of the mandible,</p>

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95
Q

<p>what passes through the stylomastoid foramen?</p>

A

<p>CN 7 (exiting)</p>

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96
Q

<p>what passes through the internal acoustic foramen (meatus)</p>

A

<p>CN 7 (exiting) and 8</p>

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97
Q

<p>name the nerves passing through the internal acoustic foramen</p>

A

<p>Facial and vestibulocochlear</p>

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98
Q

<p>mental protuberance is commonly called the \_\_\_\_\_</p>

A

<p>Chin</p>

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99
Q

<p>where is the inferior orbital fissure?</p>

A

<p>posteriolateral aspect of maxilla in the orbit</p>

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100
Q

<p>what passes through the inferior orbital fissure?</p>

A

<p>CN V2 branch and zygomatic nerve off of V2</p>

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101
Q

<p>what forms the piriform aperture?</p>

A

<p>nasal and maxilla bone</p>

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102
Q

<p>what composite structure do the nasal and maxilla bone form?</p>

A

<p>piriform apeture</p>

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103
Q

<p>what forms the roof of the nasal cavity?</p>

A

<p>ethmoid bone</p>

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104
Q

<p>what forms the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?</p>

A

<p>1). ethmoid S/I conchae,</p>

<p>2). palatine perp plate,</p>

<p>3). inferior nasal conchae,</p>

<p>4). maxilla</p>

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105
Q

<p>what forms the floor of the nasal cavity?</p>

A

<p>1). maxilla palatine plate,</p>

<p>2). palatine bones</p>

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106
Q

<p>what forms the medial wall (nasal septum) of the nasal cavity?</p>

A

<p>1). vomer,</p>

<p>2). ethmoid perp plate,</p>

<p>3). septal cartilage</p>

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107
Q

<p>what forms the anterior cranial fossa?</p>

A

<p>frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones</p>

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108
Q

<p>what forms the middle cranial fossa?</p>

A

<p>sphenoid and temporal bones</p>

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109
Q

<p>what forms the posterior cranial fossa?</p>

A

<ol> <li>occipital</li> <li>sphenoid</li> <li>temporal bones</li></ol>

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110
Q

<p>what forms the superior and inferior temporal lines?</p>

A

<ol> <li>temporal,</li> <li>parietal,</li> <li>frontal,</li> <li>zygomatic bones</li></ol>

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111
Q

<p>what forms the zygomatic arch?</p>

A

<ol> <li>zygomatic process of temporal bone</li> <li>temporal process of zygomatic bone</li></ol>

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112
Q

<p>coronal suture</p>

A

<p>separates frontal and parietal</p>

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113
Q

<p>sagittal suture</p>

A

<p>separates right and left parietal</p>

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114
Q

<p>lambdoid suture</p>

A

<p>separates occipital from parietal</p>

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115
Q

<p>occipitomastoid suture</p>

A

<p>separates occipital from temporal</p>

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116
Q

<p>squamous (parietomastoid) suture</p>

A

<p>separates temporal from parietal</p>

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117
Q

<p>lambda</p>

A

<p>intersection of lambdoid and sagittal sutures</p>

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118
Q

<p>bregma</p>

A

<p>intersection of sagittal and coronal sutures</p>

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119
Q

<p>pterion</p>

A

<p>"H" shaped intersection of coronal, squamous, and sphenoid bone</p>

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120
Q

<p>vertex</p>

A

<p>most superior point of calvaria on sagittal suture</p>

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121
Q

<p>asterion</p>

A

<p>junction of lambdoid, occipitomastoid, and squamous</p>

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122
Q

<p>TMJ joint type</p>

A

<p>synovial; modified hinge</p>

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123
Q

<p>unique feature of TMJ hinge</p>

A

<p>divided into superior and inferior articular cavities each with its own set of movements</p>

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124
Q

<p>TMJ ligaments</p>

A

<ol> <li>lateral ligament,</li> <li>stylomandibular ligament,</li> <li>sphenomandibular ligament</li></ol>

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125
Q

<p>what does the lateral TMJ ligament prevent?</p>

A

<p>posterior dislocation</p>

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126
Q

<p>what does the stylomandibular ligament prevent?</p>

A

<p>downward dislocation</p>

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127
Q

<p>what does the sphenomandibular ligament prevent?</p>

A

<p>downward dislocation</p>

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128
Q

<p>what movements occurs at the TMJ joint?</p>

A

<ol> <li>protrusion/retrusion,</li> <li>elevation/depression,</li> <li>ab-/adduction</li></ol>

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129
Q

<p>what movements occur in the superior articular cavity of the TMJ joint?</p>

A

<p>protrusion/retrusion</p>

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130
Q

<p>what movements occur in the inferior articular cavity of the TMJ joint?</p>

A

<p>elevation/depression, ab-/adduction</p>

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131
Q

<p>what are the composite structures within the skull?</p>

A

<ol> <li>orbit,</li> <li>nasal cavity,</li> <li>hard and soft palate,</li> <li>S/I temporal lines,</li> <li>A/M/P cranial fossa,</li> <li>zygomatic arch,</li> <li>piriform aperture,</li> <li>cranial cavity</li></ol>

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132
Q

<p>Name the landmarks on the frontal bone</p>

A

<ol> <li>glabella: medially located projecting part of forehead</li> <li>nasion (bridge of nose)</li> <li>supraorbital margin</li></ol>

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133
Q

<p>How does dura mater attach to the ethmoid?</p>

A

<p>via the crista galli</p>

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134
Q

<p>A fracture of the temporal bone will lead to bleeding from what artery?</p>

A

<p>medial meningealartery, passes through the foramen spinosum</p>

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135
Q

<p>What bones in the cranium havesinuses?</p>

A

<ol> <li>Frontal</li> <li>Ethmoid</li> <li>Sphenoid</li> <li>Maxilla</li></ol>

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136
Q

<p>the carotid canal passes through what bone?</p>

A

<p>temporal</p>

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137
Q

<p>what passes through the carotid canal?</p>

A

<ol> <li>internal carotid artery</li> <li>sympathetic plexus</li></ol>

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138
Q

<p>what attaches to the soft palate?</p>

A

<p>uvula, it will flip up to cover the nasal cavity when you swallow</p>

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139
Q

<p>what is the function of the S/M/I conchae?</p>

A

<p>direct, clean, filter, humidfy air</p>

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140
Q

<p>what features of the sphenoid does CN 2 pass through?</p>

A

<p>optic canals and prechiasmatic sulcus</p>

<p></p>

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141
Q

<p>what is another name for the external occipital protuberance?</p>

A

<p>inion</p>

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142
Q

<p>what does the external acoustic meatus pass through?</p>

A

<p>petris part of the temporal bone</p>

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143
Q

<p>what forms the infraorbital margin?</p>

A

<p>Maxillae and zygomatic bones</p>

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144
Q

<p>how does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?</p>

A

<p>foramen lacerum</p>

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145
Q

<p>Muscles of mastication</p>

A

<p>1). Temporalis</p>

<p>2). Masseter</p>

<p>3). Lateral pterygoid</p>

<p>4). Medial pterygoid</p>

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146
Q

<p>what innervates all of the muscles of mastication?</p>

A

<p>trigeminal nerve</p>

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147
Q

<p>Temporalis prox attachment</p>

A

<p>floor of temporal fossa, deep surface of temporal fascia</p>

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148
Q

<p>Temporalis distal attachment</p>

A

<p>coronoid process of mandible</p>

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149
Q

<p>Temporalis innervation</p>

A

<p>Trigeminal (V3)</p>

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150
Q

<p>Temporalis action</p>

A

<p>1). elevate mandible</p>

<p>2). close jaw post</p>

<p>3). horizontal fibers retract jaw</p>

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151
Q

<p>Masseter prox attachment</p>

A

<p>zygomatic bone and zygomatic arch</p>

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152
Q

<p>Masseter distal attachment</p>

A

<p>lateral surface of ramus of mandible</p>

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153
Q

<p>Masseter innervation</p>

A

<p>Trigeminal (V3)</p>

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154
Q

<p>Masseter action</p>

A

<p>1). elevate mandible</p>

<p>2). minimal protrusion of manidble</p>

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155
Q

<p>Lateral pterygoid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>1). crest of greater wing of sphenoid</p>

<p>2). lateral pterygoid plate</p>

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156
Q

<p>Lateral pterygoid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>S: TMJ joint capsule</p>

<p>I: mandible</p>

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157
Q

<p>Lateral pterygoid innervation</p>

A

<p>Trigeminal (V3)</p>

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158
Q

<p>Lateral pterygoid action</p>

A

<p>Bi: protract mandible, depress chin</p>

<p>Uni: swings jaw toward contralateral side</p>

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159
Q

<p>Medial pterygoid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>1). medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate</p>

<p>2). tuberosity of maxilla</p>

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160
Q

<p>Medial pterygoid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>medial surface of ramus of mandible, inf to mandibular foramen</p>

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161
Q

<p>Medial pterygoid innervation</p>

A

<p>Trigeminal (V3)</p>

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162
Q

<p>Medial pterygoid action</p>

A

<p>1). synergistic to masseter in mandibular elevation</p>

<p>2). protrusion</p>

<p>3). uni move produces small grinding movements</p>

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163
Q

<p>how many muscles of the scalp contribute to facial movement?</p>

A

<p>2</p>

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164
Q

<p>what 2 muscles of the scalp contribute to facial movement?</p>

A

<p>1). Occipitofrontalis,</p>

<p>2). Epicranial aponeurosis</p>

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165
Q

<p>how many muscles of the mouth, lips, and cheek contribute to facial expression?</p>

A

<p>9</p>

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166
Q

<p>What muscles of the mouth, lips, and cheeks contribute to facial expression?</p>

A

<p>1). Orbicularis oris</p>

<p>2). Buccinator</p>

<p>3). Depressor anguli oris</p>

<p>4). Levator anguli oris</p>

<p>5). Depressor labii inferioris</p>

<p>6). levator labii superioris</p>

<p>7). Zygomaticus major</p>

<p>8). Zygomaticus minor</p>

<p>9). Platysma</p>

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167
Q

<p>orbital and nasal opening muscles</p>

A

<p>1). Orbicularis Oculi</p>

<p>2). Nasalis</p>

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168
Q

<p>What innervates all the muscles of facial expression?</p>

A

<p>CN 7 (facial nerve)</p>

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169
Q

<p>what facial muscle is responsible for frowning?</p>

A

<p>depressor anguli oris</p>

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170
Q

<p>what facial muscle is responsible for smiling?</p>

A

<p>Zygomaticus Major</p>

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171
Q

<p>what facial muscle allows you to grin/grimmace?</p>

A

<p>Levator anguli oris</p>

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172
Q

<p>what muscle closes the mouth?</p>

A

<p>Orbicularis oris</p>

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173
Q

<p>what is the function/role of the Buccinator?</p>

A

<p>synergist with the tongue to form a bolus</p>

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174
Q

<p>what facial muscle allows a pouty expression?</p>

A

<p>Depressor labii inferioris</p>

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175
Q

<p>what eye muscle is responsible for a soft close of the eye lids?</p>

A

<p>Orbicularis Occuli (Palpebral)</p>

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176
Q

<p>what eye muscle is responsible for a hard close?</p>

A

<p>Orbicularis Occuli (Orbital)</p>

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177
Q

<p>2 Fascial Compartments of the Neck</p>

A

<p>1). Superficial Cervical Fascia</p>

<p>2). Deep Cervical Fascia</p>

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178
Q

<p>what is in the superficial cervical fascia compartment?</p>

A

<p>hypodermis, cutaneous nerves, blood and lymph vessels, fat and platysma</p>

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179
Q

<p>what are the 3 general layers of the Deep Cervical Fascia?</p>

A

<p>1). Investing layer</p>

<p>2). Peritracheal layer</p>

<p>3). Prevertebral layer</p>

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180
Q

<p>what is in the investing layer?</p>

A

<p>SCM and trapezius</p>

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181
Q

<p>what is in the peritracheal layer?</p>

A

<p>trachea, esophagus, thyroid glands, and infrahyoid muscles</p>

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182
Q

<p>what is the peritracheal layer?</p>

A

<p>middle layer of deep cervical fascia, forms a CT tube from hyoid to thoracic inlet</p>

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183
Q

<p>what is the prevertebral layer?</p>

A

<p>deep layer of deep cervical fascia; forms a CT tube around C vert column and muscles</p>

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184
Q

<p>what is in the prevertebral layer?</p>

A

<ol> <li>longus colli</li> <li>longus capitis</li> <li>scalenes</li> <li>posterior deep cervical muscles</li> <li>sympathetic chain ganglia</li></ol>

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185
Q

<p>what other compartments/spaces are found in the neck?</p>

A

<p>carotid sheaths, retropharyngeal space and Alar fascia</p>

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186
Q

<p>what is in the carotid sheaths?</p>

A

<p>carotid arteries, jugular veins, vagus nerves, and lymphatics</p>

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187
Q

<p>what is the retropharyngeal space?</p>

A

<p>space between pretracheal and prevertebral fascia</p>

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188
Q

<p>what is the purpose of the retropharyngeal space?</p>

A

<p>slick surface to allow for movement of organs, increase ROM</p>

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189
Q

<p>what is the purpose of the alar fascia?</p>

A

<p>interconnects carotid sheaths, subdivides retropharyngeal space</p>

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190
Q

<p>superficial muscles of the neck</p>

A

<p>1). Platysma</p>

<p>2). Sternocleidomastoid</p>

<p>3). Trapezius</p>

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191
Q

<p>Suprahyoid muscles</p>

A

<p>1). Mylohoid</p>

<p>2). Geniohyoid</p>

<p>3). Stylohoid</p>

<p>4). Digastric</p>

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5
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192
Q

<p>Mylohoid origin</p>

A

<p>mandible and raphe</p>

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193
Q

<p>Mylohoid insertion</p>

A

<p>hyoid</p>

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194
Q

<p>Mylohoid innervation</p>

A

<p>CN5</p>

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195
Q

<p>Geniohyoid origin</p>

A

<p>mandible</p>

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196
Q

<p>Geniohyoid insertion</p>

A

<p>hyoid</p>

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197
Q

<p>Geniohyoid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

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198
Q

<p>Stylohyoid origin</p>

A

<p>temporal bone/styloid process</p>

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199
Q

<p>Stylohyoid insertion</p>

A

<p>hyoid</p>

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200
Q

<p>Stylohoid innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 7</p>

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201
Q

<p>Anterior digastric origin</p>

A

<p>mandible</p>

202
Q

<p>Anterior digastric insertion</p>

A

<p>hyoid sling</p>

203
Q

<p>Posterior digastric origin</p>

A

<p>temporal/mastoid</p>

204
Q

<p>Posterior digastric insertion</p>

A

<p>hyoid sling</p>

205
Q

<p>Anterior digastic innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 5</p>

206
Q

<p>Posterior digastric innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 7</p>

207
Q

<p>main action of all suprahyoid muscles?</p>

A

<p>elevate the larynx</p>

208
Q

<p>Infrahyoid muscles</p>

A

<p>1) Sternohyoid</p>

<p>2). Omohyoid</p>

<p>3). Sternothyroid</p>

<p>4). Thyrohyoid</p>

209
Q

<p>Sternohyoid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>sternum</p>

210
Q

<p>Sternohyoid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>Hyoid</p>

211
Q

<p>Sternohyoid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

212
Q

<p>Sternohyoid action</p>

A

<p>depress larynx</p>

213
Q

<p>Omohyoid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>S: clavicle sling</p>

<p>I: scapula/notch</p>

214
Q

<p>Omohyoid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>S: hyoid</p>

<p>I: clavicle sling</p>

215
Q

<p>what connects the S and I belly of the omohyoid?</p>

A

<p>intermediate tendon at clavicular sling</p>

216
Q

<p>Omohyoid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

217
Q

<p>Omohyoid main action</p>

A

<p>depress larynx</p>

218
Q

<p>Sternothyroid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>sternum</p>

219
Q

<p>Sternothyroid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>larynx/thyroid cartilage</p>

220
Q

<p>Sternothyroid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

221
Q

<p>Sternothyroid main action</p>

A

<p>depress larynx</p>

222
Q

<p>Thyrohyoid prox attachment</p>

A

<p>larynx thyroid cartilage</p>

223
Q

<p>Thyrohyoid distal attachment</p>

A

<p>hyoid</p>

224
Q

<p>Thyrohyoid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

225
Q

<p>Thyrohyoid main action</p>

A

<p>depress larynx</p>

226
Q

<p>Innervation of all infrahyoid muscles?</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

227
Q

<p>Main action of all infrahyoid muscles?</p>

A

<p>depress larynx for swallowing and sound modification</p>

228
Q

<p>Deep muscles of neck</p>

A

<p>1). Longus coli (S/I/),</p>

<p>2). Longus capitis,</p>

<p>3). Rectus Capitis Anterior,</p>

<p>4). Rectus capitis lateralis,</p>

<p>5). A/M/P Scalene</p>

229
Q

<p>Superior longus coli prox attachment</p>

A

<p>bodies of upper C vert</p>

230
Q

<p>Superior longus coli distal attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse process of middle C vert</p>

231
Q

<p>Inferior longus coli prox attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse process of middle C vert</p>

232
Q

<p>Inferior longus coli distal attachment</p>

A

<p>bodies of inferior C Vert and super T vert</p>

233
Q

<p>S/I longus coli action</p>

A

<p>Bi: flex</p>

<p>Uni: ab-/adduction; rotation</p>

234
Q

<p>S/I longus coli innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

235
Q

<p>Longus capitis prox attachment</p>

A

<p>skull/occipital</p>

236
Q

<p>Longus capitis distal attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse processes of middle C vert</p>

237
Q

<p>Longus capitis innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

238
Q

<p>Longus capitis action</p>

A

<p>Bi: flex</p>

<p>Uni: ab-/adduction; rotation</p>

239
Q

<p>Rectus capitis ant prox attachment</p>

A

<p>skull/occipital</p>

240
Q

<p>Rectus capitis ant distal attachment</p>

A

<p>anteriolateral mass of C1</p>

241
Q

<p>Rectus capitis ant innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

242
Q

<p>Rectus capitis ant action</p>

A

<p>Bi: flex</p>

<p>Uni: ab-/adduction; rotation</p>

243
Q

<p>Rectus capitis lateralis prox attachment</p>

A

<p>skull/occiptal</p>

244
Q

<p>Rectus capitis lateralis distal attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse process C1</p>

245
Q

<p>Rectus capitis lateralis innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

246
Q

<p>Rectus capitis lateralis action</p>

A

<p>mostly proprioception (will also flex, ab-/adduct, rotate). Very important for monitoring head position</p>

247
Q

<p>T/F: the rectus capitis lateralis can be considered a sensory organ?</p>

A

<p>TRUE</p>

248
Q

<p>Anterior scalene prox attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse p. middle C vert</p>

249
Q

<p>Anterior scalene distal attachment</p>

A

<p>rib 1</p>

250
Q

<p>Middle scalene prox attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse p middle C vert</p>

251
Q

<p>middle scalene distal attachment</p>

A

<p>rib 1</p>

252
Q

<p>Posterior scalene prox attachment</p>

A

<p>transverse p. middle C vert</p>

253
Q

<p>Posterior scalene distal attachment</p>

A

<p>rib 2</p>

254
Q

<p>A/M/P scalene innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical plexus</p>

255
Q

<p>A/M/P scalene action</p>

A

<p>Bi: flex</p>

<p>Uni: ab-/adduct; rotate</p>

<p>*lift rib cage for inspiration</p>

256
Q

<p>All the deep muscles of neck perform what actions?</p>

A

<p>Bi: flex</p>

<p>Uni: ab-/adduction; rotation</p>

257
Q

<p>Muscles of pharynx</p>

A

<p>1). S/M/I pharyngeal constrictors</p>

<p>2). palatopharyngeal</p>

<p>3). salpingopharyngeus</p>

<p>4). stylopharyngeus</p>

258
Q

<p>S/M/I pharyngeal constrictors origin</p>

A

<ol> <li>ant/lat skull,</li> <li>hyoid,</li> <li>larynx and trachea</li></ol>

259
Q

<p>S/M/I pharyngeal constrictors insertion</p>

A

<ol> <li>post skull</li> <li>raphe</li> <li>larynx</li></ol>

260
Q

<p>S/M/I pharyngeal constrictors action</p>

A

<p>constrict/squeeze walls of pharynx - reflexively during swallowing</p>

261
Q

<p>S/M/I pharyngeal constrictors innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 10</p>

262
Q

<p>Palatopharyngeal origin</p>

A

<p>palate</p>

263
Q

<p>Palatopharyngeal insertion</p>

A

<p>pharynx</p>

264
Q

<p>Palatopharyngeal innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 10</p>

265
Q

<p>Palatopharyngeal action</p>

A

<p>elevate/shorten/widen pharynx</p>

266
Q

<p>Salpingopharyngeus origin to insertion</p>

A

<p>Eustachian tube to pharynx</p>

267
Q

<p>Salpingopharyngeus innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 10</p>

268
Q

<p>Salpingopharyngeus action</p>

A

<p>elevate/shorten/widen pharynx</p>

269
Q

<p>stylopharyngeus origin to insertion</p>

A

<p>styloid process to pharynx</p>

270
Q

<p>stylopharyngeus innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 9</p>

271
Q

<p>stylopharyngeus action</p>

A

<p>elevate/shorten/widen pharynx</p>

272
Q

<p>what does the common carotid branch off of?</p>

A

<p>R: brachiocephalic</p>

<p>L: aortic arch</p>

273
Q

<p>what is it called when the common carotid splits?</p>

A

<p>carotid bifurcation</p>

274
Q

<p>Divisions of carotid bifurcation?</p>

A

<p>Internal and External Caroitd</p>

275
Q

<p>internal carotid destination?</p>

A

<p>brain and circle of Willis</p>

276
Q

<p>what is located within the Internal Carotid artery?</p>

A

<p>carotid sinus andcarotid body</p>

277
Q

<p>what does the carotid sinus sense?</p>

A

<p>Blood pressure via baroreceptors</p>

278
Q

<p>what does the carotid body sense?</p>

A

<p>pH, CO2 via chemoreceptors</p>

279
Q

<p>External Carotid artery destination?</p>

A

<p>soft structures of superficial head, supply the upper neck, surface and head</p>

280
Q

<p>branches of Subclavian artery</p>

A

<p>1). Vertebral arteries,</p>

<p>2). Thyrocervical trunk,</p>

<p>3). Costocervical trunk</p>

<p>4). Internal thoracic artery</p>

281
Q

<p>Vertebral arteries destination</p>

A

<p>brain (travel through cervical transverse foramen and then through the foramen magnum</p>

282
Q

<p>Thyrocervical trunk destinations</p>

A

<p>1). muscles at base of neck, scapula,</p>

<p>2). thyroid</p>

<p>3). cervical structure</p>

283
Q

<p>Costocervical trunk destinations</p>

A

<p>1). ribs</p>

<p>2). cervical structures</p>

284
Q

<p>Internal thoracic artery destination</p>

A

<p>anterior rib cage</p>

285
Q

<p>venous supply of the neck and skull</p>

A

<p>Jugular veins (internal, external and anterior)</p>

286
Q

<p>what does the internal jugular vein do?</p>

A

<p>drains blood from brain</p>

287
Q

<p>what does the external jugular vein do?</p>

A

<p>drains superficial structures of the head</p>

288
Q

<p>what does the anterior jugular vein do?</p>

A

<p>empties into external jugular vein at base of neck to give jugular venous arch</p>

289
Q

<p>Vagus nerve structural destinations</p>

A

<p>tongue, pharynx, thorax, and abdomen</p>

290
Q

<p>branches of Vagus nerve</p>

A

<p>1). right recurrent laryngeal</p>

<p>2). left recurrent laryngeal</p>

<p>3). cardiac branches</p>

<p>4). pharyngeal branches</p>

291
Q

<p>Right recurrent laryngeal branch</p>

A

<p>loops around R subclavian artery to trachea, esophagus and muscles of larynx</p>

292
Q

<p>Left recurrent laryngeal branch</p>

A

<p>loops around aortic arch to trachea, esophagus, and muscles of larynx</p>

293
Q

<p>Cardiac branches of the vagus nerve feed into what?</p>

A

<p>cardiac plexus of heart</p>

294
Q

<p>what forms theCervical Plexus?</p>

A

<p>ventral rami C1-C4 unit to form loops</p>

295
Q

<p>Cervical Plexus branches</p>

A

<p>1). Ansa cervicalis</p>

<p>2). Phrenic nerves</p>

<p>3). Sensory nerves</p>

296
Q

<p>Sensory nerves off of cervical plexus</p>

A

<p>1). lesser occipital n (C2)</p>

<p>2). great auricular n (C2, 3)</p>

<p>3). transverse cervical n (C3, 4)</p>

<p>4). supraclavicular n (C3, 4)</p>

297
Q

<p>what are the sympathetic trunks</p>

A

<p>groups of neurons from upper Thoracic lateral horn of spinal cord, extend along either side of Vert column from sacrum to base of skull</p>

298
Q

<p>3 cervical ganglia</p>

A

<p>1. superior ganglion</p>

<p>2. middle ganglion</p>

<p>3. inferior ganglion</p>

299
Q

<p>superior cervical ganglion form what post-ganglionic nerves?</p>

A

<p>1). superior cervical cardiac nerve to cardiac plexus</p>

<p>2). arterial branches</p>

<p>3). internal carotid (sympathetic) plexus</p>

300
Q

<p>thyroid gland location</p>

A

<p>anterior neck at C5-T1</p>

301
Q

<p>thyroid gland function</p>

A

<p>secretes T3 and T4 hormone (metabolism) and calcitonin</p>

302
Q

<p>what does calcitonin do?</p>

A

<p>stimulates CA storage, decreased blood Ca, and increases bone absorption of Ca</p>

303
Q

<p>Hyperthyroid hormones result</p>

A

<p>Addison's disease</p>

304
Q

<p>thyroid gland vasculature</p>

A

<p>superior branches of external carotid artery and inferior branches of subclavian artery</p>

305
Q

<p>thyroid gland innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical sympathetic ganglia</p>

306
Q

<p>parathyroid gland location</p>

A

<p>4 glands located on posterior thyroid</p>

307
Q

<p>parathyroid gland function</p>

A

<p>secretes PTH</p>

308
Q

<p>what does PTH do?</p>

A

<p>increase blood Ca, can decrease bone density (no PTH is fatal)</p>

309
Q

<p>parathyroid vasculature</p>

A

<p>inferior thyroid artery branching from subclavian</p>

310
Q

<p>parathyroid innervation</p>

A

<p>cervical sympathetic ganglia</p>

311
Q

<p>larynx location</p>

A

<p>connects pharynx to trachea at C3-C6 level</p>

312
Q

<p>Larynx function</p>

A

<p>sound production, prevents compression/closure of airway during swallowing</p>

313
Q

<p>Laryngeal skeleton</p>

A

<p>9 pieces of cartilage</p>

314
Q

<p>9 laryngeal cartilage pieces</p>

A

<p>1). thyroid cartilage (2)</p>

<p>2). cricoid cartilage</p>

<p>3). arytenoids cartilage (2)</p>

<p>4). vocal ligaments (2)</p>

<p>5). epiglottis 6). glottis</p>

315
Q

<p>what forms the Adam's apple?</p>

A

<p>anterior fused section of the thyroid cartilage</p>

316
Q

<p>significance of thyroid cartilage movement</p>

A

<p>protraction and retraction of thyroid important to sound modulation</p>

317
Q

<p>cricoid cartilage connection to trachea</p>

A

<p>cricotracheal ligament</p>

318
Q

<p>what forms the vocal fold?</p>

A

<p>arytenoid cartilage attached to vocal ligaments</p>

319
Q

<p>where are the vocal ligaments?</p>

A

<p>extend from mid-line of thyroid cartilage anteriorly to arytenoids cartilage posteriorly; connect to cricoid by conus elasicus</p>

320
Q

<p>epiglottis location</p>

A

<p>inferior end attached to ant thyroid cartilage, attached to arytenoids by aryepiglotic ligament</p>

321
Q

<p>intrinsic laryngeal muscles innervation</p>

A

<p>CN 10</p>

322
Q

<p>laryngeal blood vessles</p>

A

<p>superior branches from external carotid artery inferior branches from subclavian artery</p>

323
Q

<p>trachea location</p>

A

<p>mid-line of neck from C6 (larynx) to T4-5 (sternal angle)</p>

324
Q

<p>T/F: tracheal cartilage is open posterioly?</p>

A

<p>TRUE</p>

325
Q

<p>terminus of trachea</p>

A

<p>Carina -- splits into bronchi -- where cough reflex originates</p>

326
Q

<p>location of pharynx</p>

A

<p>base of cranium to base of cricoid cartilage</p>

327
Q

<p>pharynx function</p>

A

<p>passageway for food and air (swallowing), connects oral and nasal cavities to trachea</p>

328
Q

<p>subdivisions of pharynx</p>

A

<p>nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx</p>

329
Q

<p>nasopharynx location</p>

A

<p>from nasal cavity to soft palate; contains tonsils</p>

330
Q

<p>oropharynx location</p>

A

<p>from soft palate to base of tongue; contains tonsils</p>

331
Q

<p>laryngopharynx location</p>

A

<p>from superior epiglottis to esophagus</p>

332
Q

<p>blood vessels of pharynx</p>

A

<p>arteries = branches of external carotid pharyngeal venous plexus</p>

333
Q

<p>nerves to pharnyx</p>

A

<p>1). vagus to all muscles (except stylopharyngeus)</p>

<p>2). glossopharyngeal (stylopharyngeus)</p>

334
Q

<p>Posterior triangle of neck</p>

A

<p>lateral cervical region</p>

335
Q

<p>boundaries of post triangle of neck</p>

A

<ol> <li>ant - SCM</li> <li>post - trap</li> <li>inf - clavicle</li></ol>

336
Q

<p>post triangle of neck blood vessels contents</p>

A

<ol> <li>suprascapular artery,</li> <li>subclavian artery,</li> <li>external jugular vein,</li> <li>subclavian vein,</li> <li>brachiocephalic vein</li></ol>

337
Q

<p>post triangle of neck nerve contents</p>

A

<ol> <li>CN 11</li> <li>cutaneous nerves of cervical plexus</li></ol>

338
Q

<p>cutaneous nerves of cervical plexus</p>

A

<p>1). great auricular n.</p>

<p>2). lesser occipital n.</p>

<p>3). transverse cervical n.</p>

<p>4). supraclavicular n.</p>

<p>5). brachial plexus</p>

339
Q

<p>Anterior triangle boundaries</p>

A

<ol> <li>ant - median line of neck</li> <li>post - SCM</li> <li>sup - mandible</li></ol>

340
Q

<p>sub-divisions of anterior triangle</p>

A

<ol> <li>submental triangle</li> <li>submandibular triangle</li> <li>carotid triangle</li> <li>muscular triangle</li></ol>

341
Q

<p>submental triangle boundaries</p>

A

<p>1). inf - body of hyoid</p>

<p>2). right lat - right ant belly of digastric muscle</p>

<p>3). left lat - left ant belly of digastric muscle</p>

342
Q

<p>submental triangle contents</p>

A

<p>lymph nodes and small veins</p>

343
Q

<p>floor of submental triangle</p>

A

<p>mylohyoid, expect to find CN V3 here</p>

344
Q

<p>submandibular triangle boundaries</p>

A

<p>1). sup - inferior border of mandible</p>

<p>2). ant - ant belly of digastric</p>

<p>3). posterior - post belly of digastric and stylohyoid</p>

345
Q

<p>submandibular triangle contents</p>

A

<ol> <li>submandibular salivary gland,</li> <li>CN 12,</li> <li>CN 5 branch,</li> <li>branches of external carotid to face,</li> <li>facial artery and vein,</li> <li>submental artery</li></ol>

346
Q

<p>carotid triangle boundaries</p>

A

<p>1). sup - post belly digastric along w/stylohyoid</p>

<p>2). inf med - sup belly of omohyoid</p>

<p>3). inf lat - SCM</p>

347
Q

<p>contents of carotid triangle</p>

A

<ol> <li>pulse site,</li> <li>thyroid,</li> <li>common cartoid branching toin/ex carotid,</li> <li>carotid body,</li> <li>internal jugular vein and branches,</li> <li>CN 11,</li> <li>CN 12,</li> <li>ansa cervicalis,</li> <li>CN 10,</li> <li>sympathetic plexus</li></ol>

348
Q

<p>branches of external carotid</p>

A

<ol> <li>ascending pharyngeal artery,</li> <li>occipital artery,</li> <li>facial artery,</li> <li>superior thyroid artery</li></ol>

349
Q

<p>muscular triangle boundaries</p>

A

<p>1). med - medial plane of neck</p>

<p>2). sup lat - sup belly of omohyoid</p>

<p>3). inf lat - SCM</p>

350
Q

<p>Muscular triangle contents</p>

A

<ol> <li>thyroid gland,</li> <li>parathyroid glands,</li> <li>larynx,</li> <li>trachea,</li> <li>esophagus,</li> <li>ant jugular vein,</li> <li>communicating veins,</li> <li>recurrent laryngeal nerve</li></ol>

351
Q

<p>what fascia compartment is located in the muscular triangle?</p>

A

<p>peritracheal</p>

352
Q

<p>which subdivision of the anterior triangle is not paired?</p>

A

<p>submental triangle</p>

353
Q

<p>which subdivisions of the anterior triangle are paired?</p>

A

<p>1). Submandibular</p>

<p>2). Carotid</p>

<p>3). Muscular</p>

354
Q

<p>which ribs are true ribs?</p>

A

<p>1-7</p>

355
Q

<p>what determines a true rib?</p>

A

<p>attaches directly to sternum via costal cartilage</p>

356
Q

<p>which ribs are false indirectly attached ribs?</p>

A

<p>8-10</p>

357
Q

<p>which ribs are false floating ribs?</p>

A

<p>11-12</p>

358
Q

<p>ribs are what type of bone?</p>

A

<p>curved flat bones</p>

359
Q

<p>heads of ribs 2-9 articulation</p>

A

<p>Sup facet: vertebral body aboveInf facet: vertebral body belowCrest - projection between articular facets</p>

360
Q

<p>what is found in the costal groove?</p>

A

<p>intercostal blood vessels, nerve, and muscles</p>

361
Q

<p>what part of the rib forms the costochondral joint?</p>

A

<p>cup for the costal cartilage</p>

362
Q

<p>T2-T9 articulate with ribs where?</p>

A

<p>bilaterally demifacets on sup/inf surfaces</p>

363
Q

<p>plane of articular processes allows T vert to do what?</p>

A

<p>rotate and ab-/adduct but not FL/EX</p>

364
Q

<p>joint type for manubrium and 1st rib</p>

A

<p>synchondrosis</p>

365
Q

<p>Costovertebral joint type</p>

A

<p>articulations are planar but overall joint is condyloid</p>

366
Q

<p>Costovertebral joint, # of articulations</p>

A

<p>typically 3 (ribs 2-9)</p>

367
Q

<p>Costovertebral joint ligaments</p>

A

<p>1). strong capsule 2). intra-articular ligament 3). radiate ligament</p>

368
Q

<p>collective movements at the Costovertebral joints?</p>

A

<p>pump/bucket handle -- each articulation rotates a little which collectively elevates/depresses the sternum</p>

369
Q

<p>how many articulations does a costotransverse joint have?</p>

A

<p>1 articulation per rib</p>

370
Q

<p>where does the costotransverse joint articulate?</p>

A

<p>transverse process of the inferior vertebrae</p>

371
Q

<p>Costotransverse joint type</p>

A

<p>planar</p>

372
Q

<p>ribs 1-6 costotransverse joints</p>

A

<p>slightly convex (rib) with concave (transverse process) -- allow rotation = pump handle</p>

373
Q

<p>ribs 7-10 costrotransverse joints</p>

A

<p>flat planar - allow gliding = bucket handle</p>

374
Q

<p>Costotransverse joint ligaments</p>

A

<p>weak capsule, lateral and superior costotransverse ligaments</p>

375
Q

<p>Sternocostal joints</p>

A

<p>1). rib 1 - synchondrosis 2). ribs 2-10 have costochondral and sternochondral joints</p>

376
Q

<p>costochondral joint type</p>

A

<p>synchondrosis (rib to cartilage)</p>

377
Q

<p>sternochondral joint type</p>

A

<p>synovial planer (cartilage to sternum)</p>

378
Q

<p>sternochondral joint rib 1</p>

A

<p>syncondrosis</p>

379
Q

<p>sternochondral joint ribs 2-10</p>

A

<p>synovial planar/gliding</p>

380
Q

<p>superior aperture borders</p>

A

<p>1). post - T1 body2). lat - rib 13). ant - manubrium</p>

381
Q

<p>superior aperture contents</p>

A

<p>esophagus, trachea, nerves (vagus, sympathetic trunk, cervical plexus), blood vessels (carotids, subclavian, vertebral, jugular)</p>

382
Q

<p>inferior aperture borders</p>

A

<p>1). post - T12 body 2). lat post - 11 &amp;12 ribs 3). lat ant - costal cartilage ribs 7-10 4). ant - xiphosternal joint</p>

383
Q

<p>what is the inferior aperture covered by?</p>

A

<p>respiratory diaphragm</p>

384
Q

<p>inferior aperture contents</p>

A

<p>esophagus, nerves (vagus, sympathetic chain), blood vessels (inf vena cava, descending aorta), internal thoracic arteries</p>

385
Q

<p>what are the internal thoracic arteries called as they pass the diaphragm?</p>

A

<p>superior epigastric arteries</p>

386
Q

<p>subdivisions of thoracic cavity</p>

A

<p>R/L Pleural cavity, mediastium</p>

387
Q

<p>what is in the mediastium?</p>

A

<p>pericardial cavity, esophagus, trachea, great vessels, nerves</p>

388
Q

<p>Muscles of the thoracic cavity</p>

A

<p>1). Serratus posterior (S/I)</p>

<p>2). Levator Costarum</p>

<p>3). External intercostals</p>

<p>4). Internal intercostals</p>

<p>5). innermost intercostals</p>

<p>6). subcostal</p>

<p>7). transversus thoracis</p>

389
Q

<p>Serratus posterior superior, origin</p>

A

<p>S: spinous processes C7-T3</p>

390
Q

<p>Serratus posterior superior, insertion</p>

A

<p>ribs 2-4</p>

391
Q

<p>Serratus posterior superior, innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerves</p>

392
Q

<p>Serratus posterior superior, action</p>

A

<p>proprioception for respiration control</p>

393
Q

<p>Serratus posterior inferior origin</p>

A

<p>spinous processes T11-L2</p>

394
Q

<p>Serratus posterior inferior insertion</p>

A

<p>ribs 9-12</p>

395
Q

<p>Serratus posterior inferior, innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

396
Q

<p>serratus posterior inferior, action</p>

A

<p>proprioception for respiration control</p>

397
Q

<p>Levator costarum origin</p>

A

<p>transverse processes of C7-T11</p>

398
Q

<p>Levator costarum insertion</p>

A

<p>rib below</p>

399
Q

<p>Levator costarum innervation</p>

A

<p>dorsal rami</p>

400
Q

<p>Levator costarum action</p>

A

<p>elevate ribs for inspiration</p>

401
Q

<p>external intercostals origin</p>

A

<p>superior rib</p>

402
Q

<p>external intercostals insertion</p>

A

<p>inferior rib</p>

403
Q

<p>external intercostals innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

404
Q

<p>external intercostals action</p>

A

<p>elevate adjacent rib for inspiration</p>

405
Q

<p>internal intercostals origin</p>

A

<p>inferior rib</p>

406
Q

<p>internal intercostals insertion</p>

A

<p>superior rib</p>

407
Q

<p>internal intercostals innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

408
Q

<p>internal intercostals action</p>

A

<p>depress adjacent rib for expiration</p>

409
Q

<p>innermost intercostals origin</p>

A

<p>inferior rib</p>

410
Q

<p>innermost intercostal insertion</p>

A

<p>superior rib</p>

411
Q

<p>innermost intercostal innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

412
Q

<p>innermost intercostal action</p>

A

<p>depress adjacent rib expiration</p>

413
Q

<p>subcostal origin</p>

A

<p>inferior rib</p>

414
Q

<p>subcostal insertion</p>

A

<p>superior rib 2 or 3 above</p>

415
Q

<p>subcostal innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

416
Q

<p>subcostal action</p>

A

<p>depress ribs for expiration</p>

417
Q

<p>transversus thoracis origin</p>

A

<p>sternum</p>

418
Q

<p>transversus thoracis insertion</p>

A

<p>costal cartilage</p>

419
Q

<p>transversus thoracis innervation</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

420
Q

<p>transversus thoracis action</p>

A

<p>proprioception for respiration control</p>

421
Q

<p>ventral rami T1-11</p>

A

<p>intercostal nerve</p>

422
Q

<p>what are the intercostal nerves further divided to?</p>

A

<p>S/I collateral branches and Lat/Ant cutaneous</p>

423
Q

<p>ventral rami T12</p>

A

<p>subcostal nerve</p>

424
Q

<p>sympathetic chain ganglia</p>

A

<p>connected to ventral rami by rami communicants; located on either side of vertebral bodies forming thoracic vertebral column</p>

425
Q

<p>blood supply to Ant and Ant/lat thoracic wall</p>

A

<p>R/L subclavian arteries -> internal thoracic artery -> ant intercostals arteries -> ant and lat intercostals spaces of ribs 1-10</p>

426
Q

<p>blood supply to post and post/lat thoracic wall</p>

A

<p>descending abdominal aorta -> paired post intercostal arteries -> post and post/lat intercostals spaces of ribs 4-11</p>

427
Q

<p>Anterior intercostal veins</p>

A

<p>internal thoracic veins -> brachiocephalic vein</p>

428
Q

<p>posterior intercostals veins</p>

A

<p>azygos/hemiazygos system -> superior vena cava</p>

429
Q

<p>lymph flow</p>

A

<p>blood plasma -> capillary filtration -> ECF -> lymph capillary -> lymph fluid -> lymph vessel -> lymph nodes -> lymph trunk -> lymph duct</p>

430
Q

<p>2 lymph ducts</p>

A

<p>Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracic Duct</p>

431
Q

<p>what does the Right lymphatic duct drain?</p>

A

<p>right side of head, arm, and thorax</p>

432
Q

<p>what does the Thoracic duct drain?</p>

A

<p>left side head, arm, thorax, and entire abdomen, pelvis, legs</p>

433
Q

<p>structural components of the mammary gland</p>

A

<p>1). glandular tissue</p>

<p>2). lactiferous ducts/sinus</p>

<p>3). nipple</p>

<p>4). areola</p>

<p>5). fat</p>

<p>6) retro-mammary space</p>

<p>7). pectoralis fascia</p>

<p>8). suspensory (Cooper's) ligaments</p>

434
Q

<p>anterior arterial blood flow to the mammary glands</p>

A

<p>anterior intercostal -> medial mammary branches</p>

435
Q

<p>axillary arterial blood flow to the mammary glands</p>

A

<p>axillary artery -> lateral thoracic and thoracoacromial -> lateral breast</p>

436
Q

<p>posterior arterial blood flow to the mammary glands</p>

A

<p>posterior intercostals artery -> deep structures</p>

437
Q

<p>mediastinum</p>

A

<p>area between pleural cavities</p>

438
Q

<p>what is inside the mediastinum?</p>

A

<p>heart and pericardium</p>

439
Q

<p>contents outside the pericardium</p>

A

<p>1). thymus</p>

<p>2). veins</p>

<p>3). arteries</p>

<p>4). nerves</p>

<p>5). trachea and primary bronchi</p>

<p>6). esophagus</p>

<p>7). thoracic duct</p>

440
Q

<p>which veins are found in the mediastinum outside the pericardium?</p>

A

<p>1). R/L brachiocephalic</p>

<p>2). superior vena cava</p>

<p>3). azygos veins</p>

441
Q

<p>which arteries are found in the mediastinum outside the pericardium?</p>

A

<p>1). aortic arch/descending aorta/ branches to thoracic structures</p>

<p>2). pulmonary truck with R/L pulmonary artery branches</p>

<p>3). brachiocephalic trunk</p>

<p>4). left carotid</p>

<p>5). left subclavian</p>

442
Q

<p>which nerves are found in the mediastinum outside the pericardium?</p>

A

<p>1). vagus &amp;recurrent laryngeal branches > esophageal plexus</p>

<p>2). phrenic</p>

<p>3). cardiac plexus (sympathetic &amp;parasympathetic)</p>

<p>4). sympathetic chain ganglia</p>

443
Q

<p>layers of the pericardium</p>

A

<p>1). fibrous pericardium</p>

<p>2). serous pericardium</p>

<p>3). visceral pericardium</p>

444
Q

<p>what is the fibrous pericardium</p>

A

<p>outer layer of pericardium; suspends the heart in loose CT of mediastinum, protects it from over filling</p>

445
Q

<p>what is the serous pericardium?</p>

A

<p>serous membrane forming the inner lining of pericardium (parietal pericardium)</p>

446
Q

<p>what is the visceral pericardium?</p>

A

<p>serous membrane forming the outer covering of the heart (epicardium)</p>

447
Q

<p>what is the orientation of the heart?</p>

A

<p>oblique, off center with 2/3 on L of mid-sagitall plane</p>

448
Q

<p>venous supply to the right atria</p>

A

<p>1). Superior vena cava - blood from head, arms and thorax</p>

<p>2). inferior vena cava - blood from abdomen, pelvis, and legs</p>

<p>3). coronary sinus - blood from heart myocardium</p>

449
Q

<p>valve between R atria and ventricle</p>

A

<p>R atrioventricular (AV) valve = tricuspid valve</p>

450
Q

<p>left AV valve</p>

A

<p>bicuspid/mitral valve</p>

451
Q

<p>valve between R atria and pulmonary trunk</p>

A

<p>pulmonary semilunar valve</p>

452
Q

<p>valve between L ventricle and aorta</p>

A

<p>aortic semilunar valve</p>

453
Q

<p>layers of the heart wall</p>

A

<p>1). epicardium</p>

<p>2). myocardium</p>

<p>3). endocardium</p>

454
Q

<p>what is the endocardium?</p>

A

<p>simple squamous epithelial lining of the heart chambers</p>

455
Q

<p>what attaches to AV valve flaps and close valves</p>

A

<p>chorde tendenae and papillary muscles</p>

456
Q

<p>what do the trabeculae carneae do?</p>

A

<p>muscular ridges found on the inner surface of both ventricles</p>

457
Q

<p>where are the pectinate muscles?</p>

A

<p>ridges found on the inner surface on both atria</p>

458
Q

<p>where are the auricles?</p>

A

<p>R/L pouches attached to the R/L atria</p>

459
Q

<p>what is the fibrous skeleton of the heart?</p>

A

<p>dense CT associated with the bases of the 4 valves. Acts as an insulator to electrically isolate atria from ventricles to create 2 heart pumps</p>

460
Q

<p>where does the right coronary artery branch to?</p>

A

<p>1). SA node</p>

<p>2). base of heart</p>

<p>3). posterior R/L ventricles and IVC</p>

<p>4). AV node</p>

461
Q

<p>where does the left coronary artery branch to?</p>

A

<p>1). SA node (40%)</p>

<p>2). Ant R and L ventricles and IVS</p>

<p>3). post surface</p>

<p>4). left border</p>

<p>5). post R and L ventricles and IVC (30%)</p>

462
Q

<p>where dothe R/L coronary arteriesrun?</p>

A

<p>in AV sulcus</p>

463
Q

<p>how does the right coronary artery get to the Post R/L ventricles and IVC?</p>

A

<p>via posterior interventricular</p>

464
Q

<p>how does the right coronary artery get to the base of the heart?</p>

A

<p>right marginal</p>

465
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery get to the Ant R/L ventricles and IVS?</p>

A

<p>via anterior interventricular artery = left anterior descending artery</p>

466
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery get to the posterior surface of the heart?</p>

A

<p>via circumflex artery</p>

467
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery get to the left border of the heart?</p>

A

<p>via marginal artery</p>

468
Q

<p>where do the veins of the heart drain?</p>

A

<p>into great cardiac vein (left coronary sulcus) -> coronary sinus -> right atria</p>

469
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery run to the ant R/L ventricles and IVS?</p>

A

<p>via anterior inter ventricular artery and left anterior descending artery</p>

470
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery branch to the posterior surface of the heart?</p>

A

<p>via circumflex artery</p>

471
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery run to the left border of the heart?</p>

A

<p>via the marginal artery</p>

472
Q

<p>how does the left coronary artery branch to the post R/L ventricles and IVC?</p>

A

<p>via posterior inter-ventricular artery</p>

473
Q

<p>how does the R coronary artery branch to the base of the heart?</p>

A

<p>via right marginal artery</p>

474
Q

<p>how does the R coronary artery branch to the posterior R/L ventricles and IVC?</p>

A

<p>via posterior inter-ventricular artery</p>

475
Q

<p>T/F: the fibrous pericardium is continuous with the serous pericardium</p>

A

<p>TRUE</p>

476
Q

<p>What is the intrinsic pathway for coronary innervation?</p>

A

<p>SA node (pacemaker) -> internodal fibers -> AV node (delay) -> AV bundle of HIS -> bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers</p>

477
Q

<p>what is found in the hilum of the lungs?</p>

A

<ol> <li>pulmonary arteries and veins</li> <li>bronchial arteries and veins</li> <li>primary (main) bronchus</li> <li>lymphatics</li> <li>nerves</li> <li>pulmonary ligament</li></ol>

478
Q

<p>what is the pulmonary ligament?</p>

A

<p>fold of viseral and parietal pleura connecting lungs to mediastinum</p>

479
Q

<p>what portion of the airway has thick walls with no gas exchange?</p>

A

<p>the conducting portion</p>

480
Q

<p>name the structures in the conducting portion of the airway</p>

A

<ol> <li>Oral and nasal cavities</li> <li>Pharynx</li> <li>Larynx</li> <li>Trachea</li> <li>Primary bronchi</li> <li>Secondary bronchi (to lobes)</li> <li>Tertiary bonchi (segmental, ~10 per lung)</li> <li>Bronchioles</li> <li>Terminal bronchioles</li></ol>

481
Q

<p>what portion of the airway is responsible for gas exchange?</p>

A

<p>Respiratory portion</p>

482
Q

<p>Name the structures in the respiratory portion of the airway</p>

A

<ol> <li>Respiratory bronchioles (lubulues)</li> <li>Alveolar duct</li> <li>Alveolar sac</li> <li>Alveoli</li></ol>

483
Q

<p>superior surface of abdomen</p>

A

<p>diaphragm (domed to 4th intercostals space)</p>

484
Q

<p>inferior surface of abdomen</p>

A

<p>pelvic inlet (superior pelvic apeture)</p>

485
Q

<p>anterolateral surface of abdomen</p>

A

<p>muscular wall</p>

486
Q

<p>posterior surface of abdomen</p>

A

<p>lumber vertebrae</p>

487
Q

<p>what lines the abdominal cavity?</p>

A

<p>Peritoneum</p>

488
Q

<p>what is visceral peritoneum?</p>

A

<p>serous membrane covering abdominal organs</p>

489
Q

<p>what is parietal peritoneum?</p>

A

<p>serous membrane lining cavity</p>

490
Q

<p>what is the peritoneal cavity?</p>

A

<p>fluid filled space in abdomen</p>

491
Q

<p>what is the mesentery?</p>

A

<p>continuation of visceral and parietal peritoneum that attaches organ to body wall</p>

492
Q

<p>what planes create the abdominal quadrants?</p>

A

<p>Transumbilicial plane (S/I halves)</p>

<p>Median plane (R/L halves)</p>

493
Q

<p>what is in the right upper quadrant?</p>

A

<p>1). R lobe of liver</p>

<p>2). gallbladder</p>

<p>3). Stomach: pylorus</p>

<p>4). Pancreas head</p>

<p>5). R kidney</p>

494
Q

<p>what is in the right lower quadrant?</p>

A

<p>1). Cecum</p>

<p>2). Appendix</p>

<p>3). Most of ileum</p>

<p>4). R Ovary, Uterine tube</p>

<p>5). R ureter &amp;spermatic cord</p>

495
Q

<p>what is in the left upper quadrant?</p>

A

<p>1). Liver L lobe</p>

<p>2). spleen</p>

<p>3). stomach</p>

<p>4). Jejunum &amp; prox ileum</p>

<p>5). Pancreas: body and tail</p>

496
Q

<p>what is in the left lower quadrant?</p>

A

<p>1). Sigmoid colon</p>

<p>2). Descending colon: Inf part</p>

<p>3). L ovary &amp;uterine tube</p>

<p>4). L ureter &amp;spermatic cord</p>

497
Q

<p>anterior peripheral attachment of the diaphragm</p>

A

<p>xiphoid process</p>

498
Q

<p>lateral peripheral attachment of the diaphragm</p>

A

<p>costal cartilage and ribs 5-10</p>

499
Q

<p>posterior peripheral attachment of the diaphragm</p>

A

<p>L1-3 vertebrae and floating ribs</p>

500
Q

<p>Deep attachment of the diaphragm</p>

A

<p>central tendon</p>

DPT Semester 1 (12 decks)

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