anatomy and phys Flashcards

1
Q

What is the remnant of the notochord?

A

Nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Telencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mesencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Midrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Metencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Pons and cerebellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Myelencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does the neural tube fuse?

A

4th week (28 day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is failure of the neural tube to close associated with?

A

Folate deficiency and maternal diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What will be elevated in amniotic fluid and maternal serum with neural tube defects?

A

Increased alpha-fetoprotein (exception: spinal bifida occulta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the confirmatory test for neural tube defects?

A

AchE elevations in amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spina bifida occulta cause and presenation

A

Failure of caudale neuropore to close - results in bony defect but intact dura and no herniation.
May have tuft or dimple at level of defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Meningocele path

A

Meninges (but no neural tissue) herniate through defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

Meninges and neural tissue herniate through bony defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Myeloschisis

A

exposed, unfused neural tissue WITHOUT skin/meningeal covering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anencephaly

A

Failure of rostral neuropore to clsoe –>no forebrain and open calvarium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical findings of anencephaly

A

Polyhydramnios (no swalling center in brain results in fluid build up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is holoprosecephaly?

A

Failure of embryonic forebrain to separate into two cerebral hemispheres that occurs in week 5-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mutations in what may cause holoprosencephaly?

A

Sonic hedgehog signaling pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Moderate form of holoprosecephaly is associated with what?

A

Cleft lip/palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Severe form of holoprosecephaly is associated with what?

A

Cyclopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What syndromes may result in someone having holoprosecephaly??

A

Trisomy 13, fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MRI findings of holoprosecephaly

A

Monoventricle and fusion of basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

A smooth brain, caused by failure of neuron migration results in a lack of gyri and sulci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is encephalocele?

A

Hernation of brain/meninges through skull defect, commonly through occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a chiara I malformation?

A

ectopia of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum

CONGENITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Presentation of chiara I?

A

asymptomatic in childhood but presents in adulthood with headaches and cerebellar symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is chiari I associated with?

A

syringomyelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is chiari II malformation?

A

hernation of cerebellar tonsils AND vermis thorugh foramen magnum with aquaductal stenosis resulting in noncommuniating hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is chiari II malformation associated with?

A

myelomeningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Presentation of myelomeningocele?

A

Paralysis/sensory loss at and below the level of the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does Chiari II malformation present?

A

progressive hydrocephalus and respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

Cystic cavity within central canal of spinal cord that effects the fibers crossing in the anterior white commisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Presentation of syringomyelia

A

bilateral symmetrical loss of pain and temp in upper extremities -fine touch preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What crosses over in the anterior commisure?

A

lateral spinothalamic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is syringomyelia associated wtih?

A

Chiari I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are aquired causes of syringomyelia?

A

Trauma and tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the dandy-walker malformation?

A

agenesis of cerebellar vermis leading to cystic enlargement of 4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is dandy-walker malformation associated with?

A

Non-communicating hydrocephalus and spina bifida

39
Q

What are the posterior fossa malformations?

A

Chiari I, Chiari II and Dandy-Walker malformation

40
Q

Which pharyngeal arches give rist to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

1st and 2nd

41
Q

Sensation of anterior tongue?

A

CN V3

42
Q

Taste of anterior tongue?

A

CN VII

43
Q

Which pharnygeal arches give rise to the posterior tongue?

A

3 and 4

44
Q

Sensation and taste of posterior tongue?

A

CN IX

45
Q

Motor innervation to tongue?

A

CN XII

46
Q

Which nerve innervates palatoglossus?

A

CN X

47
Q

Astrocyte marker?

A

GFAP

48
Q

Origin of microglia?

A

Mesoderm

49
Q

Which type of cell is injured in GBS?

A

Schwann cells

50
Q

Which type of cell is injured in MS?

A

oligodendrocytes

51
Q

What do free nerve endings relay?

A

Pain, temp

52
Q

What do Meissner corpuscles relay?

A

Fine/light touch and position tense in glabrous skin

53
Q

Who do pacinian corpuscles relay?

A

vibration and pressure from deep skin layers, ligaments and joints

54
Q

What do merkel discs relay?

A

Pressure, deep static touch, position sense of finger tips and superficial skin

55
Q

What do ruffini corpuscles relay?

A

pressure, slippage, joint angle tange, in finger tips and joints

56
Q

What is chromatolysis?

A

reaction of neuronal cell body to axonal injury

57
Q

What changes may be seen in chromatolysis?

A

Increase protein synthesis causes:
Round cellular swelling
Displacement of nucleus to periphery
Dispersion of nissl substances throughout cytoplasm

58
Q

What is Wallerian degeneration?

A

Disintegration of the axon distal to site of injury - macrophages remove debrise. Axon retracts proximally to the injury and cell body sprouts new protrustions.

59
Q

Where are the most sensitive neurons found (most sensitive to ischemia)?

A

Hippocampus
Purkini cells
Neocortex
Striatum

60
Q

Acetylcholine production location

A

Basal nucleus of meynert

61
Q

Dopamine production location

A

Ventral tegmentum and SNc

62
Q

GABA producation lcoation

A

nucleus accumbens

63
Q

NE production location

A

locus cereus (pons)

64
Q

Serotonin location production

A

Raphe nucleus (medulla)

65
Q

Glutamate is made into GABA via which enzyme?

A

glutamate decarboxylase

66
Q

GABA is broken down via which enzyme?

A

GABA transaminase

67
Q

What is the dura matter derived from?

A

mesoderm

68
Q

What is the arachnoid matter derived from?

A

neural crest

69
Q

What is the pia matter derived from?

A

neural crest

70
Q

What are the circumventricular organs?

A
They are sites in the CNS with fenestrated capillaries and no-blood brain barrier, they include:
Area postrema
OVLT
SUbfumical organ
Mediance eminence of hypothalamus
71
Q

Area postrema function

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone-sends signals to vomiting center.
Responsible for vomiting after chemotherapy.

72
Q

OVLT function?

A

osmoreceptors present here -measure blood

73
Q

Median eminense of hypothalamus function

A

Release of hormones into vascular system to pituitary

74
Q

Explain how vomiting occurs neurologically

A

Vomiting is coordinated by the nucleus tractus solitarius which receives signals from many areas, including the chemoreceptor trigger zone, GI tract, vestibular system and CNS

75
Q

Which receptors play a role in chemotherapy-induced vomiting?

A

5HT3, D2, NK1

76
Q

Which receptors play a role in motion sickness?

A

H1 and M1

77
Q

Which repcetors play a role in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

H1

78
Q

What part of the brain regualtes sleep?

A

SCN

79
Q

Explain how the SCN controls sleep

A

SCN –> NE release –> pineal gland -> increased melatonin

80
Q

What regulate the SCN?

A

The environment (light)

81
Q

Which substances decrease REM sleep?

A

Alcohol, benzo’s and barbituates (also decrease delta), and NE

82
Q

How are benzo’s useful for sleep problems?

A

They are used for night terrors and sleepwalking because they decrease N3 and REM sleep

83
Q

ECG waveform while you are awake?

A

Beta

84
Q

ECG waveform of - awake eyes closed

A

alpha

85
Q

ECG waveform of stage N1 (light sleep)?

A

theta

86
Q

ECG waveforms of stage N2 sleep?

A

sleep spindles and K complexes

87
Q

ECG waveform of stage N3 sleep?

A

delta

88
Q

ECG waveform of REM sleep?

A

Beta

89
Q

During which stage does bruxism occur?

A

N2

90
Q

During which stage does sleepwalking, night terrors and bedwetting occur?

A

N3

91
Q

During which stage does daydreaming, nightmares and penile/clitoral tumenescence occur?

A

REM

92
Q

During which stage do extraocular movements occur?

A

REM

93
Q

Changes in sleep of the eldery?

A

Decreased REM, increased REM latency, decreased N3

94
Q

Changes in sleep of depressed persons?

A

Increased REM, decreased REM latency, decreased N3, repeated nighttime awakenings, early morning awakenings