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Biology > Anatomy & Physiology Of Animals & Humans > Flashcards

Anatomy & Physiology Of Animals & Humans Flashcards

1
Q

What is the classification of systems?

A

Cells → tissues → organs → organ system → organism

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2
Q

What are the 4 different types of tissue in humans & animals

A

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous

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3
Q

What is a example of epithelial tissue?

A

Skin, surfaces of also organs

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4
Q

What is the most fundamental function of epithelial tissue?

A

Physical protection

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5
Q

What is the simple squamous & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
alveoli, inner lining of blood vessels (endothelium), lining of the heart (endocardium)
Specialized in allowing movement of molecules (gases, nutrients & waste products) across the cell
Secretion of lubricating substances
Act as a barrier to prevent loss of fluid & electrolytes

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6
Q

What is simple cuboidal? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
Nephron in the kidney, ducts & glands
Absorbtion & secretion of fluids

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7
Q

What is simple columnar? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
Digestive system, bronchi, uterine tubes & uterus
Absorb & secrete
Can be ciliated

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8
Q

What is stratified squamous? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
Skin, line of oesophagos, mouth & vagina
Protection, prevention of water loss
Can be keratinized

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9
Q

What are all the functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Physical protection, absorption, sensation & secretion

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10
Q

What is the epidermis?

A

The skin

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11
Q

What is the main function of landerhond cell? (The skin)

A

Maintain immunity, decide immune response to pathogen coming through

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12
Q

What is the main function of the Merkel cell? & which layer does it exist on (The skin)

A

Detect physical toch / receive sensation, the basal layer

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13
Q

What are melanocytes? (the skin)

A

Pigment cells

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14
Q

How many kinds of connective tissue is there & what are they called?

A

4, connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone & blood

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15
Q

What are the 2 kinds of supportive connective tissue?

A

Cartilage & bone

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16
Q

What is a mesenchyme?

A

A cell that develops into all types of connective tissue, the embryological stem cell

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17
Q

What are the function of connective tissue?

A

Support, bind, storage, immune defence, transport & protection

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18
Q

What are the 2 types of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose, dense

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19
Q

What is areolor tissue?

A

Type of loose connective tissue that has all the different types of cells & fibers found in connective tissue

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20
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage & fibrocartilage

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21
Q

What is the most common type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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22
Q

Example of where hyeline cartilage can be found?

A

Hassle, trachea, connection of ribs to sternum

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23
Q

What does elastin allow for and what kind of cartilage has a high number of them?

A

Elastic cartilage

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24
Q

Is cartilage naturally repairable?

A

No has to be done through surgery

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25
Q

What does fibroblast do?

A

Lay down bone

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26
Q

What does fibroclast do?

A

Break down bone

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27
Q

What are the 3 kinds of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

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28
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscle? Can we control it?

A

Locomotion/movement, yes it is voluntary

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29
Q

What does syncytinum mean? (cell of skeletal muscle)

A

Each cellular unit contains multiple nuclei

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30
Q

What is the function of smooth muscle & where are they? Can we control it?

A

Found in digestive tract & blood vessels, peristalses (prevents food from coming up, pushes it down). Involuntary

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31
Q

What is the function of cardiac muscle? Can we control it?

A

Pump blood, only heart, involuntary

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32
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle fibers?

A

Fast twitch, slow twitch & intermediate

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33
Q

What is the basic unit of the nervous system?

A

Neuron

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34
Q

What do the schwann’s cells & myelin sheath do in a neuron?

A

Speed up transmission of signal

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35
Q

What at the 3 types of neurons?

A

Motor (efferent), sensory (afferent) & interneuron ( relay neuron)

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36
Q

How many bones are typically in the human body?

A

206

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37
Q

How many bones does the axial Skelton have?

A

80

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38
Q

How many bones are in the skull + associate bones?

A

29

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39
Q

How many bones in the thoracic cage?

A

25

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40
Q

How many bones in the vertebral column? How many are vertebrae’s

A

26, 24

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41
Q

What are the region of spine/ vertebrae called?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar & coccygeal

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42
Q

How many bones in the appendicular skeleton? & what does it include?

A

Arms, legs, clavicle, scapula, hands & feet, 126

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43
Q

What is the basic functions of the frontal lobe?

A

Motor control, problem solving & speech

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44
Q

What is the basic functions of the parietal lobe?

A

Sensory & body orientation

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45
Q

What is the basic functions of the occipital lobe?

A

Sight

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46
Q

What is the basic functions of the cerebellum?

A

Balance & coordination

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47
Q

What is the basic functions of the brain stem?

A

Pulse, breathing, reflexes & involuntary functions keeping us alive

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48
Q

What is the basic functions of the temporal lobe?

A

Auditory, language, memory

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49
Q

What flows in the meninges? (Brain anatomy

A

Ceribal spinal fluid

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50
Q

What is the function of the corpus collosum? (brain anatomy)

A

Relaying information between the 2 sides of the brain in order to coordinate movement

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51
Q

What does the thalamus do? (Brain anatomy)

A

Redistributes the info from different parts of the brain

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52
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus? (Brain anatomy )

A

Homeostatic responses, release hormones

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53
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland? (Brain anatomy )

A

Release hormones based on signals from the hypothalamus

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54
Q

What are the functions of the right ventricle? ( Circulatory systems )

A

Pump deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery

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55
Q

Where does the deoxygenated blood go when pumped from the right ventricle? (Circulatory system)

A

Through the pulmonary artery to the lungs

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56
Q

Difference between artery & vein?

A

Artery carries oxygenated blood away from the heart & veins carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart
Arteries pump blood away from the heart & veins towards the heart

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57
Q

What is the structural difference between artery & vein?

A

The thickness of connective tissue & tunica media (smooth muscle & elastic fibers) & veins have one way valves

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58
Q

Which has higher blood flow, artery or vein?

A

Artery

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59
Q

What is the inner layer of the blood vessels?

A

Endothelium

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60
Q

What kind of tissue is Endothelium?

A

Connective tissue

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61
Q

What kind of blood vessel is responsible for slowing down the blood from the ateries?

A

Arterioles

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62
Q

Blood volume in males

A

5-6 L

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63
Q

Blood volume in females

A

4-5 L

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64
Q

How much of the total body mass does blood make up?

A

6-8%

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65
Q

How much of the extracellular fluid does blood make up?

A

20% ecf

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66
Q

How much of the blood does plasma make up?

A

55%

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67
Q

How much of the blood does formed elements make up? & what is it?

A

45%, buffy coat ( platelets & white blood cells) & red blood cells

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68
Q

Different name for red blood cells

A

Erythrocytes

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69
Q

Different name for white blood cells?

A

Lenkocytes

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70
Q

What is heart contraction called?

A

Systole

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71
Q

What is heart relaxation called?

A

Diastole

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72
Q

What are the valves between the atrium & ventricle in the heart called?

A

Av valve

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73
Q

What is the wall separating the two ventricles in the heart called?

A

Septum

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74
Q

Different names for the sa node & its function? (Heart)

A

Sinoatrial node / pacemaker, sets the electrical activity, where electrical activity in the heart begins

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75
Q

What is the regular heart beat without stimuli from the brain?

A

100 b/min

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76
Q

Resting heart rate with parasympathetic stimuli from the brain

A

60-70 b/min

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77
Q

Heart rate with sympathetic stimuli from the brain? (During exercise)

A

220 b/min

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78
Q

Where is the sa node located?

A

Right atrium

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79
Q

What is an ecg?

A

Electrocardiogram

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80
Q

What are the 2 heart sounds?

A

Lub ( s1) & dub ( s2)

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81
Q

How many Chambers in the human heart?

A

4

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82
Q

Which side is the tricuspid valve on? (Heart anatomy )

A

The Right

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83
Q

How much blood do the different chambers hold in comparison to eachother?

A

They all hold the same amount

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84
Q

What is the largest artery in the body?

A

The aorta

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85
Q

Which vessel has the highest blood pressure?

A

The aorta

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86
Q

How many layers does the heart have & what are they called?

A

3, endocardium, myocardium & pericardium

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87
Q

What are the 2 layers of the pericardium called? (Heart anatomy)

A

Visceral & parietal

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88
Q

What is the space between the 2 pericardial layers called?

A

Pericardial cavity

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89
Q

What is the coronary circulation?

A

What delivers blood to the lakes of the heart

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90
Q

What is tachycardia? (Heart)

A

Heart rate over 100 bpm

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91
Q

What is bradycardia? (Heart)

A

Heart rate under 60bpm

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92
Q

What is automaticity?

A

Something done involuntarily / un consciously, innate process

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93
Q

What makes the sounds of the heart?

A

The valves in the heart closing

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94
Q

What is the stroke volume?

A

Volume of blood pumped from the heart with each beat

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95
Q

How is the stroke volume determined?

A

End-diastolic volume - end-systolic volume = Sv

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96
Q

How is cardiac output determined?

A

Co = heart rate x stroke volume

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97
Q

What does cardiac output tell us?

A

Volume of blood pumped by the heart in one min

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98
Q

What is total peripheral resistance (Tpr)?

A

Total resistance blood faces when flowing through rescurature

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99
Q

What is vasodiacation? (Blood vessels)

A

Increase in blood vessel diameter

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100
Q

What is vasoconstriction? (Blood vessels)

A

Decrease in diameter of blood vessel

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101
Q

What is mean atrial pressure ( map )?

A

Average arterial pressure during one complete cordial cycle

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102
Q

How is mean arterial pressure calculated?

A

Map= cardiac output x total peripheral resistance

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103
Q

What is the central pore/ hole in the middle of the blood vessel called?

A

Lumen

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104
Q

What is a capillary? (Blood vessel)

A

Smallest diameter blood vessel, connect anterioles & vesicles, site of nutrient exchange

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105
Q

What is the one cellular layer that makes up capillaries? (Blood vessels)

A

Tunica intimate aka endothelium

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106
Q

What are fenestra? (Capillary blood vessels)

A

Small pores that allow for nutrients to enter capillaries more efficiently

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107
Q

What is a portal system? (Blood vessels)

A

When 2 capillary beds are connected Via portal vein

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108
Q

Do white blood cells/leukocytes contain a nucleus?

A

Yes

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109
Q

Do platelets contain a nucleus? (blood)

A

No

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110
Q

What is the main job of red blood cells/ erythrocytes?

A

Deliver oxygen

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111
Q

Which lung is the smallest & why?

A

The left lung. Because of the slight left placement of the heart

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112
Q

How many lobes does the right & left lung have?

A

Right has 3 & left 2

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113
Q

What is the tidal volume? (lung)

A

Amount of air going in & out during respiration

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114
Q

What are the 3 parts of the upper respiratory tract? Top to bottom

A

Nasal cavity, pharynx & larynx

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115
Q

What are the 3 parts of the lower respiratory tract? Top to bottom

A

Trachea, bronci, lungs

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116
Q

What are the 4 parts of the lungs? Top to bottom

A

Terminal bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole, alveolor duct & alveoli

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117
Q

Where in the lungs does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveoli (sometimes alveoli duct)

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118
Q

What are the 2 outer layers of the lungs called? & what is in between (start with inner layer)

A

Visceral pleura, cavity, parietal pleuron

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119
Q

What is the main driver of gas exchange ? (respiratory system)

A

Partial gas pressure causing diffusion

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120
Q

What part of the respiratory system has cartilage & goblet cells?

A

Trachea & bronchus

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121
Q

What 2 things are responsible for creating mucus?

A

Goblet cells & cilia

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122
Q

What part of the lung system has smooth muscle?

A

Trachea, bronchus & terminal bronchiole

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123
Q

What does the smooth muscle in the lung system do?

A

Reduce radius to avoid cold air getting to the alveoli

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124
Q

What carries oxygen in the blood & how many molecules?

A

Hemoglobin, 4 oxygen molecous per 1 hemoglobin

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125
Q

How is co2 transported in the blood?

A

Most is transported as hydrogen carbonate as it combines w/ water, some is carbamino- haemoglobin & very little as pure co2 in the solution

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126
Q

What is transpulmonary pressure?

A

PL (intrapulmonary, in the lung) -PIP (intrapleural pressure) = transpulmonary pressure

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127
Q

Steps of inspiration?

A
  1. Diaphragm descend rib cage out/up, volume increase & pressure decrease
  2. Interpleural pressure decrees
  3. Atmospheric pressure >pip
  4. Air comes inside lungs
  5. Patm = pip
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128
Q

Steps of expiration?

A
  1. Diaphragm rise, riscage descend, volume decrease & pressure increase
  2. Pip > PATM
  3. air flows out
  4. Pip = Patm
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129
Q

What is the residual volume of the lung?

A

Air you can’t breath out as the lung would collapse

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130
Q

What is the expiratory reserve volume of the lungs?

A

The air you can force out

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131
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume of the lungs?

A

Max air you can breathe in

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132
Q

What is tidal volume of the lungs?

A

What you breath in & out normally

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133
Q

4 common heart diseases

A

Congenital heart diseases (from birth)
Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
Cardiac arrest (heart stops)
Heart failure (frail heart stops working)

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134
Q

6 common blood vessel diseases

A

Aneurysm (bulge in blood vessel which can burst)
Hypertension (high blood pressure)
Hypotension (low blood pressure )
Strokes
Thrombosis (blood clots)
Arteriosclerosis

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135
Q

5 common blood diseases

A

Iron deficiency anemia
Aplastic anemia (not enough red blood cells)
Sickle cell disease
Lukemia (cancer in WBC )
Hemophilia ( genetic poor blood clotting )

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136
Q

What are the 3 major components of smoking that cause problems for health

A

Tar
Co
Nicotine

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137
Q

What does tar from smoking damage?

A

Respiratory system, obstructive lung disease & lung cancer

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138
Q

What does Co & nicotine from smoking damage?

A

The cardiovascular system, vastconstriction, hr & bp increase, blood supply goes down, risks of blood clotting increases

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139
Q

What charactirizes obstructive lung diseases

A

Less air flow, shortness of breath (exhaling is the problem), can lead to COPD & asthma

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140
Q

What charactirizes restrictive lung diseases

A

Decrease in long volume, difficult to inhale, stiffness in lung, lead to interstitial disease scoliosis & marked obesity

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141
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the central nervous system

A

Brain & spinal cord

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142
Q

What are the 2 major subdivision of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system & somatic nervous system

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143
Q

What are the 3 subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic & sympathetic & enteric

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144
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the somatic nervous system?

A

Sensory, motor

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145
Q

Which is voluntary ans or sns? (Nervous systems)

A

Ans

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146
Q

What is the “insulation “ of the neuron?

A

Schwann cells

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147
Q

What is the gaps between myelin sheaths in a neuron called?

A

Nodes of ranvier

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148
Q

Where is the cell body of a motor neuron located?

A

Central nervous system

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149
Q

Where does the motor neuron send signals from & to?

A

CNs → effector

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150
Q

Where does the sensory neuron send signals from & to?

A

Receptors→ CNS

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151
Q

Where does the inter neuron send signals from & to?

A

Sensory ⇒ motor

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152
Q

Where is the cell body on the sensory & inter neuron located?

A

On the axon

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153
Q

What differentiates the structure of the inter & sensory neuron?

A

Inter has short axons making it circular in a sense

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154
Q

What is the neutron coming off the cns called? (Relay centers of the ans )

A

Pre-ganglionic (myelinated )

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155
Q

What is the neutron coming off the autonomic ganglion called? (Relay centers of the ans )

A

Postganglionic (unmyelinated)

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156
Q

Where does the sns come from?(nervous systems)

A

The spine, thoracic vertebra, t1-t12

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157
Q

Where does the pns come from?(nervous systems)

A

The brain stem ( & pelvis)

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158
Q

Which is the most important nerve in the pns?

A

Cranial nerve 10, vagus nerve

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159
Q

Which has long preganglionic fibers & short postganglionic fibers? (Pns or sns)

A

Pns

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160
Q

Which has short preganglionic fibers & long postganglionic fibers? (Pns or sns)

A

Sns

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161
Q

What is the resting potential at? & what mechanism is used to keep it there? (ns)

A

-70 mv, the sodium potassium pump

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162
Q

How many mv has to be crossed for an action potential to occur?( synapse)

A

-50 mv

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163
Q

What does the all-or- none law state? (Synapse)

A

If the threshold of -50 mv is met the stimulated fibre will always give maximal response & electrical impulse is produced. But if the -50mv is not get there will be no impulse

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164
Q

How many mv does the current go to in synapse?

A

+30 mv

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165
Q

What is the prerequisite for an action potential to occur? (Synapse)

A

The axon membrane potential must be depolarized & the electrical stimulus must be strong enough that it reaches above - 50 mv

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166
Q

What happens during depolirazation? (Synapse)

A

Voltage gated channels open & sodium flows down to the lower concentration on the inside of the cell

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167
Q

What happens during repolirization? (Synapse)

A

Sodium voltage gated channels close when 30 mv is reached & the potassium voltage gated channels open & the potassium goes down its gradient & flows to the outside of the cell

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168
Q

What is hyperrepolarization? (Synapse)

A

When there is an over shoot & one cell potential goes below -70 mv

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169
Q

Will the size of the action potential change through the axon or intensity of stimulus?

A

No, size & intensity is constant

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170
Q

What makes the action potential differ between a strong & weak stimulus?

A

Frequency

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171
Q

What does speed of transmission in a neuron depend on?

A

Myelination, diameter of axon (lower resistance with higher diameter)

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172
Q

What is a synapse?

A

Junction between 2 nerve cells

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173
Q

What makes up straiations on skeletal muscle?

A

The Sarcomere which is made up of myosin (which is thick) & actin (which is thin) filaments

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174
Q

What happens during muscle contraction? What shrinks, is constant & moves?

A

M line & A band are constant
I band & h band shrink
Z lines move closer to M lines

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175
Q

What is a sacomere? ( skeletal muscle)

A

Single unit of a contractile muscle

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176
Q

What are the 4 sources of ATP in skeletal muscle?

A

Creatine phosphate ⇒ ATP
ATP
Aerobic respiration
Lactate fermentation

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177
Q

Where are the rods & cones located in the eye?

A

The retina, big cluster on the focal point

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178
Q

Do the cornea & conjunctiva have vascular supply?

A

No

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179
Q

What is Lens adjustment in the eye called?

A

Accommodation

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180
Q

When is the cillary muscle relaxed? (the eye)

A

When looking at something far away

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181
Q

When can the lens precive light from a far distance?

A

When it is flat due to elongated suspensory ligaments

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182
Q

When can the lens precive light from a close distance?

A

When the suspensory ligaments are slack due to the cilary muscle being contracted & the Lens is more round/condensed

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183
Q

When is the pupil small?

A

When in light

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184
Q

When is the pupil dilated?

A

When in dark

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185
Q

What is the change in size of pupil considered? & what nerves are tested

A

A reflex, cranial nerves

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186
Q

What are other than light effects on the pupil?

A

Distance of objects we’re looking at, chemical stimulants like excitement or stress

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187
Q

What is the pupillary reflex? (The eye) & what is it controlled by?

A

What controls dilation & constriction of the pupil, the autonomic nervous system

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188
Q

Which muscle causes constriction of the pupil? & what nervous system is it controlled by?

A

Sphincter pupillae, parasympathetic nervous system

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189
Q

Which muscle causes dilation of the pupil? & what nervous system is it controlled by?

A

Dilator pupillae, sympathetic nervous system

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190
Q

What controls Color? Rods or cones?

A

Cones

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191
Q

Which is there more of? Rods or cones?

A

Rods

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192
Q

What is scotopic vision? & what controls it?

A

Low light levels, rods

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193
Q

What is photopic vision? & what controls it?

A

Higher light levels, cones

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194
Q

What is the area of fovea / focal point? What is it responsible for

A

Small part of the retina which is responsible for high-acuity vision

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195
Q

Where is a high concentration of cones found in the eye?

A

The fovea

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196
Q

What are the 3 types of cones? & what differentiates them?

A

L, depicts long wavelength, red light
M, depicts middle wavelength, green light
S, depicts short wavelength, blue light

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197
Q

What kind of pigment is in cones?

A

Iodiopsin pigment

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198
Q

What kind of pigment is in cones?

A

Rhodopsin pigment

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199
Q

What vitamin is rhodopsin pigment contain & what is it responsible for?

A

Vitamin A, night vision

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200
Q

Which is more sensitive to light, rods or cones? & why

A

Rods, because it is responsible for night vision

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201
Q

How is the rhodopsin pigment able to create night vision?

A

Breaks the light into 2

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202
Q

What part of the brain will precive the right field of view?

A

Left side

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203
Q

What part of the brain will precive the left field of view?

A

Right side

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204
Q

Which eye takes information from the right field of view?

A

Both eyes take info from both sides & sends it to the opposite side of the brain

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205
Q

What happens when the immune system attacks self cells?

A

Autoimmune diseases

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206
Q

How does the immune system detect self cells?

A

Glycoproteins on the surface of the self cells

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207
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A

What responds immediately when an infection occurs

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208
Q

What activates the adaptive immune system?

A

The innate immune system

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209
Q

Is it the innate or adaptive immune system that creates memory cells?

A

The adaptive

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210
Q

What is the big difference between innate & adaptive immune system?

A

Adaptive crates a specific attack on the pathogen where the innate has the same response no matter what kind of pathogen is present

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211
Q

What are the 2 types of cells in the immune system?

A

The lymphoid cells & the myeloid cells

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212
Q

What are the 3 types of cells created from pre t-cells?

A

Memory t-cell
Cytotoxic t-cell
Helper t-cell

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213
Q

What are the 2 types of cells created from pre B-cells?

A

Memory b-cells
Plasma

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214
Q

What are the 2 kinds of cells in the immune system?

A

Phagocytes & lymphocytes

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215
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Cells that do phagocytosis

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216
Q

Where are phagocytes produced & stored?

A

Bone marrow

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217
Q

What are phagocytes major functions?

A

Remove dead cells & invasive microorganisms, they are scavenges

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218
Q

What are the 2 Major types of phagocytes?

A

Neutrophils & macrophages

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219
Q

How much of white blood cells do neutrophils make up?

A

60%

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220
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

Patrol the body & viciously attack & rapidly kill all pathogens

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221
Q

Do neutrophils have a short or long life span?

A

Short

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222
Q

Where are macrophages originally made & as what?

A

In bone marrow as monocytes

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223
Q

When do monocytes turn into macrophages?

A

When they leave the blood to settle in organs

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224
Q

Where do macrophages typically reside?

A

Organs (lungs, liver, spleen, kidneys, lymph)

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225
Q

Do macrophages have a long or short life span?

A

Long

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226
Q

How do macrophages play a role in initiating the adaptive immune response?

A

They cut pathogens a display their antigens or little pieces of it on their surfaces which then can be recognized by the lymphocytes

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227
Q

What do cells release when they a under attack?

A

Histamine

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228
Q

What are the first responders in the immune system which a attracted by histamine?

A

Neutrophils

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229
Q

What is neutrophils attraction to histamine?

A

Chemotaxis

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230
Q

What do neutrophils perform on pathogens?

A

Endocytosis ⇒ phagocytosis

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231
Q

What happens when neutrophils have engulfed pathogen?

A

It releases digestive enzymes like proteases & then kill it self & becomes pus

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232
Q

What distinguish lymphocytes from phagocytes?

A

They are small but have a larger nucleus

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233
Q

What are the 2 important types of lymphocytes?

A

B & t cells

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234
Q

Where are B&t cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

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235
Q

What do lymphocytes have to be in order to be able to perform responses of the adaptive immune system?

A

Mature

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236
Q

Where do b&t cells circulate after they are mature?

A

Blood & lymph

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237
Q

Where do b-cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

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238
Q

Where do t-cells mature?

A

Thymus which is the uni of t-cells as it teaches them how to recognize self & non-self

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239
Q

How many % of the t-cells that enter the thymus will mature?

A

2%, rest 98% are killed

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240
Q

Where a b-cells mainly concentrated?

A

Lymph & spleen

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241
Q

Why is our immune response not as good after puberty aka why does it decline?

A

The thymus grows 2x the size from birth to puberty & then after puberty it shrinks

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242
Q

What are histamine released by?

A

The healthy cells when they are killed

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243
Q

What it is called when neutrophils kill themselves?

A

Apoptosis

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244
Q

What controls how much innate immune response is happening?

A

Macrophages

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245
Q

What is the purpose of inflammatory responses?

A

To restrict infection to an area& stop the spreed

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246
Q

What are some areas where inflammation is very limited or absent?

A

Brain, spinal cord, part of the eyes & testicles

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247
Q

What calls for inflammation to happen?

A

Cells dying unnaturally
Mast cells which release histamine & cytokines, cytokines make blood vessels dislate thus increase blood flow & more them more permable

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248
Q

What does the dendritic cell do?

A

Connects the innate & adaptive immune system by taking shapshots of the battle field and part of the bacteria’s glycoproteins & delivers it to the adaptive immune system (t-cells) using the lymphatic system

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249
Q

What activates the t-cells?

A

The dendritic cells

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250
Q

What does the helper t-cell do?

A

Activates b-cells & cytotoxic t-cells using cytokines

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251
Q

What does antibodies do?

A

Help the immune cells ( neutrophils & macrophages) detect the enemies by attaching to them & acting as a marker

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252
Q

What happens to the helper t-cells if the battle is won?

A

They become memory t-cells

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253
Q

What activates b-cells?

A

T-cells

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254
Q

What does b- cell activation lead to?

A

Production of plasma cells

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255
Q

What does plasma calls do?

A

Produce specialized antibodies

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256
Q

How many salivary glands are in the mouth?

A

3

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257
Q

What are the structures of the oral cavity?

A

Uvula, tongue, pharynx & salivary glands

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258
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands called?

A

Parotid, sublingual, submandibular

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259
Q

What is the connection between mouth & stomach called?

A

Esophagus

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260
Q

What are the accessory organs? (Digestive system)

A

Liver, gall bladder & pancreas

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261
Q

Different name for big intestine

A

Colon

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262
Q

What a the 3 main parts of the colon in order from what the food passes through first to last

A

Ascending, transverse, descending

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263
Q

What is the connection between the stomach & esophagus called?

A

Esophageal sphincter

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264
Q

How many muscle layers are in the stomach?

A

3

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265
Q

What are the folds of the stomach called?

A

Rugae

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266
Q

What is the exist of the stomach called?

A

Pyloric sphincter

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267
Q

What is regurgitation?

A

Spitting up of food without nausea, forceful contractions of the smooth muscle in esophagus or stomach pushing the food backwards

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268
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Muscle contractions propagating food down digestive tract

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269
Q

What is the role of the liver in the digestive system?

A

Bile & bile salt production for emulsification of fats

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270
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder

A

Store & release bile

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271
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

Secret pancreatic juices into small intestine to buffer the stomach acid

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272
Q

What are the 3 main types of macro molecules that come through our body to be digested

A

Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats)

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273
Q

What are carbohydrates broken down into in our digestive system?

A

Monosaccharides

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274
Q

What are lipids broken down into in our digestive system?

A

Glycerol & fatty acids

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275
Q

What are proteins broken down into in our digestive system?

A

Simpler proteins/ peptides & in the very end amino acids

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276
Q

What are the 2 types of digestion happening in the mouth?

A

Mechanical & chemical

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277
Q

What is the contents of saliva? (6 parts)

A

99% h20, electrolytes, mucus, Iga, enzymes & lysozymes

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278
Q

What releases gastric juices in the stomach

A

Gastric glands

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279
Q

What is the mix between gastric juices & food called?

A

Chyme

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280
Q

Which enzyme is both released & activated in the stomach? & what does is break down?

A

Pepsis enzyme, proteins into peptides

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281
Q

What makes the stomach acid?

A

HCI

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282
Q

What makes up the gastric juices? (4 components)

A

Mucus, pepsin enzyme,hcl, lipase

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283
Q

Where does the majority of the breaking down of molecules happen in the digestive system?

A

Small intestine

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284
Q

What is the acidity of the chyme when it is made in the stomach?

A

2ph

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285
Q

What is the ph raised to by sodium bicarbonate when entering the small intestine?

A

8ph

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286
Q

What are enterocytes?( small intestine )

A

Villi on the villi in small intestine which digests absorbs

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287
Q

Does fat go through the blood system?

A

No it is hydrophobic, goes through lymphatic system

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288
Q

Are there any enzymes in the colon?

A

No

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289
Q

What is the primary function of the colon?

A

Water absorption

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290
Q

What is the fuse that connects the kidney to the bladder called?

A

Ureter

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291
Q

What is the definition of excretion?

A

Removal of metabolic waste

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292
Q

What metabolic waste does the body need to remove? & how are they removed?

A

Co2 (removed through lungs ), urea (removed through kidneys )

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293
Q

Where is urea produced?

A

Liver

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294
Q

How is urea transported from liver to kidney?

A

Blood plasma

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295
Q

What makes up urine?

A

Urea & water

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296
Q

What is deamination?

A

Removal of an amine (nh2) group

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297
Q

Where are nephrons found?

A

Kidneys

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298
Q

Where in the nephron does ultra filtration take place?

A

Bowmans capsule

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299
Q

What is osmoregulation?

A

Control of water in the body

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300
Q

What are the 3 body parts involved with osmoregulation?

A

Kidneys, hypothalamus & pituitary gland

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301
Q

Where are the osmoreseptors?

A

In the hypothalamus

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302
Q

What does ADH increase? (Osmoregulation)

A

Absorption of water in the nephron, loop of henle & collecting duct

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303
Q

How is glucose transported & stored in the body?

A

As glycogen

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304
Q

What are the 2 hormones that control glucose in the body?

A

Glucagon & insulin

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305
Q

Where is the homeostatic control of glucose?

A

Pancreas

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306
Q

What happens when glucose levels are low?

A

Alpha & beta cells detect the low levels & glucagon will be released from the alpha cells at a higher rate and insulin from the beta cells at a lower rate, liver will break down glycogen to glucose, uptake of glucose in the liver/muscle / fat will be lower

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307
Q

What happens when glucose levels are high?

A

Alpha a beta cells detect it, glucagon release will be decreased & insulin release increased, liver will not convert glycogen to glucose as fast & liver/musclel/fat will increase intake of glucose as response to insulin

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308
Q

What is the only organ with receptor for glucagon?

A

Liver

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309
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

Hormones in body regulating biological processes

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310
Q

What is the response time on the endocrine & nervous systems

A

Endocrine is slow but inexpensive in energy
Nervous is fast but expensive in energy

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311
Q

What are glands?

A

Group of cells that produce & secrete 1 or more substance, typically hormones

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312
Q

What are the 2 types of glands in the body?

A

Exocrine glands & endocrine glands

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313
Q

Where are the hormones from glands secreted into?

A

The blood directly (no ducts )

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314
Q

Definition of hormones

A

Cell signalling molecules

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315
Q

2 main types of hormones

A

Water soluable & lipid soluable

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316
Q

What are water soluable hormones made up of?

A

Peptides (proteins)

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317
Q

What are lipid soluable hormones made up of?

A

Steroid

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318
Q

What organs are involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

Ovary & uterine, anterior pituitary gland

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319
Q

What hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle?

A

Estrogen & progesterone released by ovary & follicle stimulating hormone (Fsh) & luteinising hormone (lh) released by anterior pituitary gland

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320
Q

How long is the menstrual cycle?

A

28 days

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321
Q

What marks the beginning of the menstrual cycle?

A

The onset of menstruation

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322
Q

How long does menstruation on average last?

A

4-8 days

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323
Q

What cycle produces the egg/gamete in a female?

A

The ovarian cycle

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324
Q

When does ovulation typically happen?

A

Day 14 of the menstrual cycle

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325
Q

What is the inner lining of the uterus called?

A

Endometrium

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326
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Process of both exhalation & inhalation

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327
Q

What processes do antibiotics block?

A

Processes that occur in prokaryotic cells

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328
Q

Do antibiotics effect human cellular processes?

A

No

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329
Q

What are muscles that work in pairs to move body parts in opposite directions called?

A

Antagonistic muscles

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330
Q

What is the primary reason ph is controlled so tightly in humans?

A

To prevent changes in electrical charge in polypeptide chains

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331
Q

Which bio molecule does the body use for long term storage?

A

Lipids (fats)

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332
Q

Which bio molecule does the body use for short term energy?

A

Carbs

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333
Q

Fancy word for chewing

A

Mastication

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334
Q

Which important enzyme does saliva contain & what does it break down?

A

Amylase, breaks down starch & glycogen

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335
Q

Is saliva acidic or basic?

A

Slightly acidic

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336
Q

What is propulsion?

A

When the food goes down the esophagus

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337
Q

What does hcI do in the stomach?

A

Brake down food & turns pepsinogen into pepsin

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338
Q

What does pepsin break down?

A

Protein into smaller peptides

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339
Q

How many sphincters does the stomach have?

A

2

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340
Q

How much can the stomach hold?

A

2-4 L

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341
Q

What does the outer layer of mucosal cells do for the stomach?

A

Protects it from acidity & enzymes so it doesn’t digest itself

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342
Q

Where are the gastric glands?

A

Inside the stomach

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343
Q

Which secretory cells do the gastric glands contain?

A

Parietal cells: release Hcl (ph 1.5)
Chef cells: release pepsinogen (turns into pepsin via Hcl, it is a protease)

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344
Q

2 types of cells in gastric glands

A

Secretory cells & enteroendoctine cells ( regulatory cells)

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345
Q

What type of cell are g-cells?

A

Enteroendocrine cells

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346
Q

What do g-cells do? ( Gastric glands )

A

Secrete gastrin (stimulates secretion of gastric juice)

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347
Q

What is the first part of the small intestine called?

A

Duodenum

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348
Q

What is the duodenum the site for?

A

Chemical digestion

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349
Q

What does the pancreas secrete into the duodenum ? ( 5 )

A

Bicarbonate, trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase & lipase

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350
Q

What does the gallbladder secrete into the duodenum?

A

Bile

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351
Q

What does the liver secrete into the duodenum?

A

Bilirubin

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352
Q

What 4 enzymes does the duodenum secrete?

A

Sucrose, lactase, maltase & various peptidases

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353
Q

What does the jejunum have to increase its surface area?

A

Villi & microvilli

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354
Q

What is the last part of the small intestine?

A

Ileum

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355
Q

Where in the digestive system is water absorbed?

A

Small intestine

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356
Q

3 sections of the small intestine & their main role?

A

Duodenum: site for chemical digestion
Jejunum: site for majority of absorption
Ileum: site for vitamin absorption

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357
Q

What enzymes does the duodenum secrete?

A

Sucrose
Lactase
Maltase
Peptidases

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358
Q

2 main roles of bile

A

Works like a detergent: fatty glosses are made smaller by not grouping together due to bile
Neutrelize excess stomach acid

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359
Q

Which enzymes does the pancreas secrete into the duodenum?

A

Bicarbonate (hco3)
Trypsinogen
Chymotrypsinogen
Amylase
Lipase
Peptidases
Nucleases

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360
Q

What does Bicarbonate do in the duodenum?

A

Neutralizes chyme to protect intestines

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361
Q

What does trypsinogen become & what does it do?

A

Trypsin, breaks down proteins into amino acids

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362
Q

What does chymotrypsinogen become & what does it do?

A

Chymotrypsin, breaks down proteins into amino acids

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363
Q

What does the liver secrete directly into the duodenum?

A

Bilirubin, breakdown product of red blood cells that needs to be secreted. Gives stool its Color

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364
Q

Route of absorption in the jejunum & ileum

A

Microvilli → enterocyte → blood stream inside villi

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365
Q

What is passively absorbed in the jejunum & ileum?

A

Fructose

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366
Q

What need energy to be absorbed (active absorption) in the jejunum & ileum?

A

Amino acids
Glucose
Small peptides
Vitamins

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367
Q

How are lipids transported in the blood & why?

A

They are hydrophobic so they would from clots so they are transported in lipoprotein

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368
Q

Steps of how lipids are broken down & absorbed in the body /blood (4)

A

Broken down into fatty acids & glycerol
Absorbed by enterocytes
Converted into triglycerides
Combined with protein, cholesterol & phospholipids to form chylomicrons (a lipoprotein) which can travel in the blood

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2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

When does chyme become faeces?

A

When it travels through the iliosaecal valve into the colon

370
Q

What helps to brake down certain remaining nutrients in the colon?

371
Q

What does undigested fibres do in the colon?

A

Ferment & help stool pass

372
Q

What are absorbed in the colon?

A

Vitamins, short fatty acids, water & ions

373
Q

What is pulmonary ventilation?

A

Movement of air in & out of lungs

374
Q

What is external respiration (expiration)?

A

Breathing out

375
Q

What is internal respiration (inspiration)?

A

Breathing in

376
Q

Why do we need to breathe?

A

We are too big to rely solely on passive diffusion & we need it to remove o2

377
Q

What 3 things does the trachea a bronchi contain?

A

Goblet cells
Cilia
Cartilage

378
Q

What do goblet cells do?

A

Secrete mucus keeping the mucus membrane protected/lubricated

379
Q

What are cilia?

A

Whip like appendages to cells that allow for the removal of dirt from the airways

380
Q

What does cartilage do is the respiratory system?

A

They are round rings around the tubes to keep the airway from collapsing during inspiration

381
Q

What does Dalton’s law state?

A

Total pressure = partial pressure + partial pressure …+ partial pressure

382
Q

Where does air travel from & to?

A

High partial pressure → low partial pressure

383
Q

What 5 things happen during inspiration?

A

Diaphragm contracts (goes down)
Intercostal muscles constrict
Lungs expand (increase in volume)
Thorax rises/moves outward
Partial pressure in lungs decrease allowing air in

384
Q

What 5 things happen during expiration?

A

Diaphragm relaxes (goes upward )
Intercostal muscles relax
Lungs contract
Thorax sinks/moves inward
Partial pressure in lungs increase allowing air out

385
Q

What is transported in blood?

A

Gases: O2, Co2 etc
Nutrients: glucose, vitamins etc
Hormones: adrenaline, noradrenaline etc (all hormones)
Heat
Waste

386
Q

What is the pulmonary circuit?

A

Blood flowing between heart & lungs

387
Q

What is the systemic circuit?

A

Blood flow between heart & rest of the body

388
Q

Which is the stronger pump, atria or ventricles?

A

Ventricles

389
Q

Names of the 2 atrial ventricular (av) valves?

A

Tricuspid valve & bicuspid/mitral valve

390
Q

When are the 2 atrial ventricular (av) valves open / closed?

A

Open: diastole
Closed: systole

391
Q

Names of the 2 semilunar valves?

A

Aortic Valve
Pulmonary valve

392
Q

When are the semilunar valves open / closed?

A

Open: systole
Closed: diastole

393
Q

What is systole?

A

Blood being pumped out of the ventricles to the body

394
Q

What is diastole?

A

Blood being pumped out of the atrium into the ventricle

395
Q

How does the heart get oxygen?

A

Through the coronary arteries

396
Q

Does the heart need the nervous system to beat?

A

No it is autorhytmic

397
Q

What harmonizes the heart?

A

Sino atrial (SA) node & atrioventricular (av) node

398
Q

Steps of heart beat (4)

A

Sa node sends depolarization (positive) signal through the atria & they contract
Av node delays signals so atria empties first
Bundle of his fibers pass signals to heart apex
Signal spread throughout the ventricles through purkinje fibers I they connect

399
Q

What kind of blood vessels have valves?

400
Q

What kind of blood vessels have valves?

401
Q

What do arteries branch into?

A

Arterioles

402
Q

What smaller blood vessel does a vein come from?

403
Q

Why is there higher pressure in arteries?

A

Because the come directly from the heart

404
Q

What kind of blood vessel has the highest pressure?

405
Q

Which type of blood vessel is the strongest?

406
Q

Where in the circulatory system is pressure the lowest?

407
Q

Rank velocity in different blood vessels from highest to lowest

A

Arteries
Veins
Venules & arterioles
Capillaries

408
Q

Rank cross sectional area in different blood vessels from highest to lowest

A

Capillaries
Venules & arterioles
Veins & arteries

409
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A

Just under the liver

410
Q

In rough terms what does the liver do?

A

Cleans blood & sends waste to digestive & urinary system

411
Q

What does the liver turn ammonia into?

412
Q

How is urea transported from the liver to the kidneys?

413
Q

Where is urea produced?

414
Q

4 main functions of the urinary system

A

Regulates water volume & ion concentration
Regulates ph
Removes toxins
Regulates blood pressure & red blood cell production

415
Q

How does blood enter the kidney?

A

Large renal arteries

416
Q

How does deoxygenated blood leave the kidney?

A

Large renal vein

417
Q

3 layers of kidneys from outer to inner

A

Renal cortex
Renal medulla
Renal pelvis

418
Q

Where in the kidneys is the urine found?

A

Renal pelvis

419
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidneys?

A

The nephron

420
Q

Reabsorption in the kidneys pathway

A

Out of nephron → into interstitial fluid → into the blood

421
Q

Secretion in the kidneys pathway

A

From blood → interstitial fluid → into nephron

422
Q

What enters the bowman’s capsule from the blood? (5)

A

H2o
Ions
Glucose
Urea
Amino acids

423
Q

What gets reabsorped from the proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron to the blood?

A

Majority of NaCI
Majority of H20
Majority of k+ (calcium ions)
Vast majority of bicarbonate ions (hco3)
Only some of the urea
All amino acids & glucose

424
Q

What gets secret from the blood to the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

NH3 ( ammonia )
Toxins & drugs

425
Q

Which layer of the kidneys does the loop of henle decent into?

A

The medulla (which is salty)

426
Q

What happens in the loop of henle?

A

Water leaves passively in the descending limb as it wants to go to the salty medulla
Filtrate is the very salty & NaCl will then leave passively in the thin ascending limb & actively in the thick ascending limb

427
Q

What does the hormone aldosterone regulate?

A

Blood pressure

428
Q

What happens in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Aldosterone is present, NaCl, hco3- & small amount of water is reabsorped & k+ & H+ is secreted

429
Q

What does adh stand for? (It’s a hormone)

A

Anti-diaretic hormone

430
Q

What does adh do in the collecting duct?

A

Forms aquaphorins, allowing water to leave

431
Q

What is reabsorped in the collecting duct?

A

Water, NaCl & urea (which can be secreted back into the loop of henle

432
Q

When is insulin secreted?

A

When blood glucose levels rise

433
Q

What organ detects a rise in blood glucose levels?

434
Q

What produces & secretes insulin?

A

Pancreas, beta cells of the pancreas secretes insulin

435
Q

What receive insulin when it is secreted what effect does it have?

A

The cells receive insulin which causes them to take up the glucose making the blood glucose levels fall

436
Q

What kind of hormone is insulin?

A

Peptide hormone (protein)

437
Q

3 types of hormones

A

Peptide hormones (Proteins)
Amine hormones (1 amino acid)
Steroid hormones (lipids)

438
Q

What is the opposite to the insulin pathway?

439
Q

What detects that blood glucose levels fall?

440
Q

What produces & secretes glycogen?

A

Alpha cells of the pancreas

441
Q

Where does glucagon go & why?

A

To the liver where glycogen is stored & broken down into glucose

442
Q

What is the effect of glucagon?

A

Blood glucose levels rise

443
Q

What kind of hormones are glucagon ?

A

Peptide hormone

444
Q

Different name for adrenaline

A

Epinephrine

445
Q

What detects a threat prior to the release of adrenaline?

A

Sensory organs

446
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A

Above the kidneys

447
Q

What sends a nerve impulse to the adrenal medulla after receiving signal from the sensory organs?

A

Hypothalamus

448
Q

What releases & produces adrenaline

A

Adrenal medulla

449
Q

What kind of hormone is adrenaline?

A

Amine hormone

450
Q

What does adrenaline do?

A

Depends on what cell receives it
Blood vessels to vital organs dislate & constrict to non-vital organs
Liver turns glucagon into glucose
Cardiac muscles contract faster

451
Q

What is released as the same time as adrenaline & has the exact same process & effect?

A

Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

452
Q

What is released by the hypothalamus after sensory neurons detect stress & where is it released to?

A

Crh: corticotropin releasing hormone which is released to the anterior pituitary gland

453
Q

What happens when the anterior pituitary gland receives Crh?

A

It releases Acth (adrenocorticotropic hormone) to the adrenal cortex

454
Q

What does the adrenal cortex secrete when receiving ACTH & where does it go ? (2)

A

Glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) → body cells
Mineral Corticoids (such as aldosterone) → kidney: distal convoluted tubule

455
Q

What does a tropic hormone do?

A

Activate another gland to release hormones

456
Q

What kind of hormones are cortisol & aldosterone?

A

Steroid hormones

457
Q

What effects does cortisol have?

A

Metabolic effect: breaks protein/lipids into glucose
Anti-infanmatory effect

458
Q

What effects does aldosterone have?

A

Facilitates reabsorption of Na+ & secretion of K+ in the distal convoluted tubule
This increase blood volume & this blood pressie

459
Q

What is t3 & t4 hormone also called?

A

Thyroid hormone

460
Q

How is thyroid hormone regulated?

A

Negative feedback, so if levels are low it will be detected & rectified

461
Q

What detects low levels of t3/t4? & what is released I to where?

A

The hypothalamus detects low levels & secrets thyrotropin releasing hormone (trh) to the anterior pituitary gland

462
Q

What does the anterior pituitary gland secrete when receiving Trh & to where?

A

Secretes thyroid stimulating hormone (tsh) to the thyroid

463
Q

What hormone does the thyroid release?

A

Thyroid hormone (t3/t4)

464
Q

When does the hypothalamus stop releasing trh?

A

When it detects thyroid hormones have been released into the blood

465
Q

What kind of hormone is t3/t4?

A

Amine hormones, they need iodine to be produced & the lack of it causes goitre (enlargement of thyroid gland)

466
Q

What causes goitre? (Enlargement of thyroid)

A

Lack of iodine so no thyroid hormone is produced & released stopping the negative feedback loop making the hypothalamus continue secretion of Trh to the anterior pituitary gland which then continues to release & filling the thyroid with tsh

467
Q

What kinds of hormones are tsh & trh?

A

Peptide hormones

468
Q

What are the effects of thyroid hormone?

A

Increase metabolism, maintains normal blood pressure, heart rate, muscle tone & digestive & reproductive functions

469
Q

Pathway of Adh (vasopressin)

A

Hypothalamus detects trigger (low water level: high blood osmolarity, low blood volume & pressure, presence of angiotensin ll ) → posterior pituitary gland → adh → collecting duct → increased water retention

470
Q

What produces ADH?

A

Hypothalamus

471
Q

What secretes ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

472
Q

What kind of hormone is ADh?

A

Peptide hormone

473
Q

What kind of hormone are estrogen & progesterone?

474
Q

What does low estrogen do?

A

Inhibits anterior pituitary gland from releasing Lh (Lutinizing hormone )
Stimulates fsh

475
Q

How long does the menstrual cycle typically last?

476
Q

Which hormones trigger ovulation?

A

Lh ( & estrogen)

477
Q

Which hormones spike for ovulation happen?

A

Lh & estrogen

478
Q

What happens when follicles are stimulated?

A

Estrogen will increase

479
Q

What does progesterone do?

A

Stimulates endometrial growth
Inhibits gnrh

480
Q

What is the vitreous humour? (Eye anatomy)

A

Clear gel
Helps support shape & transmit light to the retina

481
Q

What is the cornea? (Eye anatomy)

A

Transparent layer
Main function: refract (bend) light

482
Q

What is the sclera? (Eye anatomy)

A

White part of eye
Tough protective covering
Connected to muscles that control the eye

483
Q

What is the lens? (Eye anatomy)

A

Focuses light onto retina by changing shape

484
Q

What is the anterior chamber/aqueous humour? (Eye anatomy)

A

Transparent water-like fluid, various roles

485
Q

What is the iris? (Eye anatomy)

A

Colored part, controls the pupil

486
Q

What is the retina? (Eye anatomy)

A

Location of photoreceptor cells

487
Q

What is the pupil? (Eye anatomy)

A

Black hole in the middle
Permits light to hit retina

488
Q

What is the optic nerve? (Eye anatomy)

A

Sends signal from eye to brain

489
Q

Are there any rods in the fovea?

A

No only cones

490
Q

What is the choroid? (Eye anatomy)

A

Filled with blood vessel, provides oxygen & nutrients to the retina

491
Q

Photoreceptor cells

A

Rods & cones

492
Q

What is rhodopsin & where is it found?

A

Light absorbing pigment, in rods

493
Q

Where are rods found & what do they connect to?

A

Throughout the retina except for fovea
Many rods connect to a single ganglion cell (single rod does not produce much detail)

494
Q

Where are cones found & what do they connect to?

A

The fovea
Each cone connects to its own ganglion cell allowing for very fine detail

495
Q

What is photopsin?

A

Light absorbing pigment found in cones

496
Q

Name for transduction of light

A

Phototransduction

497
Q

What allows the eye to convert light into a signal?

A

Retinal found in rhodopsin & photopsin

498
Q

What 2 things do rhodopsin & photopsin contain?

A

Opsin: a membrane protein
Retinal: light absorbing molecule

499
Q

What happens in the rod when its dark? Signal pathway

A

Rod is turned on
Retinal is in cis (bent) form
When light hits the retinal changes to trans (straight) form
Rhodopsin activates, causing cascade event
Na+ channels in photoreceptor cell close, hyperpolarizing. Rod turns off & bipolar cell turns on
Signal passes to ganglion → optic nerve → brain

500
Q

What is a chromosomal mutation?

A

Large scale change on the chromosome
Entire portions are affect, not just a single gene/ protein

501
Q

4 types of chromosomal mutations

A

Deletion
Duplication
Inversion
Translocation

502
Q

What is the chromosomal mutation deletion?

A

Macro-region of chromosome is deleted
Can remone 100s to 1000s of genes/regulatory regions
Phenotypic changes & genetic disorders are likely

503
Q

What is the chromosomal mutation duplication?

A

Marro-region of chromosome is duplicated
Extra genetic material
May acquire new functions
Imbalances & genetic disorders can occur

504
Q

What is the chromosomal mutation inversion?

A

Macro-region of chromosome is rearranged
Segment brakes off & reattaches in reverse orientation
Can disrupt gene order & alter gene regulation
Can effect chromosome pairing during meiosis

505
Q

What is the chromosomal mutation translocation?

A

Macro-region of chromosome is transferred to another

506
Q

What are the 2 types of the chromosomal mutation translocation?

A

Reciprocal translocation: exchange of segment between 2 non-homologous chromosomes

Robertsonian translocation: entire chromosome has attached to another chromosome

507
Q

What is the chromosomal mutation insertion?

A

Portion of one chromosome has been taken from its normal place & inserted into another chromosome

508
Q

What are genomic mutations?

A

Mutation that change the number of chromosomes

509
Q

2 types of genomic mutation

A

Polyploidy
Aneuploidy

510
Q

Different name for nerve cells

511
Q

What do neurons contain?

A

They are cells so they have organelles like nucleus, mitochondria, er etc

512
Q

What makes neurons different from typical cells?

A

Don’t usually undergo mitosis & are long & skinny

513
Q

Definition of “nerve”

A

A bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system
Neurons+ other tissues & vessels = nerves

514
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

Group of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system

515
Q

What is the cell body of the neuron called?

516
Q

Where in a neuron is the action potential initiated?

A

In the axon hillock

517
Q

Where is the only place the Schwann cells work?

A

Pheriphial nervous system

518
Q

What create the myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system & central nervous system?

A

PNs: Schwann cells
Cns: oligodendrocytes

519
Q

What facilitates communication between neurons?

A

Neurotransmitters

520
Q

4 types of neurons classified by morphology

A

Unipolar : 1 dendrite
Bipolar : 2 dendrites
Multipolar : multiple dendrites
Pseudo-unipolar : 1 dendrite that splits into 2

521
Q

Can neuros be classified by different types of neurotransmitters?

522
Q

What are glia cells?

A

Supporting cells in the nervous system

523
Q

What do glia cells do?

A

Depends on which type
They can create myelin, support neurons, modulate communication & homeostasis

524
Q

Do glia cells transmit signals?

A

No, okay neurons do that

525
Q

Which one is there more of neurons or glia cells?

A

10 times as many glia cells

526
Q

Types of glia cells in the cns?

A

Oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia & astrocytes

527
Q

What myelinate axons in the Cns?

A

The glia cell oligodendrocytes

One can myelinate many & one axons can be myelinated by many

528
Q

What glia cells produce cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Ependymal cells

529
Q

What glia cells line the ventricular system of the brain & Central canal of the spinal chord in the cns?

A

Ependymal cells

530
Q

Which glia cells form the innate immune defence in the Cns?

531
Q

What do the glia cells astrocytes do in the cns?

A

Many roles
Form blood brain barrier
Regulate blood flow
Provide nutrients to neurons
Help with brain & spinal chord repair
Provide structural support for synapses

532
Q

Types of glia cells in the pns

A

Schwann cells & satellite cells

533
Q

How many axons do one Schwann cell myelinate?

534
Q

What do the glia cells called satellite cells do in the pns ?

A

Provide structural support & nutrients to neurons

535
Q

Difference between Schwann cells & oligodendrocytes?

A

Schwann cells are in the pns & 1 only myelinate 1

Oligodendrocytes are in the cns & 1 can myelinate many & many can myelinate 1

536
Q

What do neurons pass information to?

A

Other neurons
Muscles
Brain
Glands

537
Q

How do neurons pass information?

A

Transmitting signals ( an action potential)

538
Q

How do neurons transmit a signal?

A

Through charged ions (not electrons)

539
Q

What are the features of a neuron at rest?

A

Polarized with a voltage of -70 mv due to imbalance in ions
Salty banana: more Na+ outside, more k+ inside (3:2) → outside is more positive → gives the resting membrane potential of -70 mv

540
Q

How is the resting membrane potential difference maintained at -70mv?

A

The sodium/potassium pump which uses ATP to pump 3 Na+ out & bring 2 K+ in

541
Q

Is the axon membrane permeable or impermeable to ions?

A

Impermeable which maintained ion gradients

542
Q

What happens when a neuron is excited?

A

Neurotransmitters from a connecting neuron binds to neuron
Cation channels open & the flow in (positive charge)
Neuron becomes depolarises, membrane potential less negative
If membrane potential reaches -55 mv an action potential occurs

543
Q

What is an action potential?

A

Depolarization which spreads across the entire axon making inside briefly more positive

544
Q

How does the depolarization spread from the axon hillock through the axon?

A

At -55 mv the Na+ channels open, meaning Na+ flows in making the potential difference even less negative
Since Na+ are positive they repeal each other
→ this spreads them outward along the axon, which depolarizes in a downstream direction
→ thus more Na+ channels open downstream & the action potential can travel the length of the axon

545
Q

What is the membrane potential when the sodium has flown in?

546
Q

What happens when the membrane potential of a neuron is +30 mv?

A

Sodium channels inactive allowing the signal to only go in one direction
The potassium channels open & potassium flows out making the membrane more negative again

547
Q

What is the undershoot of a neuron?

A

When the membrane potential goes more negative then -70 mv

548
Q

What is a depolarization of a neuron? & what causes it?

A

Makes membrane potential less negative
Certain neurontransmitters cause this

549
Q

Is it always one big stimulus that causes an action potential?

A

No, sometimes it is many small depolarizations which cumulate to reach the threshold
Small stimuli are called Epsp (excitatory post synaptic potential)

550
Q

What does hyper polarization do?(neuron)

A

Makes membrane potential more negative

551
Q

What are ipsp stimuli?(neuron)

A

Inhibitory post synaptic potential which cause hyperpolarization & possibly offset depolarizations to prevent threshold from being reached

552
Q

Phases of an action potential

A

Rest potential
Rising phase / depolarization
Peak
Falling phase / repolarization
Refractory period

553
Q

What happens during the resting potential phase of an action potential?

A

Neuron is at rest: - 70 mv membrane potential
K+ leak channels are open
All other channels are closed

554
Q

What happens during the rising phase / depolarization of an action potential?

A

Potential crosses -55 mv threshold
Voltage gated Na+ channels open & influx brings potential to +40 mv

555
Q

What happens during the peak phase of an action potential?

A

Most positive membrane potential (+40 mv)
Voltage gated K+ channels start to open (slowly): a bit after the Na+ channels open

556
Q

What happens during the falling phase / repolarization of an action potential?

A

Potential starts to fall back to negative value
Voltage gated Na+ channels become inactive
Voltage gated K+ channels are open & they go out, meaning potential becomes negative

557
Q

What happens during the refractory period of an action potential?

A

There is an undershoot (potential around -90 mv)
Voltage gated K+ channels slowly close
Na+ channels are still inactive → impossible to evoke another action potential
Na/k pump returns membrane potential to -70 mv

558
Q

Where are the leak channels open in action potential?

A

Always, they are not voltage gated

559
Q

Examples of neurotransmitters

A

Amino acids, used in the Cns: glutamate, glycine, GABA, aspartate
Biogenic amines, used in cns & pns: dopamine, serotonin, adrenaline, noradrenaline
Neuropeptides, used in cns & pns: endorphins, substance p
Acetylcholine, used in cns & pns

560
Q

Can a hormone also be a neurontransmitter?

561
Q

Can a synapse happen without a neurontransmitter?

A

Yes, electrical synapses

562
Q

Two types of synapses

A

Chemical: with neurontransmitters
Electrical: with gap junctions

563
Q

How do electrical synapses work?

A

There is a direct contact via gap junctions where ions are sent through

564
Q

Difference between electrical & chemical synapse

A

Chemical are not in contact & can only communicate in one direction, from post to presysaptic neuron
Election are in direct contact & communication can go both ways

565
Q

Are synapses static?

A

No, over time they can strengthen or weakens. Basis of learning & memory retention

566
Q

What is long term potential (ltp)? (Synapses)

A

Long term strengthening of synapse
Long term patterns of synapse use produce a synapse that increases signal transmission between 2 neurons

567
Q

What is long term depression (Ltd)? (Synapses)

A

Long term weakening of synapse
Long term patterns of synapse disuse produce a synapse that decreases signal transmission between 2 neurons

568
Q

What is the forebrain responsible for?

A

Higher reasoning, sensory processing, endocrine roles etc

569
Q

3 most important parts of the forebrain

A

Cerebum (cerebraI cortex)
Thalamus
Hypothalamus

570
Q

What does the midbrain do?

A

Processing visual & auditory signals, sleep, awakening etc

571
Q

What is the hindbrain responsible for?

A

Vital processes

572
Q

3 parts of the hindbrain

A

Medulla
Pons
Cerebellum

573
Q

What does the brain consist of?

A

Midbrain, pons & medulla

574
Q

4 lobes of the cerebral cortex

A

Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe

575
Q

What does the frontal lobe do & contain?

A

Does: executive function, speech, decision making
Contains: olfactory lobe (processes smell) & motor cortex (generates signals to direct movements the body)

576
Q

What does the parietal lobe do & contain?

A

Does: sensory perception & integration
Contains: somatosensory cortex (receives touch based sensory info) & propriocepion (sense of orientation in space)

577
Q

What does the occipital lobe do?

A

Does: vision & identifying the world visually

578
Q

What does the temporal lobe do & contain?

A

Interprets & processes auditory info
Contains hippocampus (processes memory formation)

579
Q

Role of the thalamus

A

Sorts data & sends it where it needs to go

580
Q

What is the one sensory info that doesn’t have to go to the thalamus before being sent to the cerebral cortex for interpretation?

581
Q

Roles of the hypothalamus

A

Homeostasis: temperature, osmotarity, blood pressure etc
Endocrine roles: hormone production + interaction with pituitary gland

582
Q

Where are the basal ganglia situated?

A

At the base of the fore brain & top of the midbrain

583
Q

Roles of the basal ganglia

A

Movement & posture
Motivation
Learning
Eye movement
Emotion

584
Q

Roles of brainstem

A

Vital functions
Breathing, circulation, digestion
Sensory information filtration
Motor information filtration

585
Q

Roles of the cerebellum

A

Balance / coordination
Learning new motor tasks like riding a bike

586
Q

What protects the spinal chord?

A

Bones from the vertebrate column

587
Q

Roles of spinal chord

A

Carries info from brain to body & vice versa
Controls motor reflexes (avoids brain)

588
Q

3 sections of spine from top to bottom

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumber

589
Q

What is white matter made of?

A

Myelinated axons

590
Q

Where on the spinal chord is the most white matter?

A

On the outside

591
Q

Where on the brain is the most white matter?

A

On the inside

592
Q

What is grey matter made from?

A

Neuron & glial cell bodies

593
Q

Where on the spinal chord is the most grey matter?

A

On the inside

594
Q

Where on the brain is the most grey matter?

A

On the outside

595
Q

What part of the peripheral nervous system controls voluntary movement?

A

The somatic

596
Q

2 divisions of somatic ns

A

Sensory (afferent) division: receives external stimuli from sensory organs
Motor (efferent) division: sends voluntary commands to the skeletal muscles

597
Q

Where are the dendrites & cell bodies of motor (efferent) neurons located?

A

In the spinal chord (cns)

598
Q

Where are the axons of motor (efferent) neurons located?

A

In the pns

599
Q

Where are the synapse of motor (efferent) neurons located? & what is it called?

A

By the muscle
Neuromuscular junction

600
Q

What type of neurotransmitters do motor (efferent) neurons use?

A

Acetylcholine

601
Q

From what side of the spinal chord do motor (efferent) neurons always exit?

A

The ventral (front side)

602
Q

Where are the dendrites of sensory (afferent) neurons located?

A

By the sensory organ

603
Q

Where are the cell bodies of sensory (afferent) neurons located?

A

Dorsal root ganglia (close to the spinal chord)

604
Q

Where are the synapse of sensory (afferent) neurons located?

A

The spinal chord (cns)

605
Q

Where are the axon of sensory (afferent) neurons located?

606
Q

What side of the spinal chord does the sensory (afferent) neurons always enter?

A

Dorsal (back) side

607
Q

Which is nervous system takes care of the non-voluntary movements?

A

Autonomic nervous system

608
Q

What links Cns to internal organs

A

The autonomic ns

609
Q

Which is the fight or flight ns?

A

The sympathetic ns

610
Q

What happens when the sympathetic ns is activated? ( think what would make you better equipped to fight)

A

Eye: dilates
Heart: increases rate & force of contraction
Lungs: dilates bronchioles via circulating adrenaline
Blood vessels: discates to in skeletal muscle & contract in non-essential organs
Digestive systems: constricts blood flow to gastrointestinal organs
Sweat glands: activates sweat secretion
Digestive tract: inhibits peristalsis
Kidney: increases renin secretion
Penis: inhibits erections

611
Q

What a the 2 types of neurons in the sympathetic & parasympathetic ns?

A

Preganglionic & postanglionic

612
Q

Where are the Soma of preganglionic neurons located?

A

Usually in the spinal chord or brainstem

613
Q

What kind of neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic neurons?

A

Acetylcholine

614
Q

Where are the Soma of postganglionic neurons located?

A

In a sympathetic ganglion ( next to the spine chord ) in the sympathetic ns
In a ganglion near target organ in parasympathetic ns

615
Q

What kind of neurotransmitter is released by the postganglionic neurons?

A

Norepinephrine in sympathetic ns
Acetylcholine or nitric oxide in the parasympathetic ns

616
Q

What ns is the “rest & digest” system?

A

The parasympathetic ns

617
Q

What happens in the body when the parasympathetic ns is activated? ( think rest & digest )

A

Eye: constricts
Heart: decrease rate & force of contraction
Lungs: consfirets bronchioles
Blood vessels: constricts to in skeletal muscle & dialate in non-essential organs
Digestive systems: dilates blood flow to gastrointestinal organs
Sweat glands: deactivates sweat secretion
Digestive tract: promotes peristalsis
Kidney: reduces renin secretion
Penis: increases blood flow

618
Q

What is known as the bodies second brain?

A

The enteric ns as it acts independently

619
Q

What ns governs the Gi-tract?

A

Enteric ns

620
Q

What is a reflex arc?

A

A neural pathway connecting a sensory neuron to the spinal chord which allows for fast reaction independent of the brain

621
Q

2 types of reflex arcs

A

Somatic reflex arc: affecting muscles
Autonomic reflex arc: affecting inner organs

622
Q

3 types of muscles

A

Skeletal muscles
Smooth muscles
Cardio muscles

623
Q

Which are the voluntary muscles & what ns are they controlled by?

A

Skeletal muscles
Somatic ns

624
Q

What are smooth muscle & what ns are they controlled by?

A

Non-voluntary
Autonomic ns

625
Q

Does smooth muscles have sacomers?

A

No, they are non-striated

626
Q

How many nucleus for each muscle cell?

A

One, uni-nucleated

627
Q

What are cardiac muscle & what ns are they controlled by?

A

Non-voluntary
Can be independent but can also be controlled by the autonomic ns

628
Q

Does cardiac muscles have sarcomeres?

A

Yes they are striated

629
Q

How many nucleus for each cardiac cell?

A

One, uni- nucleated

630
Q

What type of muscles are branching?

A

Cardiac muscles

631
Q

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle?

A

The sarcomere

632
Q

What is a muscles made up of?

633
Q

What a fascicles made up off?

A

Muscles fibers / cells

634
Q

What are muscle fibers/cells made up off ?

A

Bundles of myofibrils

635
Q

What are myofabrils divided into?

A

Sarcomeres

636
Q

What are the 3 names for the structural unit of the muscle?

A

Muscle fibre, muscle cell & myocyte

637
Q

How many nucleus in the muscle fibres?

A

Many, multinucleated

638
Q

What are muscle fibres made from?

A

Myofibril bundles

639
Q

What is the sarcolemema?

A

The cell membrane surrounding a skeletal muscle cell

640
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum (ser)?

A

The er of muscle cells

641
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

Synaptic connection between the terminal end of a motor nerve & a muscle

642
Q

3 types of skeletal muscle fibre

A

Type 1: slow oxidative
Type 2A: fast oxidative
Type 2B: fast glycolytic

643
Q

Important to know about slow oxidative muscle fibre

A

Aerobic
Slow twitch
Red
A lot of myoglobin/ mitochondria
Resistant to fatigue
Repeated action
Lots of capillaries
More present in marathon runners

644
Q

Important to know about type 2A (fast oxidative) muscle fibre

A

Aerobic / anaerobic
Medium twitch
Red
A lot of myoglobin/ mitochondria
Resistant to fatigue
Repeated action
Lots of capillaries
Type 2b can be turned into 2A with training
More present in weight lifters

645
Q

Important to know about type 2B (fast glycolytic) muscle fibre

A

Anaerobic
Fast twitch
White
Low myoglobin/ mitochondria
Rapid fatigue
Fast quick action
Less capillaries
Type 2b can be turned into 2A with training & vice versa
More present in sprinters

646
Q

What do the Z lines in Sarcomeres do?

A

Separate the sancomeres along the myofibril

647
Q

What happens to the z lines when a sarcomere contracts?

A

They more close to the m-line & each other

648
Q

What are thick filaments made from?

649
Q

What are thin filaments made from?

650
Q

Does the thick filament move during contraction?

651
Q

Do the thin filament move during contraction?

A

Yes, inward

652
Q

What is the m- line of a sarcomere?

A

The middle in where actin is pulled towards

653
Q

What is the i-band in a sarcomere?

A

Area that only contains actin

654
Q

What happens to the l- band during contraction?

A

It shortens

655
Q

What is the a-band in a sarcomere?

A

The area that contains myosin

656
Q

What happens to the a-band during contraction?

A

Does not change

657
Q

What is the h-zone of a sacomere?

A

The one that contains only myosin

658
Q

What happens to the H-zone during contraction?

A

It shorted & eventually dissapears

659
Q

What is the structure of myosin?

A

2 chains that form a helix
2 arms & 2 heads which together form a cross bridge
Heads have binding sites for ATP & for actin & a catalytic site

660
Q

What is the structure of actin?

A

2 chains that form a helix with active sites that myosin connects to

661
Q

What is tropomyosin?

A

Protein that covers the actin active site

662
Q

How is binding of actin & myosin prevents?

A

Tropomyosin inhibits it by binding to the active site of a actin

663
Q

How do we get rid of tropinyosin?

A

Troponin gets rid of it and actin & myosin can bind & muscle can move

664
Q

What does there need to be a big influx of for muscles to be able to con that?

665
Q

What do t-tubules / transverse tubules do?

A

Rapidly transmit the action potential into the muscle fibre

666
Q

What does the cross bridge cycle do?

A

Contract skeleton muscles

667
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Immunity mediated by macromolecules in extracellular fluids

668
Q

Where is humoral and cell mediated immunity found?

A

In both innate and adaptive immune system but mainly adaptive

669
Q

What is cell mediated immunity?

A

Immunity carried out by immune cells

670
Q

Where are extracellular pathogens found?

A

Outside cells line on the skin or mucosa

671
Q

Example of extracellular pathogens

A

Bacteria, protozoans, fungi, multicellular parasites etc

672
Q

Are there any type of extracellular viruses?

A

No they are always intracellular

673
Q

What type of pathogen are viruses?

A

Intracellular

674
Q

Examples of intracellular pathogens

A

Viruses, bacteria, protozoans, fungi, multicellular-parasites etc

675
Q

Are antibodies part of the humoral immune systems?

676
Q

What does the innate immune system occur because of?

A

Genetic/physiological factors (not infection/vaccine)

677
Q

What is the first line deffence of the innate immune system?

A

Physical & chemical barriers

678
Q

What is the second line deffence in the innate immune system?

A

Cells & physicosical response (like inflammation& fever ) & chemicals

679
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Cell signalling proteins

680
Q

What is an interferon?

A

A cytokine that alerts the body of infection or cancer

681
Q

What are complement proteins?

A

Inactive proteins in your blood that activate during infection

682
Q

8 cells of the innate immune system

A

Monocytes → macrophages / dendritic cells
Mast cells
Dendritic cells
Natural kills (nk) cells
Basophils
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Macrophages

683
Q

4 types of granulocytes

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Mast cells

684
Q

Which are the most abundant leukocyte?

A

Neutrophils

685
Q

What are the first cells to arrive when you are infected?

A

Neutrophils

686
Q

Where are granulocytes found?

A

Ih in blood vessel but they migrate to infecte/injured tissue
Mast cells are also found in connective tissue & mucous membranes

687
Q

4 leukocytes that don’t have granuoles

A

Monocytes
Macrophage
Dendritic cells
Nk -cells

688
Q

Lymphocyte found in innate immune system?

A

Lymphocytes

689
Q

What is the complex that presents “self” antigens to lymphocytes?

690
Q

How does the Nk cells identify its target?

A

Infected cells presents viral proteins on the Mhc1
Infection & cancer can also cause the Mhc1 to be deformed or nos -existant

691
Q

How do leukocytes “present” to each other?

A

Certain immune cells have this (like macrophages) & will use it to display proteins from a broken down bacteria

692
Q

Which cells have Mhc1?

A

All neucleated (so those with a neucleus)

693
Q

What are antigens?

A

A foreign macromolecule the immune system can react to, they generate an immune response

694
Q

What is the humoral immunity in the adaptive immune system?

A

B-lymphocytes, the antibody mediated immunity

695
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

696
Q

Which kind of cells are involved in cell mediated immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes

697
Q

Different name for helper t-cells?

A

CD4 t-cells

698
Q

Different names for killer t- cells

A

Cytotoxic t-cells & CD8 t-cells

699
Q

How do killer t-cells kill the cells infected?

A

By releasing perforins & granzymes

700
Q

What do t-supressor cells do?

A

Supress the immune system, helps immune system know what is self & non-self

701
Q

Which cells are antigen presenting cells (apcs)?

A

B-lymphocytes, macropages & dendritic cells

702
Q

Are the membrane-bound antibodies found on b-cells all the same?

A

No the each have their own unique antibody in their membrane

703
Q

Where do helper t-cells bind to b-cells?

704
Q

Where do t-cells originate?

A

Bone marrow

705
Q

What does the Cd4 protein in helper t-cells bind to?

A

MHc2 on b- cells

706
Q

What does the Cd8 protein in cytotoxic t-cells bind to?

A

Mhc1 on infected or cancer cells

707
Q

Do individual b-cells have the same DNA to produce antibodies?

A

Yes! They produce different antibodies but all cells have the same DNA

708
Q

Different name for antibody & how to know if something is an antibody

A

Immunoglobulin, is something is called something with ig like iga then it’s an antibody

709
Q

What is on antibody?

A

Y-shaped protein

710
Q

What binds the heavy & light chains in antibodies?

A

Disulphide bridges

711
Q

2 regions of antibodies

A

Variable region & constant region

712
Q

Where on an antibody does an antigen bind?

A

Variable region

713
Q

What is the epitope of a antigen?

A

Region that binds to antibody

714
Q

When are antibodies released from b- cells?

A

When it becomes plasma cells

715
Q

What is opsonisation? (Antibody function)

A

When an antibody tags pathogens making it easier to find by macrophages thus promoting phagocytosis

716
Q

What is neutralisation? (Antibody function)

A

When antibodies prevents pathogen from binding its target

717
Q

What is agglutination? (Antibody function)

A

Glues together pathogens making them easier to kill

718
Q

What is complement activation? (Antibody function)

A

Antibody binds to pathogen & attract complement proteins

719
Q

What elements are found in antibodies?

A

Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen & hydrogen as it is a protein & sulphur because of the disulphide bridges

720
Q

What is plasma made up of?

A

92% water
7% proteins
→ albumins: hydrophobic molecule carriers
→ fibrinogen: clotting junction
→ Globulins: antibodies, clotting proteins
1% solutes (electrolytes, glucose, waste…)

721
Q

What is blood serum?

A

Plasma without clotting factors

722
Q

What is the buffy coat made up of?

A

Leukocytes (white blood cells, immune function), plates/thrombocytes (clotting function)

723
Q

Are platelets cells?

A

No they are cell fragments (no organelles)

724
Q

Where do platelets come from?

A

Bone marrow

725
Q

What make red blood cells different from other cells?

A

They have no organelles/ribosomes, no DNA or RNA

726
Q

Where do red blood cells come from?

A

Bone marrow

727
Q

Where is albumin found?

728
Q

Abbreviation for hemoglobin

729
Q

How many amino acid chains does hemoglobin have?

A

4, it is a tetrameric protein

730
Q

What structure does hemoglobin have? (hint: it is a tetrameric protein)

A

Quatermany structure

731
Q

How many heme groups in a hemoglobin?

A

4, each binds 1 oxygen

732
Q

How is heme able to bind oxygen?

A

It has in iron ion that oxygen can bind to

733
Q

What is cooperative binding in hemoglobin?

A

Once one oxygen binds it is easier to bind another (affinity for O2 increases)

734
Q

2 states of hemoglobin

A

Tense (t) state: no oxygen bound to heme
Relaxed (r) state: oxygen bound to heme

735
Q

What is the Bohr effect in the hemoglobin?

A

It is allosterically inhibited by CO2 & H+ which means that when they are present it favors the t state so oxygen is released when Co 2 or carbonic acid (releases H+) is present

736
Q

Where is myoglobin found?

A

Skeletal & cardiac muscle

737
Q

Which has higher affinity for oxygen, hemoglobin or myoglobin?

738
Q

Role of myoglobin

A

Store oxygen (not transport it)

739
Q

Co2+ H2O <-> ? <-> ?

A

Co2+ H2O <-> H2co3 (carbonic acid, not very stable) <-> Hco3 (bicarbonate) + H+
This reaction can occur in the blood

740
Q

Can Carbondioxide attach to hemoglobin?

A

Yes, HbCO2

741
Q

Where in the blood is Carbon dioxide transported

A

Plasma & erythrocyte

742
Q

Where is bicarbonate found in the blood?

A

Plasma & erythrocyte (catalyzed)

743
Q

Quantity of Co 2 transported in order of most to least

A

Bicarbonate (erythrocyte & plasma)
Carbominohemoglobin
Dissolved co 2

744
Q

What catalyzes this reaction H2co3 <-> Hco3 + H+ in erythrocytes?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

745
Q

Is bicarbonate acidic or basic?

746
Q

What does it mean that epithelial cell has polarity?

A

The sides of the cells are different in surface & function

747
Q

Which is the apical surface of epithelial cells & what are the main function?

A

Surface which faces the outside exterior environment or lumen
Absorption, secretion, sensing, filtration & protection

748
Q

What can the apical surface be?

A

Ciliated, Microvilli & keratinized

749
Q

Which is the apical surface of epithelial cells & what are the main function?

A

Faces the underlying tissue or basement membrane
Anchors the cell, nutrient exchange

750
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of epithelial cells called?

A

Basement membrane

751
Q

Where is the basement membrane found?

A

Between epithelial cells & connective tissue

752
Q

What are the 2 layers of the basement membrane?

A

The basal Lamina
The reticular Lamina

753
Q

What is the basement membrane (epithelial tissue) made from?

A

Collagen, other proteins & proteoglycans

754
Q

Most important part of extracellular membranes?

755
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane (epithelial tissue)?

A

Structure, tissue regeneration & stability

756
Q

What does it mean the epithelial tissue is avascular but innervated?

A

No blood vessels but supplied with nerves

757
Q

How are epithelial cells connected?

A

Through desmosomes (structual role), gap junctions (ion communication) & tight junctions (block fluid flow)

758
Q

What part of the skin contains epithelial tissue?

A

The epidermis

759
Q

4 places epithelial tissue is found

A

Lining cavities, epidermis, glands & mucous membranes

760
Q

Difference between epithelial & endothelial

A

Epithelia covers body surfaces where endothelia lines the inside of vessels such as blood & lymphatic vessels

761
Q

What makes the pupil become wide?

A

The circular muscles of the iris relax

762
Q

How many layers of cells are in simple epithelia?

763
Q

How many layers of cells are in stratified epithelia?

A

More than 1 layer of cells

764
Q

What do squamous epithelial cells look like?

A

Flat & scalelike

765
Q

What do cuboidal epithelial cells look like?

A

Box/cube shaped

766
Q

What do columnar epithelial cells look like?

A

Tall columned shaped

767
Q

Why is pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue named such?

A

Despite it being 1 layer of cells it looks as if there are multiple as they are irregularily shaped & the nucleus is located different places

768
Q

What is pseudostratified columnar? Where is it found & what is it’s function?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
Trachea & respiratory tract
Secretion of mucous
Can be ciliated

769
Q

What is stratified squamous? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial tissue
They on rare, found in certain glands
Products

770
Q

What is stratified columnar? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of epithelial cells
Rare in the body, certain glands, male urethra
Protection

771
Q

What is transitional epithelium? & where is it typically found? & what does it do?

A

Type of stratified epithelial tissue which can change shape
Bladder, unethra, ureters
Allows for stretching

772
Q

Is stratified epithelial tissue typically for protective or secretory purposes?

A

Protective

773
Q

Is stratified epithelial tissue typically ciliated?

774
Q

What shape will glandular epithelium (which do secretion) typically be?

A

Cobodial or columnar

775
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of connective tissue & what is it made of?

A

Very abundant & complex
Ground substance (fills the spice between cells, interstitial fluid, proteins & protcoglycans) & fibers (collagen fibers, elastic fibers & reticular fibers)

776
Q

What is the main protein fiber in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?

A

Collagen fibers

777
Q

3 fibers which make the extracellular matrix of connective tissue

A

Collagen fibers
Elastic fibers
Reticular fibers

778
Q

Which is the strongest Fiber & is it soluble?

A

Collagen & no it is insoluble

779
Q

Which is the most abundant protein in the body?

780
Q

What is collagen made from?

A

3 amino acid chains which form a triple helix

781
Q

Which protein are elastic fibers made from?

782
Q

Are elastic fibers soluble?

A

No, insoluble

783
Q

What are reticular fibers made from?

A

A different type of collagen

784
Q

Which fibers in the Ecm of corrective tissue provide an anchoring site for cells?

A

Reticular fibers

785
Q

Are reticular fibers soluble?

A

No, insoluble

786
Q

What kind of cells create the ecm of connective tissue & what does their name typically end in?

A

Immature (precursor) cells
“- blast”

787
Q

What do immature (precursor) cells turn into & what does their name typically end with?

A

Mature cells
“- cyte”

788
Q

What are the 2 types of connective tissue propper?

A

Loose & dense connective tissue

789
Q

What makes loose connective tissue loose?

A

Thin & sparse collagen fibers
More ground substance
Less fibroblast

790
Q

3 types of loose connective tissue?

A

Areolar
Adipose
Reticular

791
Q

What makes dense connective tissue dense?

A

Fibers make up most of the ecm
Less ground substance
More fibroblast

792
Q

3 types of dense connective tissue

A

Regular
Irregular
Elastic

793
Q

3 types of dense connective tissue

A

Regular
Irregular
Elastic

794
Q

3 types of dense connective tissue

A

Regular
Irregular
Elastic

795
Q

What is the most abundant type of connective tissue?

A

Areolar connective tissue

796
Q

Where is areolar connective tissue found?

A

Surrounds blood vessels, nerve bundles, muscles, & organs

797
Q

What does areolar connective tissue do?

A

Provides support, flexibility, movement & protection to organs & tissues

798
Q

What is adipose connective tissue & what do they contain?

A

Fat
Contains adipocytes (fat cells)

799
Q

What does reticular connective tissue do & what does it make up?

A

Supportive purposes
Lymphatic organs (spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow etc)

800
Q

What is regular connective tissue made up of?

A

Organised collagen (point is same direction) & fibroblast

801
Q

What does regular connective tissue form & why?

A

Tendons (muscle-bone) & ligaments (bone-bone) because they are good at resisting tension

802
Q

What is irregular connective tissue made from?

A

Randomly arranged collagen

803
Q

Where is the irregular tissue found & why?

A

Dermis, organ capsules, blood vessels etc because it resists tension in many directions

804
Q

Where can elastic connective tissue be found?

A

Many places that need to stretch like vocal chords, dermis, aorta etc

805
Q

Where is cartilage found?

A

In between the bones

806
Q

Does cartilage have blood vessels & neurons?

807
Q

How does cartilage receive nutrients?

808
Q

What does cartilage contain?

A

Tissue fluid, resists compression

809
Q

Main cell in cartilage & where are they found?

A

Chondrocstes, found inside lacunae

810
Q

What are the roles of cartilage?

A

Support structure (joints, nose & ears)
Protection (spinal chord & brain)
Connects ribs to sternum & to each other
Withstand tension & compression
Reduces friction between bones in joints
Template for bone formation in children
Forms a scaffold for the growth of new bone tissue
Provides nourishment to the joint
Aids respiratory function: trachea & bronchi

811
Q

What does the hyaline cartilage look like & what does it do?

A

Smooth glass like appearance, reinforces & cushions structures

812
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Ribs, nose, larynx & trachea

813
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

Areas subject to a lot of stress/pressure like intervetebral discs & knee joints

814
Q

Which type of cartilage is best at absorbing shock & resisting compression ?

A

Fibrocartilage

815
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

In ares requiring flexibility & shape retention like ear, epiglottis & tip of nose

816
Q

What is bone & what does it contain?

A

An organ which contains bone tissue & other types of tissue

817
Q

Different name for bone tissue?

A

Osseous tissue

818
Q

What does the ecm of bone tissue contain?

A

Collagen & inorganic calcium salts

819
Q

Does bone tissue have blood vessels & nerves?

820
Q

What is osteoid made of? (Bone tissue)

A

Ground substance & collagen fibers

821
Q

What is the organic component of bone tissue?

A

Cells & osteoid

822
Q

What is the inorganic component of bone tissue?

A

Hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate based)

823
Q

Roles of bone

A

Supports body, facilitate movement, protects organs, store minerals (calcium & phosphate), store fat (yellow bone marrow), haematopoiesis (red blood cell production, red bone marrow), hormone production

824
Q

What are axial bones?

A

Head & torso area (spine, ribcage, skull )

825
Q

What are the appendicular bones?

A

Appendages & limbs
Shoulder, legs, pelvis, arms & so on

826
Q

What is compact bone?

A

The hard outer layer (cortex) of bone

827
Q

What does compact bone contain?

828
Q

What a the 2 layers of compact bone?

A

Periosteum: outer surface
Endosteum: inner surface

829
Q

2 other names for spongy bone

A

Cancellous bone & trabecular bone

830
Q

What is the spongy bone?

A

Inter layer of bone

831
Q

What does spongy bone contain?

A

Open Spaces with bone marrow

832
Q

6 types of bones

A

Flat bone
Short bone
Irregular bone
Long bone
Sesamoid bone
Sutural bone

833
Q

What are short bones?

A

Short cube shape bones which are thin plates of spongy bone covered by compact bone

834
Q

Can bone marrow be found in short bones?

A

Yes but not a lot as there are no well defined cavity for it

835
Q

Example of short bones

A

Wrist (carpals), ankle (tarsals), kneecap (patella)

836
Q

What are flat bones?

A

Flattened bones with a broad surface which are thin plates of spongy bone covered by compact bone

837
Q

Is there any bone marrow in flat bone?

A

Yes but not a lot as there are no well defined cavity for it

838
Q

Examples of flat bone?

A

Skull, scapulae (shoulder, blades), sternum (breast bone) & ribs

839
Q

What are irregular bones?

A

Bones with many different shapes made of thin plates of spongy bone covered in compact bone

840
Q

Is there an bone marrow in irregular bone?

A

Yes but not a lot as there are no well defined cavity for it

841
Q

Examples of irregular bone?

A

Pelvis & vertebrae

842
Q

What are sesamoid bone?

A

Type of short bone found in tendons, thin plates of spongy bone covered by compact bone

843
Q

Example of sesamoid bone

A

Patella (kneecap)

844
Q

What are sutures bone?

A

Subtype of irregular bone within the sutures (joints) of some cranial bones in the skull

845
Q

What are long bones?

A

Bones that are longer than they a wide

846
Q

Regions of Long bones

A

Diaphysis (shaft)
2 epiphyses (ends)

847
Q

What is the diaphysis of Long bone composed of & what does it contain?

A

Compact bone
Surrounds a medullary cavity which contains yellow marrow (in adults)

848
Q

What are the epiphyses of long bones made of & what do they contain?

A

Mainly spongy bone & a bit of compact bone on the outside
Cavities of spongy bone contain red marrow

849
Q

What are osteons?

A

The functional unit of bone

850
Q

What are Osteon also called?

A

Haversian systems

851
Q

What shape does an osteon have?

A

Cylindrical

852
Q

What is the haversian canal?

A

Central canal of osteon which has blood supply

853
Q

What are the layers in the osteon called?

854
Q

What are lacunae in osteon? (Bones)

A

Space holding osteocytes

855
Q

What are canaliculi in osteon?

A

Canals between lacunae

856
Q

Where are osteon found?

A

Only compact bone

857
Q

Are osteon found in all bones?

A

No, some are mainly made of spongy bone

858
Q

Where is the osteogenic cell found?

A

In the periosteum & endosteum of the compact bone

859
Q

What type of cells are osteogenic cells?

A

Stem cells (can differentiate into other cells)

860
Q

What do osteogenic cells turn into?

A

Osteoblasts

861
Q

Where are osteoblasts found?

A

In the periosteum & endosteum of the compact bone

862
Q

What does the osteoblast secrete?

A

The extracellular matrix

863
Q

What do osteoblast become when surrounded by ecm?

A

Osteocytes

864
Q

What does it mean that osteoblasts are mitotic?

A

They are active cells, divide rapidly

865
Q

Where is the osteocytes found?

A

Inside the lacunae in the osteon in compact bone

866
Q

What do osteocytes do?

A

Regulate bone formation by osteoblasts & bone resorption by osteoclasts
In other words, they monitor & maintain ecm

867
Q

Are osteocytes mitotic?

A

No they are inactive

868
Q

What maintains the ECM in bones?

A

Osteocytes

869
Q

What creates the ECM in bones?

A

Osteoblasts

870
Q

What breaks down bone to release minerals into the blood?

A

Osteoclasts

871
Q

Which bone cells are multinucleated?

A

Only osteoclasts

872
Q

What is the process of breaking down minerals to release minerals called?

A

Resorption

873
Q

Which are the mature cells in blood?

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes (platelets, cell fragments)

874
Q

Where are hematopoietic stem cells found?

A

In bone marrow

875
Q

What is the maturation of hematopoietic stem cells called?

A

Haematopoiesis

876
Q

Does blood have an ECM?

A

Yes, blood plasma

877
Q

Why is blood connective tissue?

A

It connects & supports the body through nutrients, O2, waste removal
Protects the body through immune system & blood clotting
And it has a mesencagne origin

878
Q

Different names for muscle cells

A

Muscle fibers & myocyte

879
Q

What is the ECM of muscle tissue made of?

A

Mainly collagen but also elastin, glylosaminoglycans & proteoglycans

880
Q

Does muscle tissue have blood vessels & nerves?

881
Q

2 ways for skeletal muscles to connect to bones

A

Directly or Via tendons

882
Q

What is the precursor cell of muscle cells?

883
Q

Are skeletal muscle cells mutinucleated?

884
Q

What are the cells of the nervous tissue?

A

Neurons & the different glial cells

885
Q

What is the unique component of the ECM of nervous tissue?

886
Q

What are nerves?

A

Cable like bundles of nerve fibers (axon) with supporting glia

887
Q

What does 1 nerve have in terms of neurous?

888
Q

Where are nerves found?

889
Q

What are nerves in the Cns called?

A

Nerve tracts

890
Q

Are there unique nerves in the body?

A

Yes like the longest nerve which is the Sciatic nerve

891
Q

3 types of nerves

A

Motor (efferent)
Sensory (Afferent)
Mixed (carry signal both ways)

892
Q

What a cranial nerves?

A

Nerves that emerge directly from the brain (brainstem or the cerebrum)
Interverte structures located in the head & neck

893
Q

What are spinal nerves?

A

Emerge from the spinal cord
Innovate structures in the rest of the body
Mixed nerves

894
Q

What is a nucleus in the Central nervous system?

A

Cluster of neuronal all bodies which are integrating centres

895
Q

Which biological processes involves ions?

A

Pretty much all processes

896
Q

Do all hormones travel in the bloodstream?

897
Q

Do all hormones travel in the blood stream?

898
Q

What do autocrine hormones effects?

A

The cell they are produced in

899
Q

What do autocrine hormones effects?

A

The cell they are produced in

900
Q

What do paracrine hormones effects?

A

Regional, close by ex. Hypothalamus & pituitary gland

901
Q

What do endocrine hormones effects?

A

Things far away

902
Q

Is the movement of Carbon dioxide into the alveoli in the lungs active transport on diffusion?

903
Q

Is the movement of chemicals in a neural synapse active transport on diffusion?

904
Q

Is the reabsorption of glucose in the kidney active transport on diffusion?

A

Active transport

905
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Antibodies made by identical b cells that are all closes of a unique parent all
They bind to a single specific region of an antigen (the epitope)
Can be produced artificially in a lab

906
Q

What kind of reaction is the formation of polypeptides?

A

Condensation reaction

907
Q

Where is all the glucose absorbed in the kidneys of a healthy human?

A

Proximal convoluted tubules

908
Q

Where is adh released from?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

909
Q

During what phase of the human cell cycle does mRNA synthesis occur?

A

Interphase

910
Q

How do you find the actual size of a structure when given the image size & magnification?

A

Actual size = image size / magnification

911
Q

Where are osteocytes found?

A

In the gaps between the lamellas

912
Q

What is the pleura?

A

A serous membrane that lines the lungs & thoracic cavity

913
Q

Where are the vocal cords located?

A

In the larynx

914
Q

Name 4 lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow
Spleen
Thymus
Lymph nodes

915
Q

Are there muscle in the alveoli?

916
Q

What does haemoglobin have a higher affinity for, Carbon monoxide, Carbon dioxide or oxygen ?

A

Carbon monoxide as it binds irreversibly

917
Q

What does haemoglobin have a lower affinity for, Carbon monoxide, Carbon dioxide or oxygen ?

A

Carbon dioxide as it binds to amino acids & not the heme group

918
Q

What organ lowers the ph for optimal enzyme function?

A

The stomach

919
Q

What part of the immune response is the production of interferons, raised temperature in location of infection & increased permeability of capillaries a part of?

A

The non specific innume response

920
Q

In which part of the nervous system are ganglia found?

Biology (7 decks)

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