Anatomy and physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by myogenic? [1]

A

the heart generates its own impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the SA node located and what is its role? [2]

A

right atrium

it initiates the hear beat/impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of the AV node? [4]

A

delays transmission for 0.1 seconds
so that atria can fully contract
so that ventricles can fill up
preventing blood splurge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between a systole and a diastole? [2]

A

systole is the contraction of the heart

diastole is the relaxation of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do the impulses travel for the ventricles to contract? [3]

A

bundle of his
via bundle of branches
purkinje fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
What do the 
A) Chemoreceptors
B) Proprioceptors
C) Baroreceptors
detect? [3]
A

A) PH, oxygen and carbon dioxide (chemical)
B) muscle movement
C) blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If there was a decrease in blood pressure what would you expect to happen next? [4]

A

info relayed to CCC
via sensory nerves
sympathetic nervous system stimulated
HR speeds up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system? [2]

A

part of the autonomic nervous system

the increases heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the Cardiac Control Centre located? [1]

A

medulla oblongata (brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If there is an increase in CO2 would there be an increase in PH or decease? [1]

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain Starling’s law. [5]

A

increase in venous return (blood returning to heart)
leads greater diastolic filling (blood entering heart when it is relaxed)
cardiac muscle stretches more
more force of contraction
increase in ejection fraction (percentage of blood pumped out of the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between cardiac out put and stroke volume? [2]

A

cardiac out out is the amount of blood pumped out of heart per minute
stroke volume is amount pumped out per beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the calculation for cardiac out put?

add the averages into equation [2]

A

Q=SVxHR
cardiac output= stroke volume x heart rate
5.04l= 70 x 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define and write the equation for ejection fraction. [2]

A

percentage of blood pumped out of heart (60%)

stoke volume/ end diastolic volume x100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe what would happen to a person who increase their exercise. (Q, SV, HR and cardiac hypertrophy) [4]

A

Q= increase
SV= increase
HR= decrease
there would be cardiac hypertrophy which is the thickening/strengthening of cardiac tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does exercise effect cardiac out put in the short term and long term? [3]

A

increases to max point before it plateaus
the resting Q of an untrained performer and a trained performer is the same
the max of a trained performer is higher than a trained performer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why does stroke volume drop after a certain point? [1]

A

A quicker heartbeat means that the heart has less time to fill up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain what causes heart disease. Include atherosclerosis in your answer. [3]

A
atherosclerosis is the hardening an narrowing if arteries due to fatty deposits {atheroma} 
causes angina (chest pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Compare LDL with HDL. [4]

A

low-density lipoproteins transports the cholesterol in the blood to the tissues
this is the one that leads to heart disease
High-density lipoprotein-proteins transport the excess cholesterol to the liver so that it can be broken down
exercise increases the amount of HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the two types of stroke and what they can lead to. [3]

A

ischaemic is the stroke that is caused when blood clots haemorrhagic is when the blood vessel bursts
lead to death/disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain what cardiovascular drift is and why it happens.. [6]

A

HR is expected to remain the same when an athletes is exercising at a steady rate but it increases
fluid in plasma is lost due to sweating
result s in reduced venom return and reduced SV
Q needs to increase due to the energy needed in the body
so HR increases to compensate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the two types of circulation. [2]

A

pulmonary is the blood from lungs to heart to lungs

systemic is the blood from lungs to body to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define blood pressure [1]

A

force exerted by blood against he blood vessel walls

blood flow x resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the effect of exercise in diastolic and systolic pressure and why? [4]

A

systolic pressure increases
as the heart contracts harder and there is a higher stroke volume

diastolic pressure decreases
due to vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What would you expect the blood pressure to be in a healthy person? [1]

A

120
___ mmHg
80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is meant by venous return? [2]

A

the return of blood to the right side of the heart

via the vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What percentage of blood is in the veins at rest? [1]

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the similarities and differences between the skeletal pump and the respiratory pump? [2]

A

-both press on veins acting as a pump as they move
-skeletal is muscles contracting/relaxing whereas
respiratory is the movement of the chest and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain the role of pocket valves in venous return and sate some other factors (not skeletal/respiratory pump) that aid venous turn. [4]

A

prevent back flow
smooth muscle squeezes blood back to heart
gravity helps blood come down from upper body
suction pump action of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would you expect to happen to venous return if
A. increase in venous resistance
B. decrease in right atrial pressure
C. decrease in venous pressure

A

A. decrease
B.increase
C.decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is formed when oxygen binds with haemoglobin? [1]

A

oxyhaemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

State 3 characteristics/functions of myoglobin. [3]

A

{high affinity} for oxygen
stores oxygen for mitochondria
and can be used quickly
slow twitch muscle fibres have more myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Draw the oxygen dissociation curve. [3]

A

graph with x axis labelled partial pressure of oxygen
y axis labelled % saturation of haemoglobin
sigmoidal curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe and explain the Bohr shift. [3]

A

during exercise line shifts to the right
because of an increase on carbon dioxide and body temperature
more oxygen is released to the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What percentage of oxygen binds with haemoglobin and what happens to the rest of the oxygen? [2]

A

97%

3% dissolves with plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define the term vascular shunt mechanism. [2]

A

redistribution of blood to areas of the body

where oxygen is needed more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe and explain how bold flow changes to
a. the brain
b. the heart
during exercise [4]

A

a. remains constant as the brain is always working

b. increases as the heart beats faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe how blood is redistributed. [4]

A

chemoreceptors detect increase in co2 and lactic acid
this stimulates the vasomotor control centre (VCC)
blood is then redistributed to areas by
vasodilation where blood is needed
vasoconstriction where blood isn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are capillary sphincters? [2]

A

muscles that contract and relax

to increase or decrease blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Explain what is meant by arteriovenous difference and what happens to it during exercise? [2]

A

it is the difference between the amount of oxygen in the arterial blood driving at the muscles and the amount of oxygen in the blood leaving the muscles
increases as muscles need more oxygen for respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is meant by ventilation? [1]

A

getting air into and out of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the difference between external an internal reparation? [2]

A

external is between the lungs and blood
whereas
internal is the gaseous exchange between capillaries and bodycells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is cellular respiration? [2]

A

the metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells
to obtain energy from fuels such as glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are the alveoli adapted too their function? [4]

A
thin walls
lots of capillaries 
lots of alveoli
large surface are to volume ratio
moist 
high concentration gradient (to capillaries)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define the term diffusion. [1]

A

movement of gas molecule to an area of high partial pressure to low partial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe how altitude training may improve an athlete’s performance. [5]

A

less oxygen (lower partial pressure) in air at 2500m
reduction in diffusion gradient between lungs and air
less oxygen into blood/haemoglobin less saturated
quicker onset of aerobic respiration

also produce hormone EPO which
makes more red blood cells
more oxygen to muscles when at normal height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Evaluate Altitude training [6]

A

increases red blood cells
increases capilarisation
increases EPO
increases lactate tolerance

can’t train at same intensity - less fitness
altitude sickness
home sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is HIIT? [3]

A

High intensity interval training
anaerobic or aerobic
short intervals go maximum intensity
followed by a set period of rest/low intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How can HIIT be varied? [4]

A

duration of work
intensity of work
duration of recovery
number of work/recovery intervals

50
Q

What are the benefits of HIIT? [2]

A

can be varied (duration/type)
improves fat burning potential
increases glucose metabolism

51
Q

What is plyometrics and what is it used for? [3]

A

repeated rapid stretching and contracting of muscles
high intensity explosive activities
fast twitch muscle fibre types
the more the muscles stretches the more force it can exert
increase muscle power

52
Q

Describe the stretch shortening cycle. [6]

A

Eccentric phase/pre-stretching/loading
muscle performs an eccentric contraction/lengthens under tension

Amortisation phase
time between eccentric and concentric phase
short as possible as to not lose energy from eccentric phase

Concentric phase
used stored up energy to increase force o contraction

53
Q

What are the two possible definitions of speed [2]

A

how fast somebody can move over a set distance

how quickly a body part can be put into motion

54
Q

Define agility. [1]

A

ability to move and position the body quickly and effectively while under control

55
Q

Describe SAQ. [4]

A
Speed Agility Quickness
involves zig zag runs, ladders, passing
aims to improve multi directional movement 
develops nerve muscular system
maximun force
anaerobic
56
Q

Describe the process that allow the athlete to inspire. [4]

A

Diaphragm, and intercostals internal and external contract
At exercise sternocleidomastoid/ scalenes /petricolis minor
this causes the rib cage to move up and out
partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs decreases
oxygen enters via diffusion

57
Q

What muscles are used during inspiration during exercise? [4]

A

diaphragm
intercostal muscles
scalenes
petricolis major

58
Q

Describe the process that allows an athlete to expire. [5]

A

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax
internal intercostals and abdominals when exercising
ribcage falls
diaphragm into dome shape
increases the pressure in the lungs
air rushes out due to diffusion

59
Q

Compare the muscles used during the expiration and inspiration [4]

A

both intercostal used
diaphragm used
diaphragm contract/relax
different muscles used (named)

60
Q

What moves air into the lungs? [4]

A

differences in the air pressures inside and outside of the lungs
lower air pressure inside lungs than outside
so air moves in due to diffusion
diffusion is the movement of of gases from an area of higher concentration to lower

61
Q

Describe a ball and socket joint. [3]

A

Head of one bone into the cup of another
movement occurs in all directions
e.g. shoulder/hip

62
Q

Describe the type of joint at the elbow. [2]

A

hinge joint

movement in only one direction

63
Q

What are the articulatory bones at the ankle. [1]

A

talus
tibia
fibula

64
Q

In what plane and axis does flexion in the elbow occur? [2]

A

sagittal plane

transverse axis

65
Q

Match the planes with the axis and movement. [3]

A. transverse plane
B. Frontal plane
C. sagittal plane

  1. Transverse axis
  2. longitudinal axis
  3. sagittal axis

i. shoulder hyperextension
ii. hip adduction
iii. shoulder horizontal abduction

A

frontal plane/sagittal axis/ hip adduction

Transverse plane/longitudinal axis/shoulder horizontal abduction

Sagittal plane/transverse axis/ shoulder hyperextension

66
Q

Describe the joint actions that occur in the frontal plane and sagittal axis [2]

A

shoulder and hip

adduction and abduction

67
Q

What is meant by the antagonist and give an example. [2]

A

agonist causes movement

the quadricep during flexion at the knee or eq.

68
Q

Explain what is meant by isotonic movement [3]

A

there is movement at the muscles
concentric the muscle shortens under tension
eccentric the muscle lengthens under tension

69
Q

Using an example explain what is meant by isometric contraction [3]

A

muscle contracts without lengthening or shortening
there is no movement
crucifixion position in gymnastics deltoid

70
Q

Give an example of eccentric contraction.

A

quadriceps when landing in a star jump

71
Q

What are the three muscle fibre types? [3]

A

slow twitch fibres/type I
Fast twitch type IIa/ oxidative glycolytic
type IIx/ fast glycolytic

72
Q

State 5 characteristics of type I muscle fibres [5]

A
slow contraction speed
smaller motor neurones
less force
low fatiguability
high mitochondrial density  
high myoglobin content
high capillary density 
high aerobic capacity 
low anaerobic capacity
low ATPase activity
73
Q

Compare and contrast oxidative glycolytic muscle fibres with fast glycolytic muscle fibres [6]

A

fast contraction speed
large motor neurone size
high force produced

medium/high fatiguability
medium/low mitochondrial density 
medium/low myoglobin content
medium/low capillary density 
high/very high anaerobic capacity
medium/low aerobic capacity 
high/very high ATPase activity
74
Q

Explain which muscle fibre type a 100m sprinter would use. [3]

A

Type 11x/fast glycolytic
need lots of force
and doesn’t need to last long

75
Q

Who might use oxidative glycolytic muscle fibres? [3]

A

a 1500m runner
needs fast power
but needs some resistance to fatiguability

76
Q

Describe the structure of a motor unit [3]

A
  • neuron
  • joined to muscular fibres
  • neuromuscular junctions is where the muscle fibres join to the neurone
77
Q

What does the all or none law state? [2]

A
  • if an impulse is sent down a neuron all the muscle fibres will contract / converse
  • the impulse must reach a sufficient threshold for the muscles to contract
78
Q

What is wave summation? [4]

A
  • repeated nerve impulse
  • with no time to relax
  • so a smooth sustained contraction occurs rather than twitches
  • impulse reaches muscle calcium is released
  • if impulses continue calcium will build up
  • tetanic contraction
79
Q

Explain how spatial summation can be used by a footballer jumping to head the ball. [3]

A

-strength of contraction changed
-by altering number
and size of muscle motor units used
-do this to produce more force an djump higher

80
Q

What is a tetanic contraction? [2]

A

sustained muscle contraction

caused by repeating stimulus

81
Q

What is the role of muscle spindles when performing PNF? [3]

A
  • sends excitatory signals to the central nervous system about how far and fast the muscle is being stretched
  • CNS sends impulse to muscle to make it contract
  • triggers stretch reflex
  • prevents over stretching/injury
82
Q

What is the role of Golgi tendons in PNF? [3]

A
  • detect tension in the muscle in isometric contractions
  • sends inhibitory signals to brain
  • antagonist relaxes and lengthens
  • overrides stretch reflex
83
Q

Describe the process of PNF. [3]

A
  • perform passive stretch until detected by muscle spindles
  • isometrically contract muscle for 10 seconds
  • Golgi tendon inhibitory signals override the muscle spindles excitatory signals
  • stretch again and leg will go further
  • Contract, Relax, Antagonist Contract
84
Q

State a strength and a weakness of PNF [2]

A
  • effective in improving flexibility

- may cause injury to those with developing muscles

85
Q

What is autogenic inhibition? [3]

A
  • sudden relaxation in the muscle
  • in response to high tension
  • due to the receptors golgi tendon organs
86
Q

What is the equation for minute ventilation? [2]

A

tidal volume (0.5ml) x number of breaths per minute (F) (12)

87
Q

Define inspiratory reserve volume [1]

A

volume of air that can be forcibly inspired after a normal breath

88
Q

What is residual volume [1]

A

volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum expiration

89
Q

Draw and label a spirometer graph [6]

A
IRV 
ERV
RV
Vital capacity
TV
MV
90
Q

Define tidal volume [1]

A

volume of air breathed in or out per breath

91
Q

Define partial pressure [2]

A

the pressure exerted by a gas

when it exists within a mixture of gases

92
Q

Is the partial pressure of oxygen higher in the muscle tissue or at the capillaries? [1]

A

capillaries

93
Q

What percentage of the air we breathe is oxygen? [1]

A

21%

94
Q

How does the % of CO2 expired at rest differ to that expired during exercise? [3]

A

less

rest= 4 exercise=6

95
Q

Hoe does the % of O2 expired at rest differ to that expired during exercise? [3]

A

more

rest=16.4 exercise=14

96
Q

What is the role stretch receptors? [2]

A

prevent over inflation of the lungs

by sending impulses to the expiratory centre

97
Q

What changes would be detected by receptors to increase breathing rate [3]

A

decrease in blood pressure
increase in muscle movement
increase in blood acidity/decrease in PH

98
Q

What nerve do impulses travel down in [2]

a. the inspiratory centre
b. the expiratory centre

A

a. phrenic nerve

b. intercostal nerve

99
Q

What muscles are active during expiration? [2]

A

abdominals

internal intercostal muscles

100
Q

What muscles are active during inspiration? [2]

A

diaphragm

external intercostal

101
Q

What causes smokers cough? [3]

A
  • damage to cilia
  • they stop pushing mucus out
  • build up of mucus
  • cough to remove mucus
102
Q

What causes COPD? [5]

A
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
damage to alveoli walls 
join together
bigger airspace than normal
decreased SA:V
less efficient gas exchange
shortness of breath
103
Q

Explain why carbon monoxide causes a shortness of breath. [3]

A
  • attaches to haemoglobin more readily than oxygen
  • so less oxygen goes to muscles
  • breathing is heavier to increase oxygen into blood
104
Q

What are cilia [2]

A

hair-like structure on cells

waft dust and mucus out of trachea

105
Q

Identify how smoking can affects the lungs [4]

A
  • increased breathlessness
  • build up of mucus
  • damages lining of trachea and bronchi
  • damages alveoli walls
  • less O2 delivered to muscles
106
Q

Draw and label an EPOC graph [4]

A

o2 defecit
resting VO2
fast
slow

107
Q

What does EPOC stand for? [1]

A

Excess Post exercise Oxygen Consumption

108
Q

Define sub maximal oxygen deficit [1]

A

when there is not enough oxygen at the start of exercise to provide all ATP aerobically

109
Q

What is O2 consumption? [1]

A

amount of oxygen used to make ATP

110
Q

What is VO2 max? [1]

A

the maximum volume of oxygen that can be taken up by the muscles per minute

111
Q

Compare the fast and slow component of EPOC? [3]

A

(fast/slow)

ATP and PC/ glucose glycogen
3 mins/ hours
first/ second
high breathing/regular breathing

112
Q

Identify what happens in the fast EPOC? [2]

A
  • PC and ATP stores replenished

- replenish myoglobin

113
Q

Identify what happens in the slow component of EPOC [1]

A

-lactic acid converted to pyruvic and oxidised into glucose CO2 and water

114
Q

How long does it take to resynthesis 50% od PC stores? [1]

A

30 seconds

115
Q

What is the Cori cycle? [3]

A

the process where lactic acid is transported into the blood
to the liver
and is converted back to glucose

116
Q

Why do we breathe heavier after exercise? [3]

A

resynthesises PC and ATP
replenishes myoglobin
breaks down lactic acid into glucose

117
Q

How can we maximise glycogen replenishment [2]

A
  • eat a high carb meal within one hour of exercise

3: 1 carb:protein

118
Q

After exercise why does the body maintain a higher temperature? [1]

A

means muscles are replenished with oxygen quicker

119
Q

How is lactate made? [3]

A
  • Lactic acid breaks down
  • which releases hydrogen ions
  • the remaining compound combines with either sodium or potassium ions to make lactate
120
Q

What is the difference between lactate threshold and lactate tolerance? [2]

A

the point at which there is a quick accumulation of lactic acid
tolerance is the point at which the muscles can no longer work due to the high levels of lactate in the blood