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Year 1 - Principles (DP) > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

What to the following describe?

  1. Volar
  2. Palmar
  3. Plantar
  4. Ventral
A
  1. Anterior wrist
  2. Anterior hand
  3. Inferior foot
  4. Anterior tongue
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1
Q

When is the term dorsal used?

A

Posterior wrist
Posterior hand
Superior foot
Posterior tongue

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2
Q

What is the term used for all anterior movements of joints superior to the knee?

A

Flexion (below are extensions)

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3
Q

What types of joints exist?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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4
Q

What are the types of fibrous joints and examples of where they are found?

A
  1. Sutures - in the skull (eg coronal suture)
  2. Fibrous sheets - eg right interosseous membrane (between righ ulna and radius)
    Joints are stabile and immobile
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5
Q

What are the types of cartilaginous joints and where can they be found?

A
  1. Primary - eg epiphyseal growth plate
  2. Secondary - eg intervertebral discs
    They are stabile, immobile but can herniate
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6
Q

What are the wide sutures in neonatal skulls called?

A

Fontanelles

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7
Q

What are the two parts of intervertebral discs?

A

Outer fibrous annulus fibrosus

Inner soft nucleus pulposus

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8
Q

What are the features of a synovial joint?

A 
Two bones articulate
Articular surfaces covered by hyaline cartilage
Surrounded by capsule
Joint cavity
Ligament support
Associated with muscles via tendons
May have bursae to limit friction
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9
Q

What are the 5 subtypes of synovial joints?

A 
Pivot (sup. neck)
Plane (acromioclavicular joint)
Ball and socket
Hinge
Biaxial (metacarpophalangeal joints)
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10
Q

Rank the types of join in decreasing stability?

A

Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial

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11
Q

What is the difference between subluxation and dislocation?

A

Subluxation - partial loss of contact

Dislocation - full loss

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12
Q

What is the TMJ?

A
  • Synovial articulation
  • Between the mandibular fossa and articulate tubercle of temporal bone (sup.)
  • And the head of the condylar process of the mandible (inf.)
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13
Q

What is the name of the process by which long bones develop?

A

Endochondral ossification

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14
Q

What are the layers of bone?

A 
Outer cortex (compact/cortical bone)
Inner medulla (spongy/trabecular/cancellous)
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15
Q

What is the outermost layer of bone called?

A

Periosteum

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16
Q

Process of fracture healing?

A

Callus forms
Callus remodels
Fracture may be surgically reduced

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17
Q

When does a tuberosity form?

A

When an adjacent structure applies force during development

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18
Q

When forms when an adjacent structure grows at the same time as the bone?

A

Foramen

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19
Q

What are the spinal regions and how many vertebrae are in each?

A 
Cervical - 7
Thoracic - 12
Lumbar - 5
Sacral - 5 (fused)
Coccygeal - 3-5 (fused)
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20
Q

What are the special names of C1 and C2?

A

C1 - atlas

C2 - axis

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21
Q

How do C1 and C2 differ in structure to other vertebrae?

A

C1 has no body of spinous process

C2 has an odontoid process (C1’s body)

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22
Q

Which ribs are true, false and floating?

A

True - 1-6
False - 7-10
Floating - 11-12

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23
Q

What is the anterior surface of the heart mainly formed from?

A

Right ventricle

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24
Q

What is the base of the heart?

A

Posterior surface
Opposite apex
Formed from both atria

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25
Q

What is the inferior surface of the heart?

A

The diaphragmatic surface

Both ventricles

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26
Q

What is the general structure of skeletal muscle (from smallest to largest component)?

A

Microfilaments -> Myofibrils -> Muscle fibres -> Fasicles -> Muscle

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27
Q

Appearance of skeletal muscle?

A

Striated (overlap of actin and myosin)

Multiple nuclei

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28
Q

What are the types of skeletal muscle?

A 
Flat with aponeurosis
Pennate
Fusiform
Quadrate
Circular/Sphincteral
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29
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

Flattened tendon from muscle to soft tissue

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30
Q

What are the two main skeletal muscle reflexes?

A

Stretch

Flexion withdrawal

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31
Q

What is a skeletal muscles usual response to stretch?

A

Contraction

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32
Q

What is paralysis?

A

Muscle with no functioning motor nerve supply - reduced tone

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33
Q

What is spasticity?

A

Descending brain control malfunction

Overcontraction - increased tone

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34
Q

What are the parts of the female reproductive system (from the ovary)?

A

Ovary -> Infundibulum -> Ampulla -> Isthmus -> Uterus -> Cervix -> Vagina

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35
Q

What are the layers of the uterus? (External to internal)

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium

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36
Q

Where is the dartos muscle situated and what is its function?

A

In the superficial fascia of the scrotum

Contracts to reduce SA and maintain temperature

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37
Q

What is the route of travel of sperm after formation?

A

Form in the seminiferous tubules -> rete testis -> head of epididymis -> vas deferens

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38
Q

What is contained within the spermatic cord?

A

Vas deferens
Testicular artery
Pampiniform plexus

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39
Q

Where is seminal fluid produced and how does it reach the sperm?

A

Seminal gland

Forms an ejaculatory duct

40
Q

What are the parts of the urethra (proximal to distal)?

A

Prostatic urethra
Membranous urethra
Spongy urethra

41
Q

When does the larynx become the trachea?

A

Level of C6

42
Q

What forms the nasal septum?

A

Ethmoid bone (sup.)
Vomer (inf.)
Septal cartilage

43
Q

What cartilages form the larynx?

A

Epiglottis
Thyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
2 Arytenoid cartilages

44
Q

What is the rima glottidis?

A

Narrowest part of larynx

45
Q

What is the function of the conchae?

A

Increase SA of lateral walls of nasal cavities

Produce turbulent flow

46
Q

What are the muscles between ribs called and what direction do they run in?

A

External intercostal muscles (hands in pockets - inferolaterally)
Internal intercostal muscles (inferomedially)
Innermost intercostal muscles (inferior to superior)

47
Q

What muscle prevents drooling?

A

Orbicularis oris

48
Q

Where is the hypothalamus located?

A

Diencephalon - Central core of cerebrum

49
Q

Where is the pituitary gland?

A

Pituitary fossa of the sphenoid bone

50
Q

How do the hypothalamus and pituitary gland communicate?

A

Via the Infundibulum

51
Q

What is the function of the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus?

A

Production of Oxytocin and Vasopressin (ADH)

Transported by axoplasmic transport

52
Q

What is the function of the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus?

A

Hypothalamus secrete hormones to stimulate or inhibit pituitary hormone relase
Occurs via hypophyseal portal system
Pituitary releases GH, Prolactin, TSH, ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic), LH (lutenising) FSH (follicle stimulating)

53
Q

What chemical does the thyroid gland use?

A

Iodine

54
Q

What are the two thyroid hormones?

A

Triiodothyronine (T3 - needed for life)

Thyroxine (T4)

55
Q

What is and what causes a goitre?

A

Enlarge thyroid

Dietary lack of iodine

56
Q

Where are the four parathyroid glands located?

A

Posterior surfaces of the thyroid gland lobes (right and left)

57
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Controls calcium levels in blood and bone

58
Q

Is PTH under pituitary control?

A

No

59
Q

What are the islets of Langerhans?

A

Endorcrine parts of the pancreas

Secrete insulin

60
Q

Which gland uses ducts, endocrine or exocrine?

A

Exocrine

61
Q

What are the cranial nerves?

A 
i - Olfactory
ii - Optic
iii - Oculomotor
iv - Trochlear
v - Trigeminal (ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular branches)
vi - Abducent
vii - Facial
viii - Vestibulocochlear
ix - Glossopharyngeal
x - Vagus
xi - Spinal accessory
xii - Hypoglossal
62
Q

What are the foraminae for the cranial nerves?

A

Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone - CN i
Optical canal - CN ii
Superior orbital fissure - CN iii, CN iv, CN vi, and CN v1
Foramen rotundum - CN v2
Foramen ovale - CN v3
Internal acoustic meatus - CN vii, CN viii
Jugular foramen - CN ix, CN x, CN xi
Hypoglossal canal - CN xii

63
Q

What is the arrangement of grey and white matter in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Brain - Grey matter superficial; White matter deep

Spinal cord - Opposite

64
Q

What foramen does the spinal cord pass through?

A

Foramen magnum

65
Q

When does the spinal cord end and what does it become?

A

L1/L2 - the conus medullaris

Cauda equina

66
Q

How many spinal nerve pairs are there? How many are in each region?

A 
31
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
67
Q

Why is there one more cervical spinal nerve pair than there is vertebrae?

A

In this region the nerves come out ABOVE the vertebrae with C8 nerve below C7 (T1 nerve is below T1 vertebrae)

68
Q

What sensations do the anterior and posterior rootlets from the spinal cord convey?

A

Anterior - Motor

Posterior - Sensory

69
Q

When do the rootlets become the spinal nerves?

A

When the anterior and posterior roots meet

70
Q

What vertebral level is the nipple, the zyphoid process and the umbilicus?

A

Nipple - T4
ZP - T7
Umbilicus - T10

71
Q

What rami supply the limbs?

A

Anterior

72
Q

What forms the right cervical plexus and what does it supply?

A

C1-C4 anterior rami - supplying the neck wall

73
Q

What forms the right brachial plexus and what does it supply?

A

C5-T1 anterior rami - supplies upper limbs

74
Q

What forms the right lumbar plexus and what does it supply?

A

L1-L4 anterior rami - supplies the lower limbs

75
Q

What forms the sacral plexus and what does it supply?

A

L5-S4 anterior rami - supplies pelvis/perineum/lower limbs

76
Q

What is the musculocutaneous nerve and what does it supply?

A

Branch of brachial plexus (C5 and C6 and C7 anterior rami)

Mainly the biceps brachii

77
Q

What are the nerves coming from the brachial plexus?

A 
Axillary
Median
Musculocutaneous
Radial
Ulnar
78
Q

Where is sympathetic outflow from?

A

T1-L2

Thoracolumnar

79
Q

Where is parasympathetic outflow from?

A

Cranial nerves iii, vii, ix and x
Sacral spinal nerves
It is craniosacral

80
Q

What are the neurone types supply the body wall?

A

Somatic sensory

Somatic motor

81
Q

What are the types of neurones supplying the organs?

A 
Visceral afferents (sensory)
SNS and PNS (motor)
82
Q

What are the types of neurones supplying special sense organs?

A

Special sensory

SNS and PNS (motor)

83
Q

What are the fibre types of the cranial nerves?

A 
i - special sensory
ii - special sensory
iii - motor and PNS
iv - motor
v - 1+2: sensory, 3: sensory and motor
vi - motor
vii - special sensory, motor and PNS
viii - special sensory
ix - special sensory, sensory, motor and PNS
x - sensory, motor and PNS
xi - motor
xii - motor
Note none are ANS
84
Q

Why does a somatic sensory impulse on one side arrive at the contralateral side of the brain?

A

When synapses onto the second sensory neurone in the posterior horn in the spinal cord nucleus it crosses over the midline into a tract towards the contralateral thalamus

85
Q

Where are the primary somatormotor areas located?

A

In the frontal lobes

86
Q

If broken, what ribs would damage the kidney?

A

Ribs 11 and 12

87
Q

What are the layers protecting the kidney (deep to superficial)?

A 
Renal capsule
Perinephric fat
Renal (deep) fascia
Paranephric fat
Visceral peritoneum
88
Q

How many renal segments are in each kidney?

A

Five

89
Q

What is the structure of a nephron (proximal to distal)?

A 
Glomerulus
Proximal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct (drains to minor calyx)
90
Q

How does urine drain from kidneys (proximal to distal)?

A 
Collecting ducts
Minor calyx
Major calyx
Renal pelvis
Ureter
91
Q

Where are the sites of ureter constriction?

A

Pelviureteric junction
Crossing over the common iliac a.
Ureteric orifice (opening into bladder)

92
Q

What is micturition?

A

Urination

93
Q

What muscle contracts for urination?

A

Detrusor

94
Q

What type of muscle forms the internal and external urethral sphincters?

A

Internal - smooth

External - skeletal

95
Q

Why are women more prone to UTIs?

A

Much shorter urethra

96
Q

Where does lymph from the left side of the body and the right side beneath the umbilicus drain to?

A

Thoracic duct

97
Q

Where does lymph from the right side of the body above the umbilicus drain to?

A

Right lymphatic duct

98
Q

Where do the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts drain to?

A

Thoracic duct - left venous angle

Right lymphatic duct - right venous angle

Year 1 - Principles (DP) (5 decks)

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