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Anatomy > Anatomy final > Flashcards

Anatomy final Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of tissue

A

Epithelium
Connective
Muscular
Nervous

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2
Q

Two layers of basement membranes

A

Basal lamina = top

Reticular lamina = bottom

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3
Q

Another name for tight junctions

A

Occluding junctions

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4
Q

Most permeable epithelium

A

Simple squamous

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5
Q

Epithelium where absorption takes place

A

Simple columnar

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6
Q

Stratified columnar epithlelium in the…

A

Male reproductive tract

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7
Q

Exocrine cells have…

A

An EXit duct

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8
Q

Endocrine cells secrete into…

A

Extracellular fluid

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9
Q

Holocrine

A

Cell bursts -> contents released

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10
Q

Stratified cuboidal epithelium most common in…

A

Glands

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11
Q

4 types of membrane

A

Mucous
Serous = mesothelium
Synovial
Cutaneous

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12
Q

Mucous membrane line…

A

Passageways communicating with exterior - digestive, respiratory, urinary

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13
Q

Another name for serous membranes

A

Mesothelium

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14
Q

Serous membranes line…

A

Ventral body cavities

Eg. pericardium, peritoneum

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15
Q

Transitional epithelium is in the…

A

Urinary bladder + kidneys

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16
Q

Synovial membranes line…

A

Joint cavities

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17
Q

Cutaneous membranes in the…

A

Skin + integumentary system

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18
Q

Functions of connective tissue

A 
Protection
Storage
Transport
Defence
Connecting tissues + organs
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19
Q

Types of connective tissue

A

Proper
Fluid
Supporting

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20
Q

Proper connective tissue

A

Loose - areolar, adipose, reticular

Dense - regular, irregular, elastic

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21
Q

Types of cartilage

A

Elastic
Hyaline
Fibrous

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22
Q

Types of bone

A

Trabecular/spongy

Compact

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23
Q

Ground substance is made up of

A

Glycoproteins + proteoglycans

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24
Q

Blast cells secrete…

A

Ground substance

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25
Q

Connective tissue fibres

A

Elastin
Collagen
Reticulin

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26
Q

Mesenchymal cells =

A

Connective tissue stem cells

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27
Q

Connective tissue stem cells =

A

Mesenchymal cells

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28
Q

Mast cells stimulate…

A

Inflammation

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29
Q

Location of areolar tissue

A

Between muscles

Around blood vessels, nerves + joints

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30
Q

Location of adipose tissue

A

Beneath skin

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31
Q

Function of areolar tissue

A

Packing + cushioning

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32
Q

Function of adipose tissue

A

Cushioning

Energy storage - lipids

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33
Q

Function of reticular tissue

A

Supporting framework

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34
Q

Location of reticular tissue

A

Liver
Kidney
Spleen
Bone marrow

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35
Q

Cutaneous membrane =

A

Epidermis + dermis

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36
Q

Layers of the dermis

A

Papillary

Reticular

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37
Q

Functions of dense connective tissue

A

Firm attachments
Force transmission
Reduced friction
Stabilise positioning of bones

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38
Q

Tissue in tendons + ligaments

A

Dense regular connective tissue

Lots of collagen + elastin

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39
Q

Location of dense irregular connective tissue

A

Joint capsules + visceral organs

Periostea + perichondria

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40
Q

Function of dense irregular connective tissue

A

Resists force in many directions

Prevents overexpansion of organs

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41
Q

Location of dense elastic connective tissue

A

Some spinal ligaments

Underlies transitional epithelium - contraction + expansion

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42
Q

Chondroblasts age and become

A

Chondrocytes

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43
Q

Chamber for chondrocytes + osteocytes

A

Lacuna

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44
Q

Hyaline cartilage has no…

A

Perichondrium

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45
Q

Perichondrium surrounds…

A

Cartilage

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46
Q

Outer perichondrium function

A

Support

Connections to other structures

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47
Q

Inner perichondrium function

A

Growth + maintenance of cartilage

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48
Q

Location of hyaline cartilage

A

Between ribs
Covers bones at joint surfaces
Supports larynx, trachea + bronchi

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49
Q

Function of hyaline cartilage

A

Strong + flexible support

Reduces friction between bones

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50
Q

Nourishment for hyaline cartilage comes from…

A

Synovial fluid

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51
Q

Location of elastic cartilage

A

Outer ear
Epiglottis
Auditory tubes

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52
Q

Function of elastic cartilage

A

Support

Tolerate distortion

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53
Q

Increased vascularity enables…

A

Faster healing

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54
Q

Location of fibrocartilage

A

Intervertebral discs - nucleus pulposus
Menisci
Pubic symphysis

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55
Q

Function of fibrocartilage

A

Allows movement of spine
Shock absorption
Resistance to compression
Prevents bone-bone contact

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56
Q

Osteon is made up of….

A

Concentric rings of lamellae served by one blood vessel hair

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57
Q

Blood vessel hair in bone is made up of…

A

Arteriole + venule

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58
Q

Location of blood vessel hair in bone =

A

Central canal

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59
Q

One ring of osteocytes

A

Lamella

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60
Q

Osteocytes in an osteon are connected by…

A

Canaliculi

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61
Q

Function of osteoclasts

A

Bone breakdown + remodelling

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62
Q

Osteoclasts move via…

A

Blood vessels in bone

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63
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells

A

Bone stem cells

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64
Q

What is in canaliculi?

A

Protrusions from osteoblasts

Enable connections of cells

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65
Q

Osteoid

A

Matrix of bone

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66
Q

Matrix of bone

A

Osteoid

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67
Q

Shaft of bone

A

Diaphysis

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68
Q

End of bone

A

Epiphysis

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69
Q

Medullary cavity of bone is surrounded by…

A

Endosteum - compact bone

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70
Q

Periosteum

A

Surrounds bone

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71
Q

Layers of periosteum

A 
Outer = fibrous
Inner = cellular
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72
Q

Circumfrential lamellae are served by the…

A

Periosteum

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73
Q

Periosteum is continuous with…

A

Collagen of bone

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74
Q

Endochondral ossification =

A

Bone formation originating from cartilage

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75
Q

Intramembranous ossification occurs in the…

A

Skull

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76
Q

Cartilage used for endochondral ossification

A

Hyaline

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77
Q

Secondary ossification site…

A

Centres of epiphysis

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78
Q

Type of cartilage in epiphyseal growth plates

A

Hyaline

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79
Q

Epimysium

A

Surrounds whole muscle

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80
Q

Connective tissue at end of muscle

A

Tendon

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81
Q

Perimysium

A

Surrounds fasicles

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82
Q

Endomysium

A

Surrounds fibres = muscle cells

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83
Q

Titin

A

Non-contractile protein

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84
Q

Function of titin in muscles

A

Holds myosin filaments to Z line

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85
Q

Troponin

A

Balls blocking actin sites for myosin

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86
Q

Tropomyosin

A

‘Thread’ holding troponin in place

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87
Q

Nebulin

A

Non-contractile protein in between actin filaments

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88
Q

Function of nebulin in muscles

A

Holds actin in correct positioning

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89
Q

I band

A

Isotropic = light

Only actin filaments

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90
Q

A band

A

Anisotropic = dark

All areas in which myosin filaments are

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91
Q

H band

A

Only myosin filaments

No actin

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92
Q

Terminal cisternae

A

Stores calcium ions

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93
Q

Strength training leads to

A

An increase in sarcomere content of muscles

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94
Q

Location of transverse tubules

A

Adjacent to terminal cisternae

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95
Q

Function of transverse tubules

A

Transmits signals from sarcolemma to terminal cisternae

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96
Q

Neurotransmitter used at neuromuscular junctions

A

Acetylcholine

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97
Q

Calcium binds to _________ to activate muscle contraction

A

Troponin

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98
Q

Parallel muscle

A

Biceps brachii

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99
Q

Convergent muscle

A

Pectoralis major

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100
Q

Unipennate muscle

A

Brachioradialis

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101
Q

Bipennate muscle

A

Rectus femoris

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102
Q

Multipennate muscle

A

Deltoid

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103
Q

Circular muscle

A

Orbicularis oris

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104
Q

Longer muscle fibres lead to…

A

Greater range of movement

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105
Q

Tissue type in retinacula

A

Connective

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106
Q

Functions of retinacula

A

Holds tendons in correct position

Holds tendons close to bone

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107
Q

Increased cross-sectional area of muscle ->

A

Increased force production

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108
Q

Increased stability of joint ->

A

Decreased range of movement

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109
Q

Synovial membrane tissue

A

Epithelial

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110
Q

Removal of patella ->

A

Different angle of patellar ligament -> decreased effectiveness of thigh muscles

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111
Q

Structural classification of joints

A 
Gliding
Hinge
Ellipsoid = condylar
Pivot
Saddle
Ball + socket
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112
Q

Skull joints

A

Synarthrosis

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113
Q

Contraction of right sternocleidomastoid muscle ->

A

Left rotation of head

Contralateral movement

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114
Q

How many cervical vertebrae?

A

7

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115
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae?

A

12

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116
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae?

A

5

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117
Q

How many sacral vertebrae?

A

5

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118
Q

Sacrum is a fusion of…

A

5 sacral vertebrae

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119
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint is between

A

C1 (Atlas) + C2 (Axis)

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120
Q

Atlas has no…

A

Vertebral body

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121
Q

Extra bit on axis =

A

Dens

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122
Q

Protrusion from axis to atlas =

A

Dens

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123
Q

Function of dens

A

Connects atlas + axis to form atlanto-occipital joint

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124
Q

Atlas supports the

A

Occipital condyles of skull

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125
Q

Supraspinous ligament connects…

A

All spinous processes of vertebrae

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126
Q

Supraspinous ligament location

A

C7-sacrum

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127
Q

Supraspinous ligament becomes the…

A

Ligamentum nuchae

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128
Q

Ligamentum nuchae location

A

C7-skull

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129
Q

Increased size of intervertebral discs ->

A

Increased range of movement

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130
Q

Nucleus pulposus =

A

Centre of intervertebral disc

Fibrocartilage

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131
Q

Anulus fibrosus

A

Outer of intervertebral disc

Dense connective tissue

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132
Q

External intercostal muscles activated for…

A

Inhalation

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133
Q

Internal intercostal muscles activated for…

A

Exhalation

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134
Q

Direction of external intercostal muscles

A

Up + out

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135
Q

Direction of internal intercostal muscles

A

Down + in

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136
Q

Direction of external oblique contraction

A

Contralateral - down + in

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137
Q

Direction of internal oblique contraction

A

Ipsilateral

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138
Q

Contraction of subclavius muscle ->

A

Ribs move up -> inhalation

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139
Q

Contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscles ->

A

Ribs move up -> inhalation

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140
Q

What joint connects upper limb to the axial skeleton?

A

Sternoclavicular

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141
Q

Three joints in the shoulder region

A

Glenohumeral
Sternoclavicular
Acromioclavicular

142
Q

Function of acromioclavicular joint

A

Prevents upward movement of humerus

143
Q

Classification of acromioclavicular joint

A

Planar

144
Q

Bursae in the glenohumeral joint

A

Subcoracoid
Subscapular
Subacromial

145
Q

Carpal bones joint classification

A

Planar

146
Q

Which pectoralis moves the arm?

A

Major

147
Q

Attachments of pectoralis minor

A

Coracoid process + ribs

148
Q

Which rhomboid muscle is superior?

A

Minor

149
Q

Rotator cuff muscles

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Teres minor

150
Q

Radioulnar joint classifications

A

Pivot

151
Q

Elbow joint =

A

Humeroulnar

152
Q

Elbow joint classification

A

Hinge

153
Q

Membrane between radius + ulna =

A

Antebrachial interosseous membrane

154
Q

Hand shake muscle =

A

Brachioradialis

155
Q

Collateral ligaments on elbow

A 
Radial = lateral
Ulnar = medial
156
Q

Annular ligament location

A

Holds radius to humerus -> increased stability of elbow

157
Q

Pronator teres location

A

Near elbow

Attaches to medial side of radius

158
Q

Pronator quadratus location

A

Near wrist

159
Q

Supinator location

A

Near elbow

Attaches to lateral side of radius

160
Q

Flexors of hands + fingers on the _______ side of the forearm

A

Anterior

161
Q

Medial extensors + flexors of wrist + fingers contract ->

A

Adduction of hand

162
Q

Biceps brachii is most effective when…

A

Forearm is supinated

163
Q

Antagonist of biceps brachii

A

Pronator teres + pronator quadratus

164
Q

Radiocarpal joint =

A

Scaphoid, lunate + radius

165
Q

Forearm bone most effective at wrist

A

Radius

166
Q

Radiocarpal joint classification

A

Condylar

167
Q

Scaphoid =

A

Biggest carpal bone touching radius

168
Q

Lunate =

A

Middle carpal bone

169
Q

Metacarpal bones form the…

A

Palm of the hand

170
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joint locations

A

Knuckles at end of hand

171
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joint classification

A 
2-5 = ellipsoid
1 = saddle
172
Q

Interphalangeal joint locations

A

Middle + end of fingers

173
Q

Interphalangeal joint classification

A

Hinge

174
Q

Carpometacarpal joint location

A

Palm of hand to wrist

Carpal bones + metacarpal bones

175
Q

Carpometacarpal joint classification

A 
2-5 = plane
1 = saddle
176
Q

Extensors of hand + wrist are on the ________ side of the forearm

A

Posterior

177
Q

Thenar muscles act on the…

A

Thumb

178
Q

Hypothenar muscles act on the…

A

Smallest finger

179
Q

How many layers of muscles in the hand?

A

4

180
Q

Ligaments stabilising the sacroiliac joint

A

Sacroiliac
Sacrospinous
Sacrotuberous

181
Q

Pubic symphysis joint classification

A

Amphiarthrosis

182
Q

Cartilage in pubic symphysis

A

Fibrocartilage

183
Q

Three bones in hip bone =

A

Ilium
Ischium
Pubis

184
Q

Function of acetabular labrum

A

Deepen socket of acetabulum

185
Q

Ligament connecting femoral head + acetabulum

A

Ligamentum capitis femoris

186
Q

Iliopsoas muscle =

A

Psoas major + iliacus

187
Q

Gluteal muscles =

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus maximus
Gluteus minimus

188
Q

Adductors of the thigh

A 
Pectineus
Adductor brevis
Adductor longus
Adductor magnus
Gracilis
189
Q

Hamstrings

A

Biceps femoris - lateral
Semintendinosus - medial
Semimembranosus - middle

190
Q

Quadriceps

A 
Rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis
Vastus intermedius
Vastus medialis
Tensor vastus intermedius
191
Q

Function of the tensor vastus intermedius

A

Positions vastus lateralis -> increased effectiveness

192
Q

Female pubic angle

A

> 100

193
Q

Male pubic angle

A

<90

194
Q

Only quadricep affecting hip

A

Rectus femoris

195
Q

Primary movement of quadriceps =

A

Extension of leg at knee

196
Q

Type of cartilage in menisci

A

Fibrocartilage

197
Q

Collateral ligaments in the knee are tighest when…

A

Knee is fully extended

198
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament is tightest when…

A

Knee is fully extended

199
Q

Posterior cruciate ligament is tightest when…

A

Knee is fully flexed

200
Q

Popliteus muscle rotates:

A

Tibia medially

Femur laterally

201
Q

Popliteal ligament location

A

Posterior

202
Q

Patellar ligament location

A

Anterior

203
Q

Soleus muscle is ___________ to the gastrocnemius

A

Deep

204
Q

Tibiofibular joint classification

A

Gliding

205
Q

Calcaneus bone location

A

Dorsal side of foot at heal

206
Q

Talocrural joint =

A

Lower leg + talus

207
Q

Talocrural joint classification

A

Specialised hinge

208
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Pointing toes

209
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Toes towards sky

210
Q

Neuroglial cells in the PNS

A

Satellite cells

Schwann cells

211
Q

Function of satellite cells

A

Regulate exchange of material with neuron + environment

212
Q

Function of Schwann cells

A

Myelin sheath on PNS

213
Q

Neuroglial cells in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

214
Q

Function of astrocytes

A

Blood-brain barrier

Regulate ion, nutrient + gas transport to neurons

215
Q

Function of microglia

A

Remove cell waste + debris from CNS by phagocytosis

216
Q

Function of ependymal cells

A

Line brain ventricles + central canal

Produce + circulate CSF

217
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Myelinate CNS neurons

218
Q

Direction of nervous impulse travel through a cell

A

Dendrite -> terminal boutons

219
Q

Pericardial cavity is filled with…

A

Serous fluid

220
Q

Pericardial cavity separates the…

A

Pericardium + heart

221
Q

Function of serous fluid in the pericardial cavity

A

Lubricant between pericardium + myocardium

222
Q

Function of intercalated discs in myocardium

A

Increase speed of impulse transmission

223
Q

Function of chordae tendineae

A

Hold heart valves in place to prevent inversion

224
Q

Chordae tendineae attach to…

A

Papillary muscles

225
Q

AV valves are closed during…

A

Systole

226
Q

Valves open during systole

A

Semilunar valves - pulmonary + aortic

227
Q

Cartilaginous heart valves

A

Pulmonary + aortic

228
Q

Rate of SA node

A

120bpm

229
Q

Rate of AV node

A

60bpm

230
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the heart comes from the…

A

Vagus nerve

231
Q

Cardiac veins feed into the…

A

Coronary sinus

232
Q

Coronary sinus feeds into the…

A

Right atrium

233
Q

Left coronary artery becomes the…

A

Anterior interventricular artery

234
Q

Right coronary artery becomes the…

A

Posterior interventricular artery

235
Q

Coronary artery bypass grafting uses the ____________ vein

A

Saphenous

236
Q

Epithelium of the respiratory tract

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

237
Q

Precapillary sphincters contract ->

A

Blood directed elsewhere

238
Q

Which primary bronchi has a larger diameter?

A

Right

239
Q

Type 1 alveolar cells

A

Gas exchange

240
Q

Type 2 alveolar cells

A

Surfactant-producing

241
Q

Function of surfactant

A

Reduce surface tension of alveoli -> prevent collapse

242
Q

Parietal pleural membrane covers…

A

Inner surface of the thorax

243
Q

Visceral pleural membrane covers…

A

Outer surface of the lungs

244
Q

Space between pleural membranes =

A

Pleural cavity

245
Q

Nerve controlling the diaphragm =

A

Phrenic nerve

246
Q

Respiratory control centre is in the…

A

Pons + medulla

247
Q

Pressure in pleural cavity is…

A

Subatmospheric

248
Q

Infundibulum connects the…

A

Hypothalamus + posterior pituitary

249
Q

Posterior pituitary is also called the…

A

Neurohypophysis

250
Q

Anterior pituitary is also called the…

A

Adenohypophysis

251
Q

Portal system connecting the hypothalamus + anterior pituitary

A

Hypophyseal portal system

252
Q

TRH

A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone

253
Q

TRH produced in the…

A

Hypothalamus

254
Q

TRH goes to…

A

Anterior pituitary

255
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

256
Q

TSH produced in the…

A

Anterior pituitary

257
Q

TSH goes to…

A

Thyroid gland

258
Q

TSH stimulated by

A

TRH

259
Q

TSH stimulates…

A

Production of T3 + T4 in the thyroid gland

260
Q

T3 + T4 produced ->

A

Metabolic rate increase

261
Q

Cells producing calcitonin

A

Parafollicular cells in thyroid

262
Q

Effect of calcitonin

A

Reduces calcium in the blood

263
Q

Effectors of calcitonin

A

Bone
Intestine
Kidneys

264
Q

Follicular cells in the thyroids produce…

A

T3 + T4

265
Q

T3 + T4 produced in the…

A

Follicular cells of the thyroid gland

266
Q

Hormone having the opposite effect to calcitonin =

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

267
Q

Effect of PTH

A

Increase calcium in the blood

268
Q

Effectors of PTH

A

Bone
Intestine
Kidneys

269
Q

Chief cells in the parathyroid gland produce…

A

PTH

270
Q

Cells producing PTH

A

Chief cells in the parathyroid gland

271
Q

Zones in the cortex of the adrenal glands

A

Zona reticularlis - innermost
Zona fasciculata
Zona glomerulosa - outermost

272
Q

Zona reticularis is stimulated by…

A

Pituitary hormones

273
Q

Zona reticularis produces…

A

Androgens

274
Q

Zona fasciculata is stimulated by…

A

Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) = pituitary hormone

275
Q

Zona fasciculata produces…

A

Glucocorticoids -> manage glucose levels

276
Q

Zona glomerulosa is stimulated by…

A

Vascular pressure changes

277
Q

Zona glomerulosa produces…

A

Mineralcorticoids - aldosterone

Controls minerals in blood -> affects blood pressure

278
Q

Exocrine cells in pancreas =

A

Acini cells

279
Q

D cells in Islet of Langerhands produce…

A

Somatostatin

280
Q

Effect of somatostatin =

A

Inhibits growth hormones

281
Q

Effect of prostaglandins

A

Inflammation of uterine wall -> increased adherence for egg

282
Q

Contents of prostatic fluid

A

Weak acids + antibiotics -> removes urine + bacteria in female reproductive tract

283
Q

Spermatogenesis is controlled by

A

FSH + LH

284
Q

FSH + LH produced in the…

A

Pituitary

285
Q

Interstitial cells are stimulated by…

A

LH

286
Q

Interstitial cells produce

A

Testosterone

287
Q

Function of sustenacular cells

A

Support spermatogenesis

288
Q

Sustenacular cells are stimulated by…

A

FSH + testosterone

289
Q

Spermatozoa enter the ______ after the seminiferous tubules

A

Epididymis

290
Q

Site of spermatogeneis

A

Seminiferous tubules

291
Q

Function of epididymis

A

Maturation of sperm + development of tails - 2-3 months

292
Q

Epididymis release sperm into the…

A

Ductus deferens

293
Q

Ductus deferens go into the…

A

Abdominal cavity via the inguinal canal

294
Q

Oocyte is surrounded by the ________________ when released from the ovaries

A

Corona radiata

295
Q

Function of the corona radiata

A

Protection of the oocyte

296
Q

Entrance to the uterine tubes

A

Ampulla

297
Q

Fimbriae

A

Projections from uterine tubes

298
Q

Oocyte enters the ______ when it first leaves the ovaires

A

Fimbriae

299
Q

Order of oocyte journey from ovary to uterus

A

Ovary -> fimbriaee -> infundibulum -> uterine tubes -> uterus

300
Q

Sperm deactivates the…

A

Corona radiata

301
Q

Epithelium of the female reproductive tract =

A

Simple columnar

302
Q

LH effect

A

Oocyte release

303
Q

Myometrium =

A

Smooth muscle around uterus

304
Q

Progesterone effect

A

Uterus preparation for egg implantation

305
Q

Goblet cells in the endometrium produce…

A

Mucus rich in sugars -> nourishment

306
Q

Smooth muscle in the GI tract controlled by the _____ nerve

A

Vagus

307
Q

Large intestine absorbs…

A

Water + electrolytes

308
Q

What closes the nasal cavity when swallowing?

A

Soft palate moves upwards

309
Q

Sphincter between stomach + small intestine

A

Pyloric

310
Q

Layers of the GI tract

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Serosa

311
Q

Lacteal

A

Lymph vessels in villi

312
Q

Function of lacteals

A

Absorbs fats + large proteins

313
Q

Estrogen increase ->

A

Proliferation + follicle development

314
Q

Progestin + estrogen increase ->

A

Endometrium thickness increases

315
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

Aggregated lymph nodules in the ileum

316
Q

Sections of the small intestine

A

Duodenum
Jejenum
Ileum

317
Q

Absorptive cells in the small intestine =

A

Enterocytes

318
Q

Ligament dividing the left + right lobes of the liver

A

Falciform ligament

319
Q

Function of the gall bladder

A

Store bile

320
Q

Function of bile

A

Emulsify fats + neutralise stomach acid

321
Q

Enzymes produced by pancreas

A

Amylase
Trypsin
Lipase

322
Q

Cells in pancreas involved in digestion

A

Acini

323
Q

Valve separating the small + large intestines

A

Ileocecal valve

324
Q

Epithelium in large intestine

A

Simple columnar

325
Q

Taenia coli

A

Longitudinal muscle all along large intestine

326
Q

Smooth muscle causing movements in large intestine

A

Taenia coli

327
Q

Epithelium of rectum + anus

A

Stratified squamous

328
Q

Kidney functions

A

Maintain fluid balance, volume + pressure of blood

Urine production

329
Q

Cortex of kidney

A

Outer + pale

330
Q

Medulla of kidney

A

Innter + dark

331
Q

Hormone produced by the kidneys

A

Erythropoeitin (EPO)

332
Q

Function of EPO

A

Increase red blood cell production

333
Q

Arteries surrounding the glomerulus

A

Peritubular

334
Q

Lupus

A

Autoimmune disease -> renal failure

335
Q

Glomerulosclerosis

A

Scarring of glomerulus -> ineffective filtrate production

336
Q

Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to…

A

Water

337
Q

Ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to…

A

Sodium + other salts

338
Q

Urolithiasis

A

Kidney stones

339
Q

Layers of meninges of the brain

A

Dura
Arachnoid
Pia

340
Q

Layers of the dura

A 
Endosteal = outer
Meningeal = inner
341
Q

Arachnoid layer =

A

Granulations + subarachnoid space

342
Q

Innermost lyaer of brain meninges

A

Pia

343
Q

Location of dural sinuses

A

Between endosteal + meningeal layer of dura

Midline of skull

344
Q

CSF moves through the _______ to enter the blood stream

A

Subarachoid granulations

345
Q

Connection of lateral ventricles to third ventricle

A

Interventricular foramen

346
Q

Connection of third ventricle to fourth

A

Aqueduct of the brain

347
Q

Function of choroid plexus

A

Produce CSF

348
Q

Cells lining choroid plexus

A

Ependymal cells

349
Q

Function of CSF

A

Enables brain to ‘float’

Collects waste products from brain + delivers to circulatory system

350
Q

Function of dural sinuses

A

Drain CSF from the brain and empty into the circulatory system

351
Q

EMG function

A

Measure of electrical activity in muscles

Anatomy (11 decks)

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