Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VTNE Review > Anatomy & Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomy

A

The science of the structure of the body and the relation of its parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Physiology

A

The science of how the body functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prokaryote

A

Cell lacks true membrane bound nucleus and organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of cell are all bacteria?

A

Prokaryote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Eukaryote

A

Has membrane bound nucleus and organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Three major components to eukaryotes

A

Cell membrane
Nucleus
Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are cell membranes composed of

A

Double layer phospholipids
Proteins
Carbohydrate chains
Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Components of ribosomes

A

Proteins

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ribosome function

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What types of cells have large numbers of mitochondria

A

Cells that require high levels of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum function

A

Protein transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum function

A 
Cholesterol synthesis
Steroid hormone synthesis
Lipid synthesis
Drug detoxification
Glycogen breakdown
Fat transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are large amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Liver cells
Intestinal cells
Testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Golgi Complex Function

A

Receiving, packaging, distribution
Modify & synthesize carbohydrate portion of glycoproteins
Export substances from endoplasmic reticulum to cytoplasm
Lysosome production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lysosome functions

A

Digestive enzymes for intracellular bacteria

Breakdown nonfunctional organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are large numbers of lysosomes found

A

Phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are peroxisomes

A

Membrane bound organelles that contain strong oxidase and catalase enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Peroxisome functions

A

Detoxify alcohol & formaldehyde

Convert free radicals into peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are large numbers of peroxisomes found

A

Liver cells

Kidney cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Function of cytoskeleton

A

Form / structure
Support
Enables movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Centrioles

A

Base of cilia and flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Solute

A

Substance that can be dissolved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Solvent

A

Substance that does the dissolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Solution

A

Uniform mixture of solute and solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Intercellular

A

Between cells / interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Types of passive transport

A

Diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis
Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diffusion

A

Movement of molecules from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Example of diffusion

A

Oxygen / CO2 exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Facilitated Diffusion

A

Diffusion with the aid of a carrier protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Example of facilitated diffusion

A

Glucose entering cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Osmosis

A

Movement of water from area of low solute concentration to area of high solute concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Osmotic Pressure

A

Amount of pressure needed to stop flow of water across a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Filtration

A

Small solutes being forced through a membrane by hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What kind of passive transport is used in the kidneys

A

Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Types of active transport

A

Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Endocytosis

A

Materials being taken into a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Types of Endocytosis

A

Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis
Receptor-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Cell eating

Cell membrane extends around solid particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What types of cells perform phagocytosis

A

Some WBC

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pinocytosis

A

Cell drinking

Cell membrane extends around fluid droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What cells perform pinocytosis

A

Absorptive cells in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis

A

Specialized membrane receptors bind to substances entering the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What types of substances enter the cell through receptor-mediated endocytosis

A 
Enzymes
Insulin
Hormones
Iron
Cholesterol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Exocytosis

A

Materials expelled by the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What types of substances utilize exocytosis

A

Hormones
Neurotransmitters
Waste materials / mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Active Transport

A

Movement of molecules from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration with the aid of carrier proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What types of substances use active transport

A

Sodium potassium pump
Ions
Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hypotonic

A

Extracellular fluid less concentrated than intracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens to RBC in hypotonic solutions?

A

Gain water & burst

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypertonic

A

Extracellular fluid is more concentrated than intracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens to RBC in hypertonic fluid?

A

Lose water and shrivel / crenate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Isotonic

A

Concentrations of extracellular and intracellular fluids are equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tissue

A

Groups of similar cells with related functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Histology / Microanatomy

A

Study of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Four primary types of tissue

A

Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Subtypes of epithelial tissue (6)

A 
Squamous Cell
Cuboidal
Columnar
Pseudostratified columnar
Transitional
Glandular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Squamous Epithelium characteristics

A

Flat, thin, plate-like cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where are simple squamous epithelial cells found

A

Lines blood vessels
Alveoli of lungs
Thoracic cavity
Abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where are stratified squamous epithelial cells found

A 
Areas of wear
Mouth
Esophagus
Vagina
Rectum
Epidermis (keritinized)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cuboidal Epithelium characteristics

A

Cube-shaped cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where are simple cuboidal epithelial cells found

A

Glands
Ducts
Surface of ovary
Kidney tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where are stratified cuboidal epithelial cells found

A

Fairly rare
Lines sweat ducts
Salivary glands
Mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Columnar Epithelium characteristics

A

Tall, rectangular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where are simple columnar epithelial cells found

A

Lines digestive tract
Bronchi
Uterine tubes
Uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where are stratified columnar epithelial cells found

A

Relatively rare
Mammary ducts
Portions of male urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium characteristics

A

Appear to be more than one layer but all cells contact basal membrane
Usually ciliated
Associated with goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where are pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells found

A

Respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Transitional epithelium characteristics

A

Resemble cuboidal & squamous shaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where are transitional epithelial cells found

A

Areas needing great distension
Urinary bladder
Ureters
Part of urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Glandular epithelium characteristics

A

Specialized to secrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where are glandular epithelial cells found

A

Ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Endocrine Glands

A

Ductless

Secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Exocrine Glands

A

Have ducts and secrete onto an epithelial surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Elements of connective tissue (3)

A

Cells
Fibers
Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Functions of connective tissue

A 
Connects stuff
Structural support
Protection
Insulation
Transports fluids
Stores energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Types of fibers / connective tissue fibers (3)

A

Collagen fibers
Elastic fibers
Reticular fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Collagen fibers

A

Long, straight, very strong
White
Composed of collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Elastic Fibers

A

Long, thin, branching, stretchable

Yellow fibers composed of elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Reticular Fibers

A

Collagen fibers in a complex network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Loose Connective Tissue Types

A

Areolar
Adipose
Reticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Areolar tissue

A

Most widely distributed
Supports organs
Protection & flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What types of cells are made of areolar tissue

A

Fibroblasts
Macrophages
Mast cells
WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adipose Tissue

A

Insulation
Cushioning
Protection
Reserve energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What types of cells make up adipose tissue

A

Adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Reticular tissue

A

Supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where is reticular tissue found

A

Spleen
Liver
Lymph nodes
Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is reticular tissue made up of

A

Reticular fibers
macrophages
fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Dense connective tissue types

A

Regular
Irregular
Elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Regular connective tissue examples

A

Tendons
Ligaments
Aponeuroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What makes up regular connective tissue

A

Collagen fibers arranged in a parallel pattern

Fibroblasts provide strong attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tendons

A

Connect bone to muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Ligament

A

Connect bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Aponeuroses

A

Connect muscle to muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Irregular connective tissue

A

Provide strength and support to areas experiencing force from all directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Examples of irregular connective tissue

A

Dermis
Organ capsules
Joint capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Make up of irregular connective tissue

A

Collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern, elastic fibers, fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Elastic Connective tissues

A

Ligaments that have a higher elastic fiber content than collagen content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Elastic connective tissue example

A

Equine nuchal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Specialized cartilage types

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Hyaline cartilage make up

A

Collagen fibers and chondrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Examples of hyaline cartilage

A 
Nose
Trachea 
Larynx
Embryonic skeleton
Costal cartilage
Articular cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Elastic cartilage

A

Provides shape and great flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Examples of elastic cartilage

A

Pinna
Auditory canal
Epiglottis
Elastic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

Provides strong support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Examples of fibrocartilage

A 
Intervertebral discs
Pubic symphysis
Disc in stifle
Thick collagen fibers
Chondrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Types of membranes (3)

A

Mucous membranes
Serous membranes
Cutaneous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Serous membranes

A

Line body cavities but do not connect the to the exterior world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Serous membrane characteristics

A

Simple squamous epithelium connected to loose connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Function of serous membranes

A

Reduce friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Cutaneous membrane

A

Membrane exposed to the outside world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Characteristics of cutaneous membrane

A

Keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium

Attached to a layer of dense irregular connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Function of bones

A 
Support soft tissues
Protect vital organs
Lever for muscle attachment
Mineral storage
Blood production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Types of bone (2)

A

Compact

Spongy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Compact bone

A

Provides strength and support
Very few spaces
Appears solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Components to haversian system

A

Central haversian canal
Canaliculi
Lamellae
Lacunae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Central haversian canal

A

Houses blood vessels & nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Canaliculi

A

Very small canals in bone that radiate out and connect all lacunae to each other and haversian canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Lamellae

A

Concentric rings of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Lacunae

A

Small spaces that house osteocytes / mature bone cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Spongy bone

A

Large spaces of lattice-like bone / trabeculae filled with marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Diploe

A

Spongy bone of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

All bones in the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Types of bone cells (3)

A

Osteoblast
Osteoclast
Osteocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Osteoblast

A

Immature bone cell

Produces bone matrix / osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Osteocyte

A

Mature bone cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Osteoclast

A

Very large, multinucleated cells that breakdown bone matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Classifications of bones (6)

A 
Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones
Pneumatic bones
Irregular bones
Sesamoid bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Long bones

A

Diaphysis containing a marrow cavity with two epiphyses

Main supporting bones of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Articular cartilage

A

Hyaline cartilage that covers the ends of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Periosteum

A

Fibrous membrane that covers the outside of bones

Rich in blood, nerves, lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Endosteum

A

Lines marrow cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Epiphyseal Cartilage

A

AKA growth plate

Region between epiphysis and diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Short bones

A

Two thin layers of compact bone with spongy bone between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Function of short bones

A

Shock absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Examples of short bones

A

Tarsus

Carpus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Flat bones

A

Two layers of compact bone with spongy bone between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Function of flat bones

A

Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

Pelvis
Scapula
Ribs
Many skull bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Pneumatic bones

A

Contain sinuses

Play role in respiration in birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Irregular bones

A

Unpaired bones with complicated shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

Vertebra

Some skull bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Sesamoid bones

A

Small short bones attached to tendons found near freely moving joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Function of sesamoid bones

A

Reduce friction along a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Types of osteogenesis

A

Endochondral

Intramembranous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Endochondral osteogenesis

A

Formed from cartilage bars laid down in the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What bones are formed via endochondral osteogenesis

A

Most bones

147
Q

Intramembranous osteogenesis

A

Bones formed from fibrous membranes laid down in the embryo

148
Q

What bones are formed via intramembranous osteogenesis

A

Most flat bones

149
Q

Dog / Cat vertebral formula

A

C7, T13, L7, S3, C6-23

150
Q

Horse vertebral formula

A

C7, T18, L6, S5, C15-20

151
Q

Cattle vertebral formula

A

C7, T13, L6, S5, C18-20

152
Q

Pig vertebral formula

A

C7, T14-15, L6-7, S4, C20-23

153
Q

Sheep vertebral formula

A

C7, T13, L6-7, S4, C16-18

154
Q

Joint / Articulation

A

When two or more bones are united by fibrous, elastic or cartilaginous tissue

155
Q

Classifications of joints by function (3)

A

Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarthrosis

156
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Immovable joint

157
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Slightly moveable joint

158
Q

Diarthrosis

A

Freely moveable joint

159
Q

Types of synovial joints (6)

A 
Ball & Socket / spheroid
Arthrodial / condyloid
Trochoid / pivot
Hinge / ginglymus
Gliding
Saddle
160
Q

Examples of ball and socket / spheroid joint

A

Hip

Shoulder

161
Q

Examples of arthrodial / condyloid joint

A

Radiocarpal joints

162
Q

Example of trochoid / pivot joint

A

Atlantoaxial joint

163
Q

Example of hinge / ginglymus joint

A

Stifle

Elbow

164
Q

Example of gliding joint

A

Radioulnar joint

Intervertebral joints

165
Q

Example of saddle joint

A

In primates only

Carpometacarpal joint

166
Q

Flexor

A

Decreases angle of a joint

167
Q

Extensor

A

Increases the angle of a joint

168
Q

Abductor

A

Moves bone away from midline

169
Q

Adductor

A

Moves bone toward midline

170
Q

Levator

A

Produces dorsally directed movement

171
Q

Depressor

A

Produces ventrally directed movement

172
Q

Sphincter

A

Decreases size of an opening

173
Q

Parts of the brain (4)

A

Cerebrum
Diencephalon
Brainstem
Cerebellum

174
Q

Cerebrum

A

Site of motor control, interpretation of sensory impulses and areas of association

175
Q

Longitudinal fissure

A

Prominent groove dividing right and left hemispheres of the brain

176
Q

Lobes of the cerebrum (4)

A

Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Parietal

177
Q

Parts of the brainstem (3)

A

Pons
Midbrain
Medulla oblongata

178
Q

Midbrain

A

Connection between forebrain / cerebrum and hindbrain

179
Q

Pons

A

Contains respiratory centers

180
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

Where nerve fibers cross

181
Q

What physiologic processes does the medulla influence

A 
Respiratory rate
Heart rate
Vomiting
Coughing
Sneezing
182
Q

Reticular Activating System

A

Responsible for sleep-wake cycles

183
Q

Afferent

A

Nerve impulses from periphery to the brain / sensory nerves

184
Q

Efferent

A

Nerve impulses from the vein to the periphery / motor nerves

185
Q

Parts of meninges (5)

A 
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
Epidural space
Subarachnoid space
186
Q

Dura mater

A

Outer layer of brain composed of dense, fibrous connective tissue

187
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

Middle layer of the brain consisting of delicate and elastic connective tissue

188
Q

Pia mater

A

Transparent

Connective tissue containing tiny blood vessels that adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord

189
Q

Epidural space

A

Between the bone and dura mater

Loos connective tissue, blood vessels and fat

190
Q

Subarachnoid space

A

Contains cerebrospinal fluid and large blood vessels

191
Q

Function of cerebrospinal fluid

A

Cushion and nourish brain

192
Q

Blood brain barrier

A

Protects brain from fluctuations in chemical levels

193
Q

Peripheral nervous system divisions

A

Afferent

Efferent

194
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Fight or flight response

195
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Returns body back to normal

196
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system release

A

Adrenergic neurotransmitter / norepinephrine

197
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system release?

A

Cholinergic neurotransmitter / acetylcholine

198
Q

Saltatory conduction

A

Transmission of a nerve impulse across a myelinated neuron

199
Q

Neuroglial cells / Glial cells

A

Connective tissue cells that do not transmit impulses

200
Q

Types of glial cells in CNS (4)

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocyte
Microglia
Ependymal

201
Q

Astrocyte

A

Starshaped and most abundant, support nervous tissue and stimulate formation of blood brain barrier

202
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

Small cells that wrap around axons to form myelin sheath

203
Q

Microglia

A

Phagocytic cells

204
Q

Ependymal

A

Ciliated to help circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

205
Q

Glial cells in PNS (2)

A

Schwann cells

Satellite cells

206
Q

Swchwann Cells

A

Wrap around axons to form myelin in PNS

Comparable to oligodendrocytes

207
Q

Satellite Cells

A

Surround cell bodies, function is unknown

208
Q

Protective layers of the heart (2)

A

Pericardium

Endocardium

209
Q

Pericardium

A

Double walled membranous sac covering the myocardium

210
Q

Layers of the pericardium (2)

A

Fibrous pericardium

Serous pericardium

211
Q

Layers to the serous pericardium

A

Parietal layer

Visceral layer

212
Q

Endocardium

A

Serous membrane lining the inner chambers of the heart

213
Q

Heart rate of dogs

A

60-160

214
Q

Cat HR

A

140-220

215
Q

Horse HR

A

28-50

216
Q

Cow HR

A

40-80

217
Q

Pig HR

A

70-120

218
Q

Llama HR

A

60-90

219
Q

Mouse HR

A

450-750

220
Q

What does the P wave represent

A

Electrical events during atrial systole / depolarization

221
Q

What does the QRS complex represent

A

Ventricle systole / depolarization

222
Q

What does the T wave represent

A

Ventricular diastole / repolarization

223
Q

Arteries

A

Carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, except pulmonary artery

224
Q

Arterioles

A

Lead to and regulate blood flow to capillaries

225
Q

Veins

A

Larger than arteries with thinner walls and valves to prevent backflow
Carry blood to heart

226
Q

5 basic processes of GI to prepare food for utilization

A 
Food ingestion
Mechanical and chemical digestion
Peristalsis
Absorption
Defecation
227
Q

Layers of the GI wall (4)

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Serosa

228
Q

GI Mucosa layers (3)

A

Epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae

229
Q

Larynx

A

Common passageway for digestive and respiratory systems

230
Q

Regions of the stomach (4)

A

Esophageal
Cardiac
Fundic
Pyloric

231
Q

Esophageal region of stomach

A

Nonglandular region

232
Q

Cardiac region of stomach

A

Produces mucus

233
Q

Fundic region of stomach

A

True body of the stomach, contains gastric glands

234
Q

Gastric glands in the fundic region of the stomach (4)

A

Mucous neck cells
Chief cells
Parietal cells
Endocrine cells

235
Q

What do mucous neck cells secrete

A

Mucus

236
Q

What do chief cells produce

A

Pepsinogen

237
Q

What do parietal cells produce

A

Hydrochloric acid

238
Q

What do endocrine cells produce

A

Gastrin

239
Q

Pyloric region of stomach

A

Produces mucus

240
Q

Compartments to rumen stomach

A

Rumen
Reticulum
Omasum
Abomasum

241
Q

Rumen

A

Largest portion

Fermentation

242
Q

Reticulum

A

‘Hardware compartment’
Most cranial portion, not separate from rumen
Honeycomb
Passageway for food, paces contractions of rumen
Usually where foreign bodies are found

243
Q

Omasum

A

Grinds up food
Absorbs water & bicarbonate
Many layers of laminae

244
Q

Abomasum

A

‘True stomach’

Site of chemical digestion

245
Q

Regions of small intestine (3)

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

246
Q

What structures increase surface area of small intestine

A

Microvilli
Circular folds
Intestinal villi

247
Q

Digestive enzymes (3)

A

Lipase
Amylase
Lipase

248
Q

Portions of the large intestine

A

Cecum

Colon

249
Q

Function of large intestine

A

Water absorption
Vitamin B & K production
Propel digesta towards rectum

250
Q

What vitamins are produced in the large intestine

A

B

K

251
Q

What does the pancreas produce in the digestive process

A

Sodium bicarbonate

252
Q

Roll of sodium bicarbonate during digestion

A

Neutralizes acidic chyme and digestive enzymes in the duodenum

253
Q

Trypsin

A

Digests proteins

254
Q

Lipase

A

Digest fat

255
Q

Amylase

A

Digests starch

256
Q

Function of liver in digestion

A

Produce bile

257
Q

Roll of bile in digestion

A

Emulsifies fat

258
Q

Toll of gallbladder in digestive system

A

Stores and releases bile when fat is present

259
Q

What animals do not have a gallbladder

A

Rats

Horses

260
Q

What substance controls release of bile

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

261
Q

Pancreatic Enzymes (7)

A 
Pancreatic amylase
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Elastase
Peptidase
Lipase
Nuclease
262
Q

Pancreatic amylase

A

Act on starch

263
Q

Chymotrypsin

A

Acts on proteins

264
Q

Elastase

A

Acts on elastin

265
Q

Peptidases

A

Act on large peptides / proteins

266
Q

Nucleases

A

Act on nucleic acids

267
Q

Small intestine enzymes (5)

A 
Trypsin
Maltase
Sucrase
Lactase
Nuclease
268
Q

Functions of lymph system (4)

A

Absorb protein containing fluid from capillaries and returns to venous system
Transport fat from digestive tract to blood
Produce lymphocytes
Develop immunity

269
Q

Lymph organs (4)

A

Spleen
Tonsils
Thymus
Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)

270
Q

Spleen as lymph tissue

A

Largest mass of lymph tissue
Phagocytic
Lymphocyte production
Storage & release of blood

271
Q

Tonsils as lymph tissue

A

Embedded in mucous membrrane

Supplied with reticuloendothelial cells

272
Q

Thymus location

A

Cranial chest, between trachea & ribs

273
Q

What is the thymus responsible for

A

Developing immune response in young

274
Q

What happens to the thymus as a patient ages

A

Turns to fat

275
Q

Mucosa associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)

A

Found in mucosal lining throughout the body

276
Q

Parts of the respiratory system (8)

A 
Nostrils / nares
Nasal cavity
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchiole
Lungs
277
Q

3 step process to respiration

A

Ventilation
External respiration
Internal respiration

278
Q

Ventilation

A

Movement of air between atmosphere and lungs

279
Q

External respiration

A

Exchange of gases between alveoli and blood

280
Q

Internal respiraton

A

Exchange of gases between blood and cells

281
Q

Physiologic process to inhalation

A

Nervous impulse from brain
Diaphragm & external intercostal muscles contract
Decrease of intrathoracic pressure

282
Q

Physiologic process to exhalation

A

Diaphragm & external intercostal muscles relax
Increase of intrathoracic pressure
Passive process

283
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air exchanged during normal breathing

284
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air inspired over the tidal volume

285
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air expired over the tidal volume

286
Q

Residual volume

A

Air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration

287
Q

Dead space (respiratory)

A

Air in the pathways of the respiratory system

288
Q

Dog RR

A

16-32

289
Q

Cat RR

A

20-42

290
Q

Horse RR

A

8-16

291
Q

Cow RR

A

12-36

292
Q

Pig RR

A

32-58

293
Q

Sheep RR

A

32-58

294
Q

Llama RR

A

12-30

295
Q

Mouse RR

A

80-230

296
Q

Hering-Breuer reflex

A

Stretch receptors in the lungs that prevent lungs from overinflating

297
Q

Factors affecting respiration rate

A 
Carbon dioxide
pH
Pain
Cold
Blood pressure
Oxygen
Stress
298
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the thoracic cavity

299
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapsed lungs

300
Q

Pleuritis / Pleurisy

A

Inflammation of the pleural membranes

301
Q

Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of the lungs caused by bacteria, virus or chemical irritant

302
Q

Eupnea

A

Normal, quiet respiration

303
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult breathing

304
Q

Apnea

A

No breathing

305
Q

Components of outer cortex of the kidney (4)

A

Glomerulus
Bowman capsule
Proximal convoluted tubules
Distal convoluted tubules

306
Q

3 phases to urine production

A

Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion

307
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone

A

Vasopressin

Increases reabsorption of water in kidney

308
Q

Aldosterone

A

Stimulates sodium reabsorption in kidney

309
Q

Where is sperm produced

A

Seminiferous tubules

310
Q

Where is testosterone produced

A

Interstitial cells of Leydig

311
Q

Where is sperm matured and stored

A

Seminiferous tubules

312
Q

Histologic layers of female reproductive tract (3)

A

Endometrium
Myometrium
Perimetrium

313
Q

Monestrous

A

One estrus cycle per year

Seasonal breeders

314
Q

Diestrous

A

Cycle in spring and fall

315
Q

Polyestrous

A

More than 1 cycle per year

316
Q

Seasonally polyestrous

A

Cycle continuously in specific seasons

317
Q

Reflex / Induced Ovulation

A

Ovulation occurs only after breeding / stimulation

318
Q

Spontaneous Ovulation

A

Ovulation occurs regardless of breeding

319
Q

Stages of estrous cycle (5)

A 
Proestrus
Estrus
Metestrus
Diestrus
Anestrus
320
Q

Proestrus

A

Preparation & attraction

Follicular growth

321
Q

Estrus

A

‘Standing heat’

Luteinizing hormone produces ovulation

322
Q

Metestrus

A

Postovulatory phase
CL forms in place of ruptured follicle
Progesterone production

323
Q

Diestrus

A

CL degeneration if no pregnancy

CL continues if pregnant

324
Q

Anestrus

A

Long period of inactivity in seasonally polyestrus animals

325
Q

Fetal membranes (3)

A

Amnion
Allantois
Chorion

326
Q

Amnion

A

Fluid filled sac closes to fetus, filled with amniotic fluid

327
Q

Allantois

A

Two-layered membrane, one layer adheres to amnion, other layer adheres to chorion

328
Q

Chorion

A

Outermost layer of fetal membrane, attaches to endometrium

329
Q

Cat & Dog gestation

A

63 days

330
Q

Horse gestation

A

336 days

331
Q

Cow gestation

A

285 days

332
Q

Pig gestation

A

114 days

333
Q

Sheep gestation

A

147 days

334
Q

Goat gestation

A

150 days

335
Q

Contents of collostrum

A

Antibodies
Proteins
Vitamins

336
Q

Roll of prolactin

A

Milk production

337
Q

Where is prolactin produced

A

Pituitary

338
Q

What influences milk letdown

A

Oxytocin

339
Q

Where is oxytocin produced

A

Hypothalamus

340
Q

Where is oxytocin released from

A

Pituitary gland

341
Q

How is hormone secretion most commonly regulated

A

Negative feedback

342
Q

What controls the adrenal medulla secretory function

A

Neural control

343
Q

Thyroxin action

A

Accelerates metabolism

344
Q

Calcitonin action

A

Regulates calcium levels

345
Q

Parathormone action

A

Regulates calcium and phosphorus levels

346
Q

Layers of the skin

A

Epidermis
Dermis / Corium
Hypodermis

347
Q

Sclera

A

Outermost fibrous layer of the eye

White of the eye

348
Q

Uvea

A

Middle vascular layer of the eye

Consists of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid

349
Q

Tapetum lucidum

A

In most domestic animals

Highly reflective

350
Q

Ciliary body (eye)

A

Supports lens, major site for production of aqueous humor

351
Q

Choroid

A

Vascular coat between sclera and retina

352
Q

Retina

A

Outermost layer of the eye, light sensitive, houses photoreceptors

353
Q

Vitreous humor

A

Clear gel occupying space between lens and retina

354
Q

Lens

A

Focuses light on retina

355
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Clear watery fluid filling anterior and posterior chambers between the lens and cornea

356
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent covering on the eye

357
Q

Three regions of the ear

A

Outer ear
Middle ear
Inner ear

358
Q

Outer ear

A

Pinna up to and including tympanic membrane

359
Q

Middle ear

A

Houses ossicles, communicates with nasopharynx

360
Q

Ossicles (3)

A

Malleus / hammer
Incus / anvil
Stapes / stirrup

361
Q

Inner ear

A

Fluid filled

Houses cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals

362
Q

Cochlea

A

Houses hearing receptors / organ of Corti

363
Q

Nerve Deafness

A

Malfunction of receptors or auditory nerve

364
Q

Transmission Deafness

A

Malfunction in transmission of soundwaves from outer ear to inner ear

VTNE Review (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions