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YEAR 3 NEURO > ANATOMY - general > Flashcards

ANATOMY - general Flashcards

1
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves

A

31

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2
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves

A

12

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3
Q

at 4 weeks development how many regions are there in the neural tube and what are they called

A

3
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

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4
Q

by 6-8 weeks development how many brain regions are there

A

5

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5
Q

to make 5 regions what 2 regions divide

A

prosencephalon

rhombencephalon

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6
Q

at 6-8 weeks development what are the 5 brain regions

A 
telencephalon
diencephalon
mesencephalon
metencephalon
mylencephalon
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7
Q

what does the telencephalon give rise to

A

cerebral hemispheres

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8
Q

what does the diencephalon give rise to

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

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9
Q

what does the mesencephalon give rise to

A

midbrain

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10
Q

what does the metencephalon give rise to

A

pons

cerebellum

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11
Q

what does the myelencephalon give rise to

A

medulla oblongata

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12
Q

what are the 2 main cell types in the CNS

A

neurons and glial cells

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13
Q

most neurones are ___ polar

A

multi

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14
Q

what are the 4 types of glial cell

A

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells

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15
Q

what shape are astrocytes

A

star shaped - many processes

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16
Q

what are the 3 functions of astrocytes

A

support, maintain BBB, environmental homeostasis

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17
Q

what is the function of oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin in CNS

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18
Q

the nucleus of oligodendrocytes is ____ and ____ stained

A

round and moderately

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19
Q

microglia are similar in lineage to ____

A

macrophages

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20
Q

what is the function of microglia

A

immune monitoring and antigen presentation

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21
Q

does the brain have a fast or slow rate of lymphoid trafficking

A

slow

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22
Q

when do microglia move into brain from circulation

A

during development

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23
Q

what is the difference in microglial appearance when resting compared with when active

A

resting - elongated nucleus and short spiny processes

activated - rounder and look like macrophages

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24
Q

what is the function of ependymal cells

A

ciliated cuboidal/columnar epithelial cells that line the ventricles

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25
Q

which matter has a huge number of neurones, cell processes, synapses and support cells

A

grey

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26
Q

what does the white matter contain

A

medullary centre - axons (mostly myelinated) and their support cells

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27
Q

what are the 3 columns of the spinal cord white matter

A

posterior (dorsal)
lateral
anterior (ventral)

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28
Q

what are the 5 lobes of the brain

A 
frontal 
parietal
occipital 
temporal
insular
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29
Q

insular lobe has an important role in the experience of ___

A

pain

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30
Q

list the meninges from superficial to deep

A

dura
arachnoid
pia

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31
Q

the spinal cord terminates at what level

A

L1/L2

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32
Q

the spinal cord terminates in a tapered cone shape called the _____ ____ which continues as a thin connective tissue cord called the ___ ____ which is anchored to the ___

A

conus medullaris
filum terminale
dorsum of the coccyx

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33
Q

the spinal cord has an ____ layer of white matter and an ____ layer of grey matter

A

outer white

inner grey

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34
Q

what is found in the white matter of the spinal cord

A

longitudinally orientated nerve fibres (axons)

glial cells and blood vessels

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35
Q

what is found in the grey matter of the spinal cord

A 
neuronal soma
cell processes
synapses
glia
blood vessels
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36
Q

there is a small central canal that extends the length of the cord and opens where rostrally and caudually is ____

A

4th ventricle

blind ending

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37
Q

the white matter takes up a bigger/smaller portion of the cord as you descend

A

smaller

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38
Q

what are the 4 divisions of the grey matter in the spinal cord

A

right and left anterior and posterior horns

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39
Q

what does the horizontal part of the H represent in the spinal cord

A

dorsal and ventral grey matter commisures which surround the central canal

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40
Q

at T1 - L2 what can be found in addition to the R and L anterior and posterior horns

A

a lateral horn - contains preganglionic sympathetic neurones

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41
Q

where is the cord larger

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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42
Q

what is the main blood supply of the spinal cord

A

3 major longitudinal arteries - 1 anterior and 2 posterior

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43
Q

the 3 longitudinal arteries of the spinal cord originate where and run how long

A

originate from vertebral arteries and run length of the cord

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44
Q

what other arteries are found in the cord

A

segmental (A+P) and radicular arteries

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45
Q

from where are the segmental arteries derived

A

vertebral, intercostal and lumbar arteries

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46
Q

where do the radicular arteries travel

A

along the dorsal and ventral roots

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47
Q

what is the venous drainage of the spinal cord (read)

A

Venous drainage is via three anterior and three posterior spinal veins. These veins are valveless, and form an anastamosing network along the surface of the spinal cord. They also receive venous blood from the radicular veins.
The spinal veins drain into the internal and external vertebral plexuses, which in turn empty into the systemic segmental veins. The internal vertebral plexus also empties into the dural venous sinuses superiorly.

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48
Q

what separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

falx cerebri of the dura mater

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49
Q

what matter is the surface of each cerebral hemisphere

A

grey

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50
Q

what white matter structure connects the 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

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51
Q

what is the function of the superior temporal gyrus

A

reception and processing of sound

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52
Q

what is the frontal lobe responsible for

A 
higher intellect
personality 
mood 
social conduct 
language (dominant hemisphere only)
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53
Q

what is the parietal lobe responsible for

A

contributes to control of language and calculation (dominant side)
visuospatial functions e.g. 2PD (non-dominant side)

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54
Q

what is the temporal lobe responsible for

A

memory and language

hearing

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55
Q

what is the location of primary auditory cortex

A

temporal lobe

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56
Q

what is the temporal lobe responsible for

A

vision - location of the primary visual cortex

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57
Q

what separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum

A

tentorium cerebelli

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58
Q

what are the 3 main paired arteries of the brain

A

anterior middle and posterior cerebral arteries

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59
Q

the anterior cerebral artery is a branch of what

A

ICA

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60
Q

what part of the brain does the anterior cerebral artery supply

A

anteromedial aspects

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61
Q

middle cerebral artery is a continuation of what

A

ICA

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62
Q

what parts of the brain are supplied by the middle cerebral artery

A

most of lateral portions

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63
Q

the posterior cerebral artery is a branch of what

A

basilar artery

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64
Q

what does the posterior cerebral artery supply

A

medial and lateral sides of the posterior cerebrum

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65
Q

what is the venous drainage of the brain

A

network of small cerebral veins which drain into the dural sinuses - endothelial lined spaces between the outer and inner layers of the dura mater

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66
Q

how is the cerebellum attached to the cerebrum

A

3 peduncles - middle superior and inferior

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67
Q

what are the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex

A

molecular layer (outer)
purkinje cell layer (middle)
granule cell layer (inner)

68
Q

important afferents to the cerebellum mainly arrive from what 3 areas

A

spinal cord - somatic proprioceptors and pressure receptors
cerebral cortex - relayed via pons
vestibular apparatus - via vestibular nuclei

69
Q

how do afferents enter the cerebellum

they project mainly to what layer

A

via cerebellar peduncles and project mainly to granule cell layer

70
Q

the only outputs of the cerebellum is via the axons of _____ cells

A

purkinje cells

71
Q

where do the purkinje cells synapse

A

depp cerebellar nuclei - coordinate the functions of all the motor tracts of brainstem and spinal cord

72
Q

cerebellar hemispheres influence the _____ side of the body

A

ipsilateral

73
Q

what would be seen with a midline cerebellar lesion

A

disturbance of postural control - patient will fall over when sitting or standing despite preserved limb coordination

74
Q

what would be seen with a unilateral hemispheric lesion

A

disturbance of coordination of limbs

intention tremor, unsteady gait in absence of weakness or sensory loss

75
Q

what would be seen with bilateral cerebellar dysfunction

A

dysarthria (slowed slurred speech)
bilateral incoordination of arms
staggering wide based gait (cerebellar ataxia)

76
Q

what drug can cause acute bilateral cerebellar hemisphere dysfunction

77
Q

what is the function of the basal ganglia

A

facilitate purposeful movement
inhibit unwanted movement
and role in posture and muscle tone

78
Q

what are the basal ganglia

A

number of masses of grey matter located near the base of each cerebellar hemisphere

79
Q

what are the 5 basal ganglia

A 
caudate nucleus 
putamen
globus pallidus 
subthalamic nucleus
substantia nigra
80
Q

what makes up the striatum

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

81
Q

what makes up the lenticular nucleus

A

putamen and globus pallidus

82
Q

what makes up the corpus striatum

A

caudate nucleus putamen and globus pallidus

83
Q

parkinsons is a degeneration of the _____ ____ dopaminergic neurons

A

substantia nigra

84
Q

what is the direct pathway

A

the way basal ganglia work with motor cortex to enhance normal movement - enhances outflow of thalamus enhancing the desired movement

85
Q

what is the indirect pathway

A

the way basal ganglia work with motor cortex to suppress unwanted movement - inhibits flow of thalamus

86
Q

unilateral lesions of the basal ganglia affect _____ side of body

A

contralateral

87
Q

what motor signs do lesions of the basal ganglia cause

A

muscle tone change

dyskinesias - abnormal involuntary movement

88
Q

what are 3 examples of dyskinesias lesions of the basal ganglia could cause

A

tremor - sinusoidal movements
chorea
myoclonus

89
Q

what is chorea

A

rapid asymmetrical movements usually affecting distal limb musculature

90
Q

what is myoclonus

A

muscle jerks

91
Q

name a disease where there is progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex where chorea and progressive dementia are seen

A

huntingtons disease

92
Q

Are lesions of the basal ganglia extrapyramidal or pyramidal

A

extrapyramidal

93
Q

what are the 3 fibres of the white matter tracts of the brain

A

associated fibres
commisural fibres
projection fibres

94
Q

what is the function of assoc. fibres

A

connect cortical sites lying in the same hemisphere

95
Q

what is the function of commisural fibres

A

connect one hemisphere to the other usually areas of similar function

96
Q

what is the function of projection fibres

A

connect hemispheres to deeper structures including thalamus, corpus striatum, brain stem, spinal cord

97
Q

what are the 5 layers of the scalp

A 
S - skin
C- connective tissue
A - aponeurosis
L - loose connective tissue 
P - pericranium
98
Q

what kind of joints are sutures and what are they for

A

fibrous joints

prevent small fractures from spreading

99
Q

what is the weakest part of the skull

100
Q

the pterion is a junction of what bones

A

sphenoid
parietal
temporal
frontal

101
Q

what artery crosses over the deep aspect of the pterion

A

middle meningeal artery

102
Q

sensory nerve supply to the dura is mainly from what

103
Q

what encloses the dural venous sinuses

A

dura mater

104
Q

how is CSF reabsorbed

A

arachnoid granulations into dural venous sinuses

105
Q

where does the CSF circulate

A

subarachnoid space

106
Q

what is the meningeal layer that adheres to the brain and blood vessels and nerves entering or leaving brain

107
Q

what is the dura adherent to

A

internal aspect of skull

108
Q

the _____ ___ is a tough sheet of dura mater forming a roof (diaphragm) over the pituitary fossa

A

diaphragm sellae

109
Q

the ____ ___ is a sheet of dura mater tenting over cerebellum

A

tentorium cerebelli

110
Q

the tentorium cerebelli attaches to what

A

ridges of petrous temporal bones

111
Q

the tentorium cerebelli has a central gap to let what pass through

112
Q

the ____ ___ is a midline structure made of dura mater that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres

A

falx cerebri

113
Q

the falx cerebri attaches:
_______ anteriorly
internal aspect of the _____ suture
_____ posteriorly

A

crista gali of the ethmoid bone anteriorly
internal aspect of the saggital suture
internal occipital protuberance posteriorly

114
Q

the cerebral veins drain venous blood from brain into the …

A

dural venous sinuses

115
Q

the ophthalmic veins drain into the ….

A

cavernous sinus

116
Q

what is found in the midline at the internal occipital protuberance

A

confluence of venous sinuses

117
Q

____ vein is part of the danger triangle of face

118
Q

what sinus goes through the jugular foramen

A

sigmoid sinus

119
Q

the right brachiocephalic trunk bifurcates to give

A

right common carotid

right vertebral artery

120
Q

the external carotid remains external to the cranial cavity and supplies

A

neck face scalp

121
Q

the carotid artery becomes internal to cranial cavity via ___ to supply ___

A

carotid canal

brain

122
Q

how does the vertebral artery reach the brain

A

passes through transverse foramina in cervical vertebra then through foramen magnum

123
Q

the left vertebral artery is a branch of what

A

left subclavian

124
Q

where is the circle of willis

A

inferior to midbrain

125
Q

the circle of willis is closely related to what 2 things

A

pituitary stalk and optic chiasm

126
Q

ACA supplies _____ aspect of the cerebral hemispheres

127
Q

MCA supplies ____ aspect of cerebral hemispheres

128
Q

PCA supplies _____ aspect of cerebral hemispheres including visual cortex

129
Q

how much CSF circulates daily

A

400-500 mls

130
Q

what produces the CSF

A

choroid plexuses of ventribles

131
Q

choroid plexus is modified ___

132
Q

how can you access the CSF

A

LP at L3/4 L4/5

133
Q

where does the subarachnoid space end

134
Q

CSF flows from the right and Left lateral ventricles within the R and L cerebral hemispheres to the _____ via the ____

A

3rd ventricle

via the R and L foraminae of monro

135
Q

where is the 3rd ventricle found

A

in midline within diencephalon

136
Q

how does CSF flow from the 3rd to 4th ventricle

A

cerebral aqueduct (connects them in the midline)

137
Q

where is the 4th ventricle found

A

between cerebellum and pons

138
Q

from the 4th ventricle where does the CSF go

A

subarachnoid space and central canal

139
Q

what is the name of the absorbative herniations of arachnoid mater protruding into the dural venous sinuses that reabsorb CSF from sub arachnoid space

A

arachnoid granulations

140
Q

what is hydrocephalus

A

excessive production, obstruction to flow or inadequate reabsorption of CSF leading to increased CSF volume

141
Q

how can hydrocephalus be treated

A

ventricular peritoneal shunt

142
Q

what are the 2 main types of cerebral herniation

A

supratentorial

infratentorial

143
Q

what are the 4 types of supratentorial herniations

A

cingulate (subflacine)
central
uncal/transtentorial
transcalvarial

144
Q

what happens in an uncal herniation

A

uncus of temporal lobe (medial part) herniates inferior to the tentorium cerebelli

145
Q

what are the 2 types of infratentorial herniation

A 
upward
downward (tonsillar)
146
Q

what happens in a tonsillar herniation

A

cerebellar tonsils herniate into foramen magnum

147
Q

what are the 3 types of intracranial haemorrhage

A

extradural
subdural
subarachnoid

148
Q

extradural haemorhage is between what

A

bone and dura

149
Q

what is a common cause of extradural haemorrhage

A

ruptured middle meningeal artery due to trauma to pterion

150
Q

subdural haemorrhage is bleeding where

A

between dura and arachnoid

151
Q

what can cause subdural haemorrhage

A

torn cerebellar veins commonly with falls in elderly

152
Q

what is a common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

ruptured circle of willis due to berry aneurysm or congenital aneurysm

153
Q

what is a stroke

A

abrupt loss of focal brain function lasting more than 24 hours due to either spontaneous haemorrhage into brain substance or inadequate blood supply to part of brain i.e. ischaemia

154
Q

if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
visual field defects - contralateral hemianopia or quadrantanopia with macular sparing

A

occipital lobe

155
Q

if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
personality changes
behavioural changes
inability to problem solve

A

frontal lobe

156
Q

if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
hemispatial neglect

A

parietal lobe

157
Q

if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
patient cannot recognise sounds

A

temporal lobe

158
Q

what is the acronym for cerebellar dysfunction

A

DANISH

  • dysdiadokinesis
  • ataxia
  • nystagmus
  • intention tremor
  • scanning speech
  • hypotonia
159
Q

what is dysdiadokinesis

A

difficulty carrying out rapid alternating movements

160
Q

all motor neurones of skeletal muscle and autonomic nervous system are ___polar
with cell body in ___

A

multipolar

CNS

161
Q

nerves are called ____ in the brain and tend to be ___ modality

A

tracts

single

162
Q

what is the location of cell bodies of primary sensory afferents

163
Q

motor axons pass from the ___ horn

164
Q

sensory axons pass from the ___ horn

165
Q

___ rami form nerve plexuses

166
Q

sacral plexus

YEAR 3 NEURO (12 decks)

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