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Anatomy > Anatomy neuro spine and back > Flashcards

Anatomy neuro spine and back Flashcards

1
Q

Fracture of the skull at the pterion will cause laceration of?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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2
Q

Laceration of the middle meningeal artery will cause what kind of hematoma

A

Epidural

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3
Q

Anosmia, periorbital bruising, and rhinorrhea is indicative of fracture of?

A

Anterior cranial fossa

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4
Q

Blood or CSF leaking from the ear is indicative of fracture of?

A

Petrous portion of the temporal bone

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5
Q

Horizontal fx superior to maxillary alveolar process is?

A

Le Fort I

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6
Q

Horizontal fx passing through superior orbital fissures, ethmoid, extending to greater wing of sphenoid?

A

Le Fort III

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7
Q

Fracture of central part of face, with separation from cranium

A

Le Fort II

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8
Q

Layers of the Scalp

A

Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum

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9
Q

Layer of the scalp with emissary veins

A

Loose connective tissue

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10
Q

Layer of the scalp with tendinous sheath

A

Aponeurosis

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11
Q

Premature closure of saggital suture?

A

Scaphocephaly

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12
Q

Premature closure of coronal suture?

A

Acrocephaly / Oxycephaly

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13
Q

Preamature closure of lambdoid and coronal suture on only one side?

A

Plagiocephaly

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14
Q

Forebrain is also called

A

Prosencephalon

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15
Q

Midbrain is also called

A

Mesencephalon

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16
Q

Hindbrain is also called

A

Rhombocencephalon

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17
Q

Prosencephalon divides into which strucutres?

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon

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18
Q

Rhombencephalon divides into which structures?

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon

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19
Q

Mesencephalon divides into which structures?

A

None, it remains the same

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20
Q

The cerebral hemisphere is homologous to which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Telencephalon

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21
Q

Telencephalon becomes?

A

Cerebral hemisphere

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22
Q

The Thalamus is homologous to which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Diencephalon

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23
Q

Diencephalon becomes?

A

Thalamus

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24
Q

Mesencephalon becomes?

A

Midbrain

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25
Q

The midbrain is derived from which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Mesencephalon

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26
Q

The pons is homologous to which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Metencephalon

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27
Q

Metencephalon becomes?

A

Pond and cerebellum

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28
Q

The cerebellum is derived from which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Metencephalon

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29
Q

The Medulla is homologous to which embryonal secondary vesicle?

A

Myelencephalon

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30
Q

Myelencephalon becomes?

A

Medulla

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31
Q

The Telencephalon forms which ventricle?

A

Lateral

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32
Q

The Diencephalon forms which cavity?

A

3rd ventricle

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33
Q

The Mesencephalon forms which cavity?

A

Aqueduct

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34
Q

The metencephalon forms which cavity?

A

Upper part of 4th ventricle

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35
Q

The myelencephalon forms which cavity?

A

Lower part of 4th ventricle

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36
Q

The CNS is derived from which embryonal structure?

A

Neural tube

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37
Q

The PNS is derived from which embryonal structure?

A

Neural crest

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38
Q

Sensory ganglia of cranial and spinal nerves are derived from?

A

Neural crest

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39
Q

Neurolemmal sheat is derived from?

A

Neural crest

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40
Q

Meninges are derived from?

A

Neural crest

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41
Q

Retinal pigment cells are derived from?

A

Neural crest

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42
Q

Adrenal medulla is derived from?

A

Neural crest

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43
Q

Dosing of folic acid

A

400mg/day

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44
Q

When should folic acid be started in a woman planning to get pregnant?

A

3 months prior to conception

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45
Q

Supratentorial cranial nerves

A

CN I and II

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46
Q

Infratentorial cranial nerves

A

CN III - XII

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47
Q

3 Menigeal layers

A

Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

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48
Q

Layers of the Dura mater

A

Endosteal and meningea layer

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49
Q

4 invagination of the meningeal layer of the dura mater

A

falx cerebri, tentorium cerebelli, falx cerebelli, diaphragma sella

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50
Q

Fold of dura mater that forms the roof of the Sella turcica?

A

Diaphragma celli

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51
Q

Midline fold of dura mater

A

Falx cerebri

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52
Q

Fold of dura mater supporting occipital lobes and covers the upper surface of the cerebellum

A

Tentorium cerebelli

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53
Q

Fold of dura that goes between cerebellar hemispheres

A

Falx cerebelli

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54
Q

Supratentorial dura sensory innervation

A

Trigeminal nerve

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55
Q

Infratentorial dura sensory innervation

A

1st 3 cervical nerves

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56
Q

Supratentorial headache referred to

A

forehead and face

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57
Q

Infratentorial headache referred to

A

back of the head and neck

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58
Q

Primary motor area of the brain. B.A?

A

pre-central gyrus, BA 4

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59
Q

Primary somatosensory area of the brain, BA?

A

post-central gyrus, BA 1,2,3

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60
Q

Primary visual area, BA?

A

BA 17

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61
Q

Primary auditory area, BA?

A

BA 41,42

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62
Q

Broca’s area, BA?

A

inferior central gyrus. BA 44, 45

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63
Q

Wernicke’s area, BA?

A

superior temporal gyrus, BA 22

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64
Q

Aphasia if Broca’s area is affected

A

Motor aphasia - expressive

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65
Q

Aphasia if Wernicke’s area is affected

A

Sensory aphasia - receptive

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66
Q

Decussation of corticospinal tract

A

Lower medulla

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67
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Spastic paralysis

A

UMNL

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68
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Flaccid paralysis

A

LMNL

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69
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Atrophy

A

LMNL

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70
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Fasciculations

A

LMNL

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71
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Clonus

A

UMNL

72
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Pathologic reflexes (Babinski)

A

UMNL

73
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Increased muscle tone

A

UMNL

74
Q

UMNL or LMNL? Decreased muscle tone

A

LMNL

75
Q

Cerebellar lobe that coordinates movement of the limbs while they are being executed

A

Anterior lobe

76
Q

Cerebellar lobe that regulates muscle tone

A

Anterior lobe

77
Q

Cerebellar lobe that regulates equilibrium and coordination of paraaxial muscles

A

Flocculonodular lobe

78
Q

Cerebellar lobe that regulates coordination of voluntary movements

A

Posterior lobe

79
Q

Ataxia, intention tremor. Which lobe of cerebellum is affected?

A

Anterior lobe

80
Q

Dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia. Which lobe of cerebellum is affected?

A

Anterior lobe

81
Q

Patient with marked gait instability. Which lobe of cerebellum is affected?

A

Posterior lobe

82
Q

Patient cannot do heel-to-shin. Which lobe of cerebellum is affected?

A

Posterior lobe

83
Q

Px with truncal ataxia

A

Flocculonodular lobe

84
Q

Tactile agnosia. Lesion?

A

Supramarginal gyrus

85
Q

Patient hears but cannot understand. What kind of aphasia?

A

Wernicke’s

86
Q

Patient knows what he wants to say but finds difficulty in saying it. What kind of aphasia?

A

Broca’s

87
Q

Flow of CSF

A

Lateral ventricle - Monroe - 3rd ventricle - Sylvius - 4th vent. - Magendie and Luschka - Subarachnoid space - arachnoid villi - superior sagittal sinus - transverse sinus - sigmoid sinus - internal jugular vein

88
Q

Rate of production of CSF

A

0.5ml/min

89
Q

Pressure of CSF

A

60-150mm water

90
Q

total volume of CSF

A

130-150ml

91
Q

Protein level of CSF

A

15-45 mg/dl

92
Q

Glucose level of CSF

A

50-85 mg/dl

93
Q

Level of lumbar tap

A

L3-L4 or L4-L5

94
Q

Hallmark of bacterial meningitis in CSF

A

> 500-1000 WBC (PMN), low glucose

95
Q

CSF parameters in viral meningitis

A
96
Q

Components of Corpus striatum of basal ganglia

A

Caudate nucleus and lentifor nuclei (composed of putamen and globus pallidus)

97
Q

Components of striatum of basal ganglia

A

Caudate nucleus + Putamen

98
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by degeneration of what part of the basal ganglia?

A

Substantia nigra

99
Q

The striatum releases what neurotransmitter?

A

Ach

100
Q

This is depleted in Parkinson’s disease

A

Dopamine

101
Q

Hemiballismus results from damage to?

A

Contralateral subthalamic nucleus

102
Q

Purely sensory Cranial nerves

A

CN 1, 2, 8

103
Q

Mixed sensory and motor cranial nerves

A

CN 10, 9, 7, 5 (mnemonic: 1975)

104
Q

Purely motor cranial nerves

A

CN 3, 4, 6, 11, 12

105
Q

Cranial nerves that come from Midbrain

A

CN 3, 4

106
Q

Cranial nerves that come from Pons

A

CN 5, 6, 7, 8

107
Q

Cranial nerves that come from Medulla

A

CN 9, 10, 11, 12

108
Q

Medially located cranial nerves

A

CN 3, 6, 12

109
Q

Artery affected in Wallenburg syndrome?

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

110
Q

Cranial nerves affected in Wallenberg syndrome?

A

CN 9,10,11

111
Q

CN that exits optic canal

A

CN 2

112
Q

CN that exits SOF

A

CN 3, 4, 6, 5 (V1)

113
Q

CN that exits foramen ovale

A

CN 5 (V3)

114
Q

CN that exits foramen rotundum

A

CN 5 (V2)

115
Q

CN that exits jugular foramen

A

CN 9, 10, 11

116
Q

CN that exits Hypoglossal canal

A

CN 12

117
Q

CN that exits Internal acoustic meatus

A

CN 7, 8

118
Q

CN that exits foramen magnum

A

CN 11

119
Q

Exit of CN 1

A

Cribriform plate

120
Q

Exit of CN 2

A

Optic canal

121
Q

Exit of CN 3

A

SOF

122
Q

Exit of CN 4

A

SOF

123
Q

Exit of CN 5 (V1)

A

SOF

124
Q

Exit of CN 5 (V2)

A

Foramen rotundum

125
Q

Exit of CN 5 (V3)

A

Foramen ovale

126
Q

Exit of CN 6

A

SOF

127
Q

Exit of CN 7

A

Internal acoustic meatus

128
Q

Exit of CN 8

A

Internal acoustic meatus

129
Q

Exit of CN 9

A

Jugular foramne

130
Q

Exit of CN 10

A

Jugular foramen

131
Q

Exit of CN 11

A

Enters through foramen magnum from spinal roots and exit through jugular foramen

132
Q

Exit of CN 12

A

Hypoglossal canal

133
Q

Innervation of muscles of mastication

A

CN V (V3)

134
Q

Nerve for general sensation of ant. 2/3 of tongue

A

CN V (V3)

135
Q

Innervation for sensation of taste ant. 2/3 of tongue

A

CN 7

136
Q

General and taste sensation post. 1/3 of tongue

A

CN 9

137
Q

Tongue muscle not innerveted by CN 12

A

Palatoglossus CN 10

138
Q

Lacrimal gland secretions innervated by

A

CN 7

139
Q

Parotid gland secretions innervated by

A

CN 9

140
Q

Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands innervated by

A

CN 7

141
Q

Vertebra with no vertebral body

A

Atlas (C1)

142
Q

Special structure in C2

A

Odontoid process

143
Q

Shape of body of typical thoracic vertebra

A

heart shape

144
Q

Shape of body of typical lumbar vertebra

A

kidney shaped

145
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis will affect which cranial nerves

A

CN 2, 3, 4, 5 (V1 and V2)

146
Q

Spinal cord ends at what level at birth?

A

L3

147
Q

Spinal cord ends at what level at 6 months AOG

A

S1

148
Q

Spinal cord ends at what level in adult

A

L1

149
Q

Most common site of Berry anerysms

A

Ant communicationg artery

150
Q

Position sense, which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal, posterior column

151
Q

Tract for 2pt discrimination

A

Dorsal column

152
Q

Most lateral region of dorsal column? (Cervical or sacral?)

A

Cervical

153
Q

Fine touch, which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal column

154
Q

Vibratory sense, which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal column

155
Q

Stereognosis, which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal column

156
Q

pain and temperature, which spinal tract?

A

Dorsal column

157
Q

Decussation of posterior column

A

Medulla

158
Q

Decussation of spinothalamic tract?

A

2 spinal nerve segments above the point of entry

159
Q

Spinothalamic tract goes through what region of the spinal cord in decussation?

A

Anterior white comissure

160
Q

Most lateral region of spinothalamic tract? (Cervical or sacral?)

A

Sacral

161
Q

Most lateral region of Corticospinal tract? (Cervical or sacral?)

A

Sacral

162
Q

Dorsal column components

A

Gracilis cuneatus and Gracilis fasciculus

163
Q

Gracile fasciculus contains fibers from which regions of the body?

A

cervical and thoracic regions

164
Q

Cuneatus fasciculus contains fibers from which regions of the body?

A

lumbar and sacral regions

165
Q

Structures punctures in lumbar puncture (in order)

A

Skin, superficial fascia, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space

166
Q

Nerve root that comes out of C3-C4 foramina

A

C4

167
Q

Nerve root that comes from C7-T1 foramina

A

C8

168
Q

Nerve root that comes from L1-L2 foramina

A

L1

169
Q

In L5 and S1, presence of dimple with tuft of hair. What is this condition called?

A

Spina bifida occulta

170
Q

Spina bifida type with open spinal cord

A

Myeloschisis

171
Q

Spina bifida type containing meninges only

A

Meningocele

172
Q

Spina bifida type containing meninges and spinal cord or nerve roots

A

Meningomyelocele

173
Q

Most common direction of intervertebral disc herniation?

A

Posterolateral

174
Q

Millard Gubler syndrome affects which part of the brainstem?

A

Pons

175
Q

Claude syndrome affects which part of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

176
Q

Weber syndrome affects which part of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

Anatomy (5 decks)

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