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Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what three pairs of muscles are involved in the closing of the jaw

A

masseter
temporalis
medial pterygoid

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2
Q

where does the masseter muscle attach and what does it do

A

close the jaw

angle of the mandible and the zygomatic arch

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3
Q

where does the temporalis muscle attach and what does it do

A

close the jaw

coronoid process of the mandible to temporal fossa

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4
Q

what does the medial pterygoid muscle do and where does it attach

A

closes the jaw

the angle of the mandible ( medial) and to pterygoid plates of the sphenoid bone

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5
Q

which muscles open the jaw

A

lateral pterygoid

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6
Q

what do the lateral pterygoid muscles do and where do they attach

A

open the jaw

condyle aspect of the angle of the mandible and the pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone

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7
Q

what nerves supply the muscles that open and close the jaw

A

mandibular division of trigeminal nerve CN V3

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8
Q

where does the CNV3 attach in the brain (pons, medulla etc)

A

the pons

NB CN V trigeminal is the only cranial nerve to attach to the pons

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9
Q

where does CN V3 pass through in the skull

A

passes through the sphenoid bone in the foramen ovale

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10
Q

which tonsils are visible when the mouth is open

A

palatine tonsil

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11
Q

within the oral cavity the superior half of the oral cavity and palate is supplied by what

A

general sensation is CN V2

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12
Q

the gingivae of oral cavity and floor of the mouth inferiorly is supplied by what

A

CN V3

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13
Q

the sensory part of the gag reflex is supplies by which nerve fibres

A

CN IX-glossopharyngeal

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14
Q

the motor part of the gag reflex is supplied by which nerve fibres

A

CNIX-glossopharyngeal and CN X vagus

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15
Q

what is CN VII also known as

A

facial nerve

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16
Q

where does the facial nerve CN VII connect to the CNS

A

junction between the pons and medulla

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17
Q

how does the facial nerve leave the skull

A

through the temporal bone through the stylomastoid foramen

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18
Q

where does the glossopharyngeal nerve connect to the CNS

A

medulla

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19
Q

what is the course of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

directly towards the jugular foramen in the posterior cranial fossa

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20
Q

what does CN IX leave the skull through and through which bone

A

junction between the temporal bone and the occipital bone through the jugular foramen

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21
Q

what re the names of the four extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

genioglossus
hypoglossus
palatoglossus
styloglossus

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22
Q

where are the four pairs of intrinsic muscles on the tongue located

A

dorsally and posteriorly

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23
Q

what are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue supplied by

A

hypoglossus, genioglossus and styloglossus are upplied by CN XII hypoglossal but palatoglossus is supplied by CN X

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24
Q

where does the hypoglossal CNXII attach to the CNS

A

at the medulla

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25
Q

where does the CNXII leave the skull

A

through the occipital bone in the hypoglossal canal in anterior wall of the foramen magnum

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26
Q

where does CNXII pass through after it has passed through the skull

A

descends in neck lateral to carotid sheath
at hyoid bone it passes anteriorly towards the lateral aspect of the tongue
supplies most of the muscles of the tongue

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27
Q

what do the muscles on the posterior of the pharynx all insert onto

A

the midline raphe

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28
Q

what type of muscles are those on the posterior aspect of the pharynx

A

circular (constrictor muscles)

they are VOLUNTARY

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29
Q

where are the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx located

A

on the inner layer

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30
Q

what are the longitudinal muscles of the larynx supplied by

A

stylopharyngeal is supplied by CNIX all others palatopharygeus and salpingopharygeus are supplied by CNX

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31
Q

in the ENS what does parasympathetic innervation due to the pace of peristalsis

A

parasympathetic innervation increases the rate of peristalsis

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32
Q

how does sympathetic stimulation affect the rate of peristalsis

A

it slows down the rate of peristalsis

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33
Q

where is the cricopharygeus muscle

A

C6

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34
Q

where does the oesophagus terminate

A

when it enters the cardia of the stomach

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35
Q

is the cricopharygeus a physiological or an anatomical sphincter

A

anatomical

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36
Q

is the lower oesophageal sphincter a physiological or anatomical sphincter

A

physiological

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37
Q

which factors produce a sphincter effect at the lower oesophageus sphincter

A

contraction of the diaphragm
intraabdominal pressure is slightly higher than intragastric pressure
oblique angle at which oesophagus enters the stomach

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38
Q

side effects of hiatus hernia

A

oesophageal reflux

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39
Q

where is the fundus

A

the superior aspect of the stomach

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40
Q

in which bone of the skull does the foramen ovale pass through

A

sphenoid

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41
Q

in which bone of the skull does the stylomastoid foramen pass through

A

temporal bone

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42
Q

in which region is the stomach usually located

A

left hypochondrium

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43
Q

what is the ‘indentation’ at the lesser curvature of the stomach called

A

incisura angularis

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44
Q

what are the infoldings on the stomach called

A

rugae

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45
Q

what is the small intestine made up of

A

the duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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46
Q

what is the large intestine made up of

A 
4 main things 6 parts to the colon
Colon: caecum
appendix
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
sigmoid colon
Rectum 
Anal Canal 
Anus
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47
Q

what are the two ‘turns’ in the colon called

A

hepatic flexure and splenic flexure

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48
Q

what is contained within the foregut

A

oesophagus to mid-duodenum

liver, gallbladder, spleen and 1/2 of pancreas

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49
Q

what is contained within the mid-gut

A

mid-duodenum to proximal 2/3rd of transverse colon

1/2 of pancreas

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50
Q

what is contained within the hindgut

A

distal 1/3 of the transverse colon to proximal 1/2 of the anal canal

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51
Q

the 9 regions of the abdominal cavity are divided along which planes

A

mid-clavicular, subcostal and transtubercular

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52
Q

the 4 quadrants are divided along which planes

A

median and trans-umbilical planes

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53
Q

which muscles make up the ‘6 pack’

A

rectus abdominis

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54
Q

what do the abdominal muscles do when injury threatens

A

they contract

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55
Q

is the parietal membrane continuous or discontinuous

A

continuous

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56
Q

pus, blood or faeces in the peritoneal cavity will cause what

A

sever and painful inflammation of the peritoneum (peritonitis)

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57
Q

give an example of an intraperitoneal organ

A

the liver

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58
Q

is the liver mobile or not and why

A

mimimally mobile because it is enclosed in peritoneum

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59
Q

give example of retroperitoneal organs

A

pancreas and kidneys

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60
Q

organs with a mesentery examples

A

parts of intestines
covered in visceral peritoneum
visceral peritoneum wraps behind the organs to form a double layer mesentery

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61
Q

what divides the peritoneal cavity into a greater sac and a lesser sac

A

omenta

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62
Q

how do the lesser and greater omentum communicate

A

the omentum foramen

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63
Q

what does the portal triad lie in relation to the omental foramen

A

the free edge of the lesser omentum

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64
Q

the pouches in the peritoneum are part of which part of the sac

A

the greater sac

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65
Q

what is another name for the retrouterine pouch

A

pouch of douglas

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66
Q

how can ascites fluid be drained from the peritoneal cavity

A

in a procedure called paracentesis

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67
Q

where should the needle be paced in paracentesis

A

lateral to the rectus sheath

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68
Q

why does the needle have to be lateral to the rectus sheath to remove fluid

A

to avoid the inferior epigastric artery

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69
Q

what does the pain from organs (visceral) tend to be in nature

A

dull, achy and nauseating

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70
Q

what is the character of the pain from the body wall tend to be like

A

sharp and stabbing

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71
Q

what is the body wall of the abdomen supplied by (from skin to parietal peritoneum)

A

somatic sensory nerves
somatic motor nerves
sympathetic nerve fibres

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72
Q

what are the organs of the abdomen supplied by

A

visceral afferents
enteric nervous system
autonomic motor nerves-parasympathetic and sympathetic

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73
Q

where do sympathetic nerves leave CNS

A

T1-L2

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74
Q

where do the sympathetic nerves of the abdomen synapse

A

preganglionic ganglia

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75
Q

where are the prevertebral ganglia

A

anterior to the aorta at the exit points to the major branches of the abdominal aorta

76
Q

how do the sympathetic nerve fibres get from the CNS to the abdominal organs

A

postsynaptic sympathetic nerve fibres pass from the prevertebral ganglia (celiac, superior mesenteric etc) onto the surface of the arterial branches leaving the abdominal aorta
they take part in periarterial plexuses

77
Q

where do the sympathetic nerve fibres for the adrenal gland leave the spinal cord

A

T10-L1

78
Q

where do the adrenal gland nerves synapse

A

directly onto the cells

79
Q

how are the nerves carried to the adrenal gland

A

with the periarterial plexuses to the adrenal gland

80
Q

how do the parasympathetic nerve fibres get form the CNS to the abdominal organs

A

Cranial nerves

S2,3,4

81
Q

what do the parasympathetic splanchnic nerves supply

A

smooth muscle/glands of the descending colon to anal canal

82
Q

where does pain form the foregut tend to be felt

A

in the epigastric region

83
Q

where does pain from the midgut tend to be felt

A

in the umbilical region

84
Q

where does pain in the hindgut tend to be felt

A

in the pubic region

85
Q

where do pain fibres from the foregut abdominal organs enter the spinal cord

A

T6-T9

86
Q

where do pain fibres from the midgut structures enter the spinal cord

A

T8-T12

87
Q

where do pain fibres from the hindgut structures enter the spinal cord

A

T10-L2

88
Q

Where does pain from the appendix tend to be initially felt

A

nauseating pain in the umbilical area then get more somatic pain as it spreads to the parietal pleura

89
Q

where are the abdominal body wall nerves found

A

7th-11th intercostal nerves
travel anteriorly then leave the intercostal spaces
in the plane between the internal oblique and transversus abdominus as thoracoabdominal nerves

90
Q

where does the subcostal nerve come off CNS

A

T12 anterior ramus

91
Q

where does iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerve come off CNS

A

half of L1 anterior ramus

they are off different halves

92
Q

which dermatome supplies the umbilicus

A

T10

93
Q

what are the two pouches of the greater sac of the peritoneum called in a female

A

rectouterine and uterovesical

94
Q

where within the peritoneum is the inferior vena cava located

A

in the retroperitoneum

95
Q

where does the hepatic portal vein drain blood from

A

foregut, midgut and hindgut structures

96
Q

where does the splenic vein drain blood from

A

from the foregut

97
Q

where does the foregut venous drain into

A

the splenic vein drains the blood from the foregut structures to the hepatic portal vein

98
Q

where does the hindgut venous drainage

A

the inferior mesenteric vein drains the blood from the hindgut structures to the splenic vein

99
Q

where do the structures of the midgut drain into

A

the superior mesenteric vein which drains blood from the midgut structures to the hepatic portal vein

100
Q

where do the foregut structures of the lymph drain into (in relation to lymphatics)

A

the foregut structures drain their lymph via nodes located along the splenic artery towards the coeliac nodes

101
Q

where are the lymphatics for the midgut structures located

A

along the superior mesenteric artery (draining towards the superior mesenteric nodes)

102
Q

what type of muscle is the pyloric sphincter made up of

A

smooth muscle

103
Q

what type of muscle is the external anal sphincter made up of

A

skeletal muscle

104
Q

what is bilirubin

A

normal by product of the breakdown of red blood cells

105
Q

where is bilirubin made

A

in the spleen

106
Q

what is bilirubin used to form and where is this product formed

A

bilirubin is used to form bile in the liver

107
Q

what is the biliary tree

A

a set of tubes connecting the liver to the 2nd part of the duodenum

108
Q

where does the pancreas excrete digestive enzymes

A

into the 2nd part of the duodenum

109
Q

what does the gallbladder do

A

store AND CONCENTRATE BILE

110
Q

where is the portal triad found

A

in the free edge of the lesser omentum

111
Q

what is contained within the portal triad

A

the hepatic artery
hepatic portal vein
common bile duct

112
Q

what is the common bile duct part of

A

the common bile duct which is part of the biliary tree linking the stomach to duodenum

113
Q

where in the peritoneum is the aorta and IVC

A

retroperitoneum

114
Q

where does the celiac trunk arise

A

T12

115
Q

what does the celiac trunk supply

A

the organs of the foregut

116
Q

what does the celiac trunk trifurcate into

A

splenic artery
hepatic artery
left gastric artery

117
Q

how is the splenic artery different to most arteries

A

it has a very tortuous course whereas most arteries are relatively straight

118
Q

where is the spleen located

A

its an intraperitoneal organ within the left hypochrondrium

deep to ribs 9-11

119
Q

should you be able to palpate a normal spleen

A

no

120
Q

where does the blood supply to the stomach come mainly from

A

right and left gastric arteries which run along the lesser curvature

121
Q

where does the right and left gastro-omental arteries run

A

along the greater curvature and anastomose together

122
Q

where does the blood supply from the liver come from

A

the hepatic artery

which branches into right and left hepatic artery

123
Q

how can the structure of the liver be described

A

4 anatomical segments or 8 functional segments

124
Q

what are the 4 anatomical segments of the liver

A

right lobe, left lobe, caudate lobe, quadrate lobe

125
Q

how many functional segments does the liver have and what does each segment have

A

8 functional segments and each has its own blood supply (hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein) venous drainage and bile drainage

126
Q

how is venous drainage in the liver carried out

A

venous drainage from the liver is via 3 main hepatic veins to the IVC

127
Q

how are the IVC and hepatic veins different to other veins

A

they lack valves

128
Q

how does the lack of valves in the IVC and hepatic veins affect the liver

A

a rise in central venous pressure is directly transmitted to the liver and the liver can enlarge as it engorges with blood (hepatomegaly)

129
Q

what is contained within a liver lobule

A

central vein in middle and an interlobular portal triad at each corner

130
Q

what are sinusoids like in structure

A

sinusoid is quite like a large capillary

131
Q

what are sinusoids lined by

A

hepatocytes

132
Q

what does the central vein do

A

collects ‘cleaned’ blood and drains into the hepatic veins

133
Q

what are the 2 clinically important areas of the peritonea cavity related to the liver

A 
hepatorenal recess (morison's pouch)
subphrenic recess
134
Q

where are the recesses in the liver located

A

in the greater sac

135
Q

when may the hepatorenal recess be of greatest clinical relevance

A

it is one of the lowest parts of the peritoneal cavity when the patient is supine
so pus from an abcess in the subphrenic recess can drain into the hepatorenal recess when a patient is bedridden

136
Q

what does the IVC drain from the liver

A

it drains the cleaned blood from the hepatic veins into the right atrium

137
Q

what ligaments attach the liver to the diaphragm

A

the coronary ligaments

138
Q

which ligament in the liver attaches it to the anterior abdominal wall

A

the falciform ligament

139
Q

what is the ligamentum teres/round ligament a remenant of

A

the embryological umbilical vein

140
Q

where does the gallbladder lie in relation to the duodenum

A

the gallbladder lies anterior to the duodenum

141
Q

what is the gallbladder made up of

A

the gallbladder has a body and a neck-the neck narrows to become the cystic duct

142
Q

how does bile flow in and out of the gallbladder

A

via the cystic duct

143
Q

where will gallstone pain originate

A

in the epigastric region
but pain can also present in the hypochondrium with or without pain referral to the right shoulder as a result of anterior diaphragmatic pain

144
Q

what is surgical removal of the gallbladder called

A

cholecystectomy

145
Q

what is another name for jaundice

A

icterus

146
Q

what is icterus caused by

A

increased in levels of bilirubin

147
Q

what is bilirubin a normal breakdown product of

A

red blood cells

148
Q

what does a liver lobule normally contain

A

central vein in the middle and an interlobular portal triad at each corner

149
Q

what does the cystic duct unite with to form the bile duct

A

hepatic duct

150
Q

what is the course of the bile duct in relation to other organs

A

travels posteriorly to the 1st part of the duodenum

151
Q

what does the common bile duct then join with

A

the main pancreatic duct

152
Q

what does the joining of the common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct form

A

the hepatopancreatic duct or the ampulla of Vater

153
Q

where does the hepatopancreatic duct/ampulla of Vater drain into

A

the second part of the duodenum

154
Q

what does the amupulla of Vater drain to the second part of the duodenum through

A

the major duodenal papilla

155
Q

what is the greater omentum

A

a double layer of visceral peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach (greater curvature)

156
Q

where does the greater omentum extend from

A

the greater curvature of the stomach, passing in fornt of the small intestine and reflects on itself to ascend to the transverse colon before reaching the posterior abdominal wall

157
Q

where does the lesser omentum extend form

A

the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach

158
Q

what is a mesentery

A

a fold of membranous tissue that arises from the posterior wall of the peritoneal cavity

159
Q

what is an anatomical sphincter

A

discrete areas where muscle completely encircles the lumen of the tract

160
Q

what does ERCP stand for

A

Endoscopic Retrograde Choliangiopancreatography

161
Q

what does ERCP look at

A

pancreas and the biliary tree

162
Q

what can cause jaundice

A

obstruction of the biliary tree

163
Q

what type of organ is the pancreas

A

retroperitoneal

164
Q

what are the functions of the pancreas

A

exocrine-acinar cell (pancreatic digestive enzymes into main pancreatic duct
endocrine-islets of Langerhans (insulin and glucagon)

165
Q

what is the blood supply to the pancreas

A

foregut and midgut organ
mainly branches form the splenic artery-pancreatic branches
gastroduodenal artery-superior pancreaticoduodenal
superior mesenteric artery-inferior pancreaticduodenal

166
Q

what is one of the causes of pancreatitis

A

blockage of the ampulla by a gallstone

bile is then diverted into the pancreas leading to irritation and inflammation

167
Q

what are the four parts of the duodenum

A

superior (duodenal cap)
descending
horizontal
ascending

168
Q

where is the duodenum located

A

the superior part is intraperitoneal but all other parts are retroperitoneal

169
Q

where does the duodenum begin

A

at the pyloric sphincter

170
Q

what hormones does the duodenum secrete into the blood

A

gastrin, CCK

171
Q

where does pain form a duodenal ulcer tend to be felt

A

in epigastric region

172
Q

what supplies blood to the duodenum

A

gastroduodenal artery-superior pancreaticoduodenal

superior mesenteric artery-inferior pancreaticoduodenal

173
Q

what are folds in the jejunum called

A

pilicae circularis

174
Q

what is the difference in the mucosa of the jejunum and the ileum

A

mucosa of (distal) ileum is much smoother

175
Q

where does most of the lymph of the body drain into

A

the left venous angle

176
Q

where is the venous angle

A

the junction between subclavian and internal jugular veins

177
Q

what is another name for angular stomatitis

A

angular cheilitis

178
Q

where does the rectum lie

A

in the pelvis

179
Q

where does the anal canal and anus lie

A

in the perineum

180
Q

where does the sigmoid colon become the rectum

A

anterior to S3, anterior to the tip of the coccyx

181
Q

where does the rectal ampulla lie

A

immediately superior to the levator ani muscle

182
Q

what is the levator ai made up of

A

iliococcygeus, puborectalis, pubococcygeus

183
Q

what does the coeliac trunk trifurcate into

A

splenic artery, left gastric artery and hepatic artery

184
Q

what do sympathetics do to peristalsis

A

inhibit peristalsis

185
Q

what do parasympathetics do to peristalsis

A

stimulate peristalsis

186
Q

where do the pudental nerves exit the pelvis

A

via the greater sciatic foramen

GI (13 decks)

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