anatomy and phys Flashcards

1
Q

What is the remnant of the notochord?

A

Nucleus pulposus

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2
Q

Telencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia

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3
Q

Diencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus

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4
Q

Mesencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Midrain

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5
Q

Metencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Pons and cerebellow

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6
Q

Myelencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Medulla

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7
Q

When does the neural tube fuse?

A

4th week (28 day)

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8
Q

What is failure of the neural tube to close associated with?

A

Folate deficiency and maternal diabetes

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9
Q

What will be elevated in amniotic fluid and maternal serum with neural tube defects?

A

Increased alpha-fetoprotein (exception: spinal bifida occulta)

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10
Q

What is the confirmatory test for neural tube defects?

A

AchE elevations in amniotic fluid

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11
Q

Spina bifida occulta cause and presenation

A

Failure of caudale neuropore to close - results in bony defect but intact dura and no herniation.
May have tuft or dimple at level of defect

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12
Q

Meningocele path

A

Meninges (but no neural tissue) herniate through defect

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13
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

Meninges and neural tissue herniate through bony defect

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14
Q

Myeloschisis

A

exposed, unfused neural tissue WITHOUT skin/meningeal covering

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15
Q

Anencephaly

A

Failure of rostral neuropore to clsoe –>no forebrain and open calvarium

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16
Q

Clinical findings of anencephaly

A

Polyhydramnios (no swalling center in brain results in fluid build up)

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17
Q

What is holoprosecephaly?

A

Failure of embryonic forebrain to separate into two cerebral hemispheres that occurs in week 5-6

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18
Q

Mutations in what may cause holoprosencephaly?

A

Sonic hedgehog signaling pathway

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19
Q

Moderate form of holoprosecephaly is associated with what?

A

Cleft lip/palate

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20
Q

Severe form of holoprosecephaly is associated with what?

A

Cyclopia

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21
Q

What syndromes may result in someone having holoprosecephaly??

A

Trisomy 13, fetal alcohol syndrome

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22
Q

MRI findings of holoprosecephaly

A

Monoventricle and fusion of basal ganglia

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23
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

A smooth brain, caused by failure of neuron migration results in a lack of gyri and sulci

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24
Q

What is encephalocele?

A

Hernation of brain/meninges through skull defect, commonly through occipital bone

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25
What is a chiara I malformation?
ectopia of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum | CONGENITAL
26
Presentation of chiara I?
asymptomatic in childhood but presents in adulthood with headaches and cerebellar symptoms
27
What is chiari I associated with?
syringomyelia
28
What is chiari II malformation?
hernation of cerebellar tonsils AND vermis thorugh foramen magnum with aquaductal stenosis resulting in noncommuniating hydrocephalus
29
What is chiari II malformation associated with?
myelomeningocele
30
Presentation of myelomeningocele?
Paralysis/sensory loss at and below the level of the lesion
31
How does Chiari II malformation present?
progressive hydrocephalus and respiratory distress
32
What is syringomyelia?
Cystic cavity within central canal of spinal cord that effects the fibers crossing in the anterior white commisure
33
Presentation of syringomyelia
bilateral symmetrical loss of pain and temp in upper extremities -fine touch preserved
34
What crosses over in the anterior commisure?
lateral spinothalamic tract
35
What is syringomyelia associated wtih?
Chiari I
36
What are aquired causes of syringomyelia?
Trauma and tumours
37
What is the dandy-walker malformation?
agenesis of cerebellar vermis leading to cystic enlargement of 4th ventricle
38
what is dandy-walker malformation associated with?
Non-communicating hydrocephalus and spina bifida
39
What are the posterior fossa malformations?
Chiari I, Chiari II and Dandy-Walker malformation
40
Which pharyngeal arches give rist to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
1st and 2nd
41
Sensation of anterior tongue?
CN V3
42
Taste of anterior tongue?
CN VII
43
Which pharnygeal arches give rise to the posterior tongue?
3 and 4
44
Sensation and taste of posterior tongue?
CN IX
45
Motor innervation to tongue?
CN XII
46
Which nerve innervates palatoglossus?
CN X
47
Astrocyte marker?
GFAP
48
Origin of microglia?
Mesoderm
49
Which type of cell is injured in GBS?
Schwann cells
50
Which type of cell is injured in MS?
oligodendrocytes
51
What do free nerve endings relay?
Pain, temp
52
What do Meissner corpuscles relay?
Fine/light touch and position tense in glabrous skin
53
Who do pacinian corpuscles relay?
vibration and pressure from deep skin layers, ligaments and joints
54
What do merkel discs relay?
Pressure, deep static touch, position sense of finger tips and superficial skin
55
What do ruffini corpuscles relay?
pressure, slippage, joint angle tange, in finger tips and joints
56
What is chromatolysis?
reaction of neuronal cell body to axonal injury
57
What changes may be seen in chromatolysis?
Increase protein synthesis causes: Round cellular swelling Displacement of nucleus to periphery Dispersion of nissl substances throughout cytoplasm
58
What is Wallerian degeneration?
Disintegration of the axon distal to site of injury - macrophages remove debrise. Axon retracts proximally to the injury and cell body sprouts new protrustions.
59
Where are the most sensitive neurons found (most sensitive to ischemia)?
Hippocampus Purkini cells Neocortex Striatum
60
Acetylcholine production location
Basal nucleus of meynert
61
Dopamine production location
Ventral tegmentum and SNc
62
GABA producation lcoation
nucleus accumbens
63
NE production location
locus cereus (pons)
64
Serotonin location production
Raphe nucleus (medulla)
65
Glutamate is made into GABA via which enzyme?
glutamate decarboxylase
66
GABA is broken down via which enzyme?
GABA transaminase
67
What is the dura matter derived from?
mesoderm
68
What is the arachnoid matter derived from?
neural crest
69
What is the pia matter derived from?
neural crest
70
What are the circumventricular organs?
``` They are sites in the CNS with fenestrated capillaries and no-blood brain barrier, they include: Area postrema OVLT SUbfumical organ Mediance eminence of hypothalamus ```
71
Area postrema function
Chemoreceptor trigger zone-sends signals to vomiting center. Responsible for vomiting after chemotherapy.
72
OVLT function?
osmoreceptors present here -measure blood
73
Median eminense of hypothalamus function
Release of hormones into vascular system to pituitary
74
Explain how vomiting occurs neurologically
Vomiting is coordinated by the nucleus tractus solitarius which receives signals from many areas, including the chemoreceptor trigger zone, GI tract, vestibular system and CNS
75
Which receptors play a role in chemotherapy-induced vomiting?
5HT3, D2, NK1
76
Which receptors play a role in motion sickness?
H1 and M1
77
Which repcetors play a role in hyperemesis gravidarum?
H1
78
What part of the brain regualtes sleep?
SCN
79
Explain how the SCN controls sleep
SCN --> NE release --> pineal gland -> increased melatonin
80
What regulate the SCN?
The environment (light)
81
Which substances decrease REM sleep?
Alcohol, benzo's and barbituates (also decrease delta), and NE
82
How are benzo's useful for sleep problems?
They are used for night terrors and sleepwalking because they decrease N3 and REM sleep
83
ECG waveform while you are awake?
Beta
84
ECG waveform of - awake eyes closed
alpha
85
ECG waveform of stage N1 (light sleep)?
theta
86
ECG waveforms of stage N2 sleep?
sleep spindles and K complexes
87
ECG waveform of stage N3 sleep?
delta
88
ECG waveform of REM sleep?
Beta
89
During which stage does bruxism occur?
N2
90
During which stage does sleepwalking, night terrors and bedwetting occur?
N3
91
During which stage does daydreaming, nightmares and penile/clitoral tumenescence occur?
REM
92
During which stage do extraocular movements occur?
REM
93
Changes in sleep of the eldery?
Decreased REM, increased REM latency, decreased N3
94
Changes in sleep of depressed persons?
Increased REM, decreased REM latency, decreased N3, repeated nighttime awakenings, early morning awakenings