Anatomy Flashcards

Gross Anatomy

1
Q

At 4 weeks gestation how many vesicles are there?

A

3 vesicles

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2
Q

What are the names of the vesicles at 4 weeks gestation?

A

Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Rhombencephalon

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3
Q

Which vesicles split into further swellings?

A

Prosencephalon

Rhombencephalon

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4
Q

What are the 5 swellings of the brain at 6 weeks gestation?

A
Telencephalon 
Diencephalon 
Mesencephalon 
Metencephalon 
Myelencephalon
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5
Q

What does the prosencephalon divide into?

A

Telencephalon

Diencephalon

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6
Q

What does the rhombencephalon divide into?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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7
Q

What part of the brain does the telencephalon contribute to?

A

Cerebral hemispheres

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8
Q

What part of the brain does diencephalon contribute to?

A

Thalamus

Hypothalamus

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9
Q

What part of the brain does the mesencephalon contribute to?

A

Midbrain

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10
Q

What part of the brain does the metencephalon contribute to?

A

Pons

Cerebellum

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11
Q

What part of the brain does the myelencephalon contribute to?

A

Medulla oblongata

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12
Q

4 types of glial cells

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

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13
Q

Function of astrocytes

A

Structural support - help maintain BBB

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14
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Same as Schwann cells but in the CNS rather than the PNS
= produce myelin which wraps around the axons
Has many branches

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15
Q

Function of microglia

A

Immune cells of the CNS, related to macrophages

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16
Q

Function of ependymal cells

A

Ciliated cuboidal/columnar epithelium which lines the ventricles

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17
Q

Structure of the spinal cord

A

White matter surrounding grey matter horn
Horn has ventral and dorsal portions
Between T1 and L2 there is also a small lateral horn of the spinal cord

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18
Q

Lobes of the Brain

A
Frontal 
Parietal 
Occipital 
Temporal 
Insular
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19
Q

Meninges of the Brain

A

Dura mater
Subarachnoid mater
Pia mater

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20
Q

Vertebral arteries give rise to the…

A

Posterior cerebral

Basilar artery

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21
Q

Internal carotid arteries give rise to…

A

Anterior and middle cerebral arteries

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22
Q

Intervertebral foramen (of Monro)

A

Between the lateral and 3rd ventricles

Each lateral ventricle has it’s own foramen

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23
Q

Cerebral aqueduct

A

Between the 3rd and 4th ventricle

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24
Q

Multipolar nuclei

A

All motor neurones

Have the cell body in the CNS, axon in the PNS

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25
Q

Unipolar nuclei

A

Have their body in the PNS e.g. dorsal root ganglia

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26
Q

Motor/efferents

A

Exit the spinal cord at the anterior horn

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27
Q

Sensory/afferents

A

Exit the spinal cord at the posterior horn

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28
Q

Spinal nerves

A

ONLY found in the intervertebral foramina

Do NOT contain parasympathetic fibres

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29
Q

Anterior rami

A

Contain both motor and sensory modalities
Larger
Supplies the anterolateral body wall

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30
Q

Posterior rami

A

Contains both motor and sensory modalities
Smaller
Supplies the posterior body wall

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31
Q

What does each spinal nerve supply a body segment with?

A

General sensory supply to all structures
Somatic motor supply to skeletal muscles
Sympathetic supply to skin and smooth muscle (arterioles)

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32
Q

T4 dermatome

A

Male nipple

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33
Q

T10 dermatome

A

Umbilicus

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34
Q

Posterior scalp, neck and shoulder dermatomes

A

C2-4

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35
Q

Upper limb dermatomes

A

C5-T1

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36
Q

Lower limb, gluteal region and perineum dermatomes

A

L2-Co1

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37
Q

What is a myotome

A

= the skeletal muscles supplied with motor innervation from a single spinal nerve
- May be deep to the dermatome of the same spinal nerve

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38
Q

Cervical plexus

A

C1-4

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39
Q

Brachial plexus

A

C5-T1

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40
Q

Lumbar plexus

A

L1-L4

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41
Q

Sacral plexus

A

L5-S4

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42
Q

Where do sympathetics exit the spinal cord? How?

A

T1-L2

Exit via the lateral grey horns at these levels

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43
Q

How do sympathetics transmit their fibres around the body? 4 ways

A
  1. Ascend and synapse
  2. Synapse at level of entry
  3. Descend and synapse
  4. Pass through the sympathetic trunk without synapsing to enter abdominosplanchnic nerves
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44
Q

How do sympathetic fibres travel to the heart?

A

Fibres originate from T1-6
Presynaptic = axons synpase in T1 or cervical paravertebral ganglia
Postsynaptic = pass in cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves to SA and AV nides

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45
Q

How do sympathetic fibres travel to the lungs?

A
Presynaptic = axons synapse in the upper thoracic paravertebral ganglia 
Postsynaptic = pass in cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves to bronchiolar smooth muscle and mucous glands
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46
Q

How to sympathetic fibres travel to the abdominopelvic organs?

A

Presynaptic = synapse in one of the prevertebral ganglia

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47
Q

Prevertebral ganglia

A
  1. Coeliac ganglion - foregut
  2. Aorticorenal ganglion - kidney
  3. Superior mesenteric - midgut
  4. Inferior mesenteric - hindgut
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48
Q

What is special about sympathetic supply to the adrenal medulla?

A

The presynaptic axons synapse directly onto the catecholamine secreting cells of the medulla

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49
Q

Compression of the cervical sympathetic trunk results in…

A

Horner’s syndrome

= miosis, ptosis and reduced sweating

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50
Q

Cranial nerve parasympathetic outflow

A

CN III
CN VII
CN IX
CN X

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51
Q

Muscles of the Back

A

Trapezius
Teres minor
Latissimus dorsi
Erector spinae

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52
Q

What are the parts of trapezius?

A

Descending
Transverse
Ascending

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53
Q

Extrinsic back muscles

A

Trapezius
Levator scapulae
Rhomboids
Latissimus dorsi

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54
Q

Intrinsic back muscles

A

Erector spinae - 3 vertical muscle groups

Transversopinalis

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55
Q

Movements of erector spinae and transversospinalis

A

Help maintain posture
Support spine
Extend spine
Flexion spine

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56
Q

Movement of erector spinae

A

Extension of the spine
= contracts bilaterally
- If unilateral then lateral flexion occurs

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57
Q

Flexion of the spine is carried out by which muscles

A

Psoas major

Rectus abdominis

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58
Q

Lordosis found in

A

Cervical

Lumbar

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59
Q

Kyphosis found in

A

Thoracic

Sacral

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60
Q

Where does the facet joint form?

A

Between articular processes of adjacent vertebrae

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61
Q

Where don’t you find IV discs?

A

Between C1 and C2

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62
Q

Outer ring of the IV disc

A

Annulus fibrosus

Made of fibrocartilage

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63
Q

Inner ring of the IV disc

A

Nucleus pulposus

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64
Q

Ligamentum flavum

A

Short ligament

Connects lamina to the spinal cord

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65
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Attaches to posterior aspects of all vertebral bodies and IV discs
Narrow, weak

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66
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

Attaches to anterior aspects of all vertebral bodies and IV discs
Broad, strong

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67
Q

What does the posterior longitudinal ligament prevent?

A

Overflexion

68
Q

What does the anterior longitudinal ligament prevent?

A

Overextension

69
Q

Supraspinous ligament

A

Connects tips of spinous processes

70
Q

Interspinous ligament

A

Connects superior and inferior adjacent spinous processes

71
Q

What does the transverse foramen allow?

A

Passage of the vertebral arteries

72
Q

C1 Atlas: special features

A

Doesn’t have a body or spinous process

Has an anterior and posterior arch

73
Q

C2 Axis: special features

A

Has odontoid proces

74
Q

Which vertebra has an odontoid proces?

A

C2

75
Q

C7 Vertebrae prominens

A

First palpable spinous process in most people

76
Q

Atlanto-axial joints

  • How many articulations?
  • Main movement?
A

3 synovial articulations

Move: rotation up to 180 o

77
Q

Atlanto-occipital joints

  • Articulation
  • Movements
A

Between the occipital condyles and superior articular facets of atlas
Move: flexion and extension of the neck
Little lateral flexion and rotation

78
Q

What foraminae are found in the sacrum?

A

Anterior and posterior foraminae

79
Q

Why does the sacrum have a posterior and anterior foraminae?

A

For the anterior and posterior rami of the sacral spinal nerves

80
Q

Where is caudal anaesthesia injected?

A

Local anaesthetic is injected into the sarcal hiatus to anaesthetise the spinal nerve roots of the cauda equina

81
Q

What level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1

Can end from T12 to L3

82
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin?

A

Foramen magnum

83
Q

What is the name for the Co1 segment of the spinal cord

A

Conus medullaris

84
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

The spinal nerve roots from L2 to Co that descend to their numbered vertebra

85
Q

How is the spinal cord accessed surgically?

A

Laminectomy

= releives pressure on the spinal cord or nerve roots

86
Q

Peripheral Nerve =

A

= nerves that often have more than one spinal root and overlap one true dermatome

87
Q

Anterior branches of the cervical plexus (4)

A

Lesser occipital
Great auricular
Transverse cervical
Supraclavical nerves

88
Q

Lesser occipital nerve

A

C2

Skin posterior to the external ear

89
Q

Great auricular nerve

A

C2,3

Skin over the angle of mandible and some of external ear

90
Q

Transverse cervical nerve

A

C2,3

Skin over the anterior triangle of the neck

91
Q

Supraclavicular nerve

A

C3,4

Skin over clavicle and shoulder tip

92
Q

Where is the nerve point of the neck?

A

Just above midpoint of posterior border of SCM

93
Q

Nerves which supply the upper anterolateral trunk wall

A

Intercostal nerves

Subcostal nerve

94
Q

Intercostal nerves

A

Include T2-T11

Supplied by the anterior rami of these nerves

95
Q

Subcostal nerve

A

Anterior ramus of T12

96
Q

Nerves which supply the lower anterolateral trunk wall

A

Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves

97
Q

Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves

A

Bifurcation of anterior ramus of L1

98
Q

Nerves which give peripheral cutaneous innervation of the upper limb

A

Supraclavicular nerve
Axillary nerve
Musculocutaneous (cutaneous branch) nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
- Also branches from T1 and T2 anterior rami

99
Q

Axillary nerve

A

C5,6

Supplies the regimental badge patch distribution

100
Q

Cutaneous branch of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5,6,7

101
Q

Radial nerve

A

C5-T1

Anatomical snuff box is supplied by cutaneous branches

102
Q

Ulnar nerve

A

C7,8,T1

103
Q

Median nerve

A

C5-T1

104
Q

Webbing on the big toe supplied by…

A

L5 = deep fibular nerve

105
Q

Nerves which give peripheral cutaneous innervation to the lower limb

A
Ilioinguinal nerve 
Genitofemoral nerve 
Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh 
Obturator nerve 
Saphenous nerve
Sural nerve 
Posterior rami 
Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
Superficial fibular nerve 
Deep fibular nerve
106
Q

Genitofemoral nerve

A

L1,2

107
Q

Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

A

L2,3

108
Q

Obturator nerve

A

L2-4

109
Q

Femoral nerve

A

L2-4

110
Q

Saphenous nerve

A

L3,4

Comes from the femoral nerve

111
Q

Sural nerve

A

S1,2

Comes from tibial and common fibular nerves

112
Q

Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh

A

S1-3

113
Q

Superficial fibular nerve

A

L4,5,S1

114
Q

Tibial nerve

A

L4-S3

Gives the calcaneal nerves & medial and lateral plantar nerves

115
Q

Muscles supplied by the cervical plexus

A

Neck postural and strap muscles

Diaphragm

116
Q

Muscles supplied by the brachial plexus

A

Upper limb

Extrinsic back muscles

117
Q

Muscles supplied by T2-L3

A

Postural back muscles
Intercostal muscles
Anterolateral abdominal muscles

118
Q

Muscles supplied by lumbosacral plexus

A

Lower limn

Perineal skeletal muscles

119
Q

Shoulder abduction tests which muscle and root

A

C5

Deltoid

120
Q

Shoulder adduction tests which muscles and root

A

C7
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi

121
Q

Elbow flexion tests which muscle and main root

A

C6 (C5)

Biceps brachii

122
Q

Elbow extension tests which muscle and main root

A

C7 (C8)

Triceps brachii

123
Q

Finger flexion tests which muscle and root

A

C8

Digit flexors

124
Q

Finger extension tests which muscle and root

A

C7

Digit extensors

125
Q

Finger abduction tests which muscle and root

A

T1

Dorsal interossei

126
Q

Finger adduction tests which muscle and root

A

T1

Palmar interossei

127
Q

Wrist flexion tests which muscle and roots

A

C6, 7

Carpal flexors

128
Q

Wrist extension tests which muscle and roots

A

C7,8

Carpal extensors

129
Q

Hip joint flexion tests which muscle and roots

A

L2,3

Psoas major

130
Q

Hip joint extension tests which muscles and roots

A

L5,S1

Gluteus maximus, hamstrings

131
Q

Knee joint flexion tests which muscle and roots

A

L5, S1

Hamstrings

132
Q

Knee joint extension tests which muscle and roots

A

L3,4

Quadriceps

133
Q

Ankle dorsiflexion tests which muscle and roots

A

L4,5

Tibialis anterior

134
Q

Ankle plantarflexion tests which muscles and roots

A

S1,2
Gastrocnemius
Soleus

135
Q

Ankle inversion tests which muscles and root

A

L4

Tibialis anterior and posterior

136
Q

Ankle eversion tests which muscles and roots

A

L5, S1

Fibularis longus and brevis

137
Q

Biceps reflex tests which roots?

A

C5,6

138
Q

Supinator/brachioradialis reflex tests which root?

A

C6

139
Q

Triceps reflex tests which root?

A

C7

140
Q

Patellar reflex tests which root?

A

L3

141
Q

Ankle jerk reflex tests which root?

A

S1

142
Q

What is the venous drainage of the brain?

A

Superior sagittal sinus
Cavernous sinuses
Inferior sagittal sinus
(Dural venous sinuses)

143
Q

Where does the confluence of the sinuses occur?

A

Midline at the internal occipital protuberance

144
Q

Course of the vertebral arteries

A

Pass through transverse foraminae in cervical vertebra

Enter through the foramen magnum

145
Q

Course of the internal carotid arteries

A

Becomes internal to the cranial cavity via the cranial canal

146
Q

What are the arterial branches that supply the brain stem and cerebellum closely associated with?

A

Pituitary stalk and optic chiasm

147
Q

Sensory supply of dura mater

A

CN V

148
Q

What is the diaphragm sellae?

A

Tough sheet of dura mater associated with the pituitary

Forms roof over pituitary fossa

149
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Tough sheet of dura mater over the cerebellum

150
Q

Where does the tentorium cerebelli attach?

- Special feature

A

Attaches to the ridge of petrous temporal bones

Feature: has a central gap

151
Q

What is the falx cerebri?

- Role

A

Midline structure which is made up of dura mater

Separates the right and left hemispheres

152
Q

Attachment of the falx cerebri

A

Anterior - ethmoid bone (crista galli)

Posterior - internal occipital protuberance

153
Q

Arachnoid granulations

A

Reabsorb the CSF

154
Q

Production of CSF occurs where?

A

Choroid plexus

155
Q

Production of CSF occurs where?

A

Dural venous sinuses VIA the arachnoid granulations

156
Q

Where does the subarachnoid space end/close?

A

S2 part of the sacrum

157
Q

Circulation of CSF

A
  1. Produced by choroid plexus
  2. Moves from lateral ventricles via left and right interventricular formainae (of Munro)
  3. Moves into 3rd ventricle
  4. Travels via cerebral aqueduct into 4th ventricle
158
Q

Uncal herniation

A

= the uncus (medial section of temporal lobe) herniates inferior to the tentorium cerebelli

159
Q

Complication of uncal herniation

A

Compression of CN III
= ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil
= blown pupil

160
Q

Tonsillar herniation

A

Cerebellar tonsils hernaite into the foramen magnum

161
Q

Extradural haemorrhage

A

Between the bone and dura

162
Q

A cause of extradural haemorrhage

A

Ruptured middle meningeal artery

163
Q

Subdural haemorrhage

A

Between dura and arachnoid: separates the dura from the arachnoid

164
Q

A cause of subdural haemorrhage

A

Torn cerebral veins

e.g. fall in elderly, alcholics

165
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Bleed into the CSF of the subarachnoid space

166
Q

A cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Ruptured Circle of Willis ‘berry’ aneurysm