Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK Final > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What innervates the flexor muscles of the forearm?

A

The median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The deepest muscles of the forearm perform what motion?

A

Rotation (pronation/supination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The brachial artery bifurcates into what two arteries?

A

Ulnar and radial arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which artery provides most of the blow flow to the hand?

A

Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which muscle allows the “hitch hiker” thumb?

A

Extensor pollicus longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The extra tendons on the small and index fingers are always found where?

A

The ulnar side of their redundant tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What innervates the extensors of the forearm?

A

The radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which carpals articulate with the radius?

A

Scaphoid and the lunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which carpals articulate with the thumb?

A

Trapezium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which carpals articulate with the ulna?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are you concerned about with a fall on an outstretched hand?

A

Scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which metacarpals are fixed?

A

first and second digits (index and middle finger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are fingers mobile in extension and tight on flexion?

A

Collateral ligaments

  • only true for joint between metacarpal and 1st phalynx
  • ligament tension is equal in flexion and extension for proximal interphalangeal joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the prime flexor of the hand (make a fist)

A

Interosseous muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of the palmar aponeurosis?

A

for non-slip power grip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the thenar muscles? (3)

A

Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Opponens pollicis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the hypothenar muscles? (3)

A

Abductor Digiti Minimi
Flexor Digiti Minimi Brevis
Opponents Digiti Minimi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which muscle is key for pinching?

A

Adductor Pollicis (along with 1st dorsal interosseus muscle); both controlled by ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is the last muscle innervated by the median nerve?

A

Opponens pollicis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is the last muscle innervated by the ulnar nerve?

A

Middle finger (wiggle side to side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ulnar nerve palsy

A
  • can’t pinch thumb and forefinger together (atrophy of interosseus muscles)
  • last two digits are clawed (not first 2 because median nerve are still intact)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carpal Tunnel

A

median nerve is compressed

  • atrophy of thenar muscles over time
  • nighttime splinting is classic treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

the area of skin supplied by a cutaneous branches from a single spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a myotome?

A

all muscles derived from one somite and innervated by one segmental spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

From superficial to deep, what muscles cover the occipital triangle? (3)

A
  1. trapezius
  2. splenius (capitus)
  3. semispinalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the boundaries of the quadrangular space? (4)

A
  • long head of triceps brachii (medial border)
  • teres major (inferior border)
  • teres minor (superior border)
  • surgical neck of humerus (lateral border)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What comes through the quadrangular space? (2)

A
  • the axillary nerve

- posterior circumflex humeral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some gross distinguishing features between arteries and nerves? (3)

A
  • arteries always branch at right angles; nerves branch at acute angles
  • if cut, arteries will have a lumen; nerves will not
  • nerves will appear to have fibers running along their longitudinal surface; arteries will not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the boundaries of the triangular space? (4)

A
  • teres minor (superior border)
  • long head of triceps brachii (lateral border)
  • teres major (inferior border)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What comes through the triangular space? (1)

A

circumflex scapular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the boundaries of the triangular interval? (3)

A
  • teres major (superior border)
  • lateral head of triceps brachii (lateral border)
  • long head of triceps brachii (medial border)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What comes through the triangular interval? (2)

A
  • radial nerve

- profunda(deep) brachii artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What structures may also be injured with a fracture near the surgical neck? (2)

A
  • axillary nerve

- posterior humoral circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What structures may also be injured with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus? (2)

A
  • radial nerve

- deep brachial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What structure may also be injured with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus?

A
  • median nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What structure may also be injured with medial epicondyle fracture?

A
  • ulnar nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation? (3)

A
  • rhomboid major
  • trapezius
  • latissimus dorsi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the boundaries of the lumbar triangle and what is the significance of the location?

A
  • external abdominal oblique
  • latissimus dorsi
  • iliac crest
  • location where hernias will present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What attaches to the lateral epicondyle?

A

the extensors and suppinators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What attaches to the medial epicondyle?

A

the flexors and pronators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the four branches of the thoracoacromial trunk?

A
  • acromial
  • pectoral
  • clavicular
  • deltoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What muscles attach to the coracoid process? (3)

A
  • short head of the biceps
  • coracobrachialis
  • pectoralis minor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the components of the femoral sheath, from lateral to medial? (4)

A
  • femoral Nerve (actually outside)
  • femoral Artery (lateral compartment)
  • femoral Vein (middle compartment)
  • Lymphatics (in femoral canal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

A
  • inguinal ligament
  • sartorius (medial border)
  • adductor longus (lateral border)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the short lateral rotators of the pelvis?

A

PGOGOQ

  • piriformis
  • geminal superior
  • obturator externus
  • geminal inferior
  • obturator internus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What muscles make up the “true” hamstrings, from medial to lateral? (3)

A

Semimembranousus
Semitendinosus
Long head of the biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What muscles insert at the Pes Anserinus, from anterior to posterior? (3)

A
  1. Sartorius
  2. Gracilis
  3. Semitendinosus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the sciatic nerve bifurcate into, and where does the split occur?

A

tibial nerve and fibular nerves, above the popliteal fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the innervation of the gluteus minimis, gluteus medius, and tensor fascia lata, and what function do they perform?

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve

Keep the pelvis level when the opposite foot is off the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What muscles are active when climbing stairs or rising from a sitting position?

A

Gluteus maximus (esp for sitting to rising), quadriceps femoris (esp for stairs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the angle of inclination, and how does it change with age?

A

angle formed by the imaginary line from the head of the femur down the neck, and the shaft
- decreases with age (more acute): from 120 to 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What makes up the Triceps Surae?

A

The two gastrocnemius muscles and the soleus, which all coalesce into the Achilles tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the P’s of compartment syndrome?

A
  • persistent pain (earliest impt finding), esp with passive stretching of the muscle group
  • paresthesia/anasthesia
  • paresis/paralysis
  • pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

foot ambulation: what muscles “grip the surface”

A

intrinsics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

foot ambulation: what muscle everts the foot

A

fibularis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

foot ambulation: what muscle does “push off”

A

gastrocnemius and soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

foot movement: wedge shape of talus allows (2)

A

easy dorsiflexion and tightens the ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

common fibular nerve branches into (2)

A

circumscribes neck of fibula–>Deep and superficial fibular branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

all dorsum of foot innervated by

A

deep fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is “Intermittent claudication”

A

Block arteries (superficial femoral and popiteal arteries) and blood flow= lactic acid build up; restricts movement (limps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

locate: pedial pulse

A

dorsalis pedis artery:

lateral to EHL (extensor hallucis longus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

locate: “tarsal tunnel”

A

medial ankle: posterior to the medial malleolus.
holds posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve, and tendons of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus muscle
TDVNH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what innervates the Anterior compartment of the leg

A

Deep fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what innervates the lateral compartment of the leg

A

Superficial fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what innervates the posterior compartment of the leg

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What attaches at the supraglenoid tubercle?

A

Long head of biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What attaches at the infraglenoid tubercle?

A

Long head of triceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which ligament is injured with nursemaid’s elbow?

A

Annular ligament of radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is shin splints?

A

Very mild compartment syndrome of the anterior compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the “spring ligament”?

A

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a bunion?

A

Bony deformity of the metatarsal/ phalangeal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The medial plantar nerve innervates?

A

Flexor hallucis brevis and abductor hallucis ________
Flexor Digitorum Brevis
Lumbrical of 2nd toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Calcaneal (Achilles) tendon rupture

A

commonly distal
cannot plantar flex
Cast in plantar flex (toe point)
bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Calcaneal tendonitis

A

inflammatory changes at heel

Painful walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Gastrocnemius strain

A

overload, partial muscle rupture, hematoma, can lead to compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The fourth layer on the sole of the foot contains what muscles? (2)

A
  1. Dorsal Interossei

2. Plantar Interosseus Muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where do the major nerves and blood vessels run on the sole of the foot?

A

Between the first and second layers of muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the names of the major nerves and arteries in the plantar region of the foot? (4)

A

Medial and Lateral Plantar Nerves

Medial and Lateral Plantar Arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ankle joint for eversion/inversion

A

subtalar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The first layer on the sole of the foot contains what muscles? (3)

A
  1. Flexor Digitorum Brevis
  2. Abductor Digiti Minimi
  3. Abductor Hallucis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The second layer on the sole of the foot contains what muscles? (4)

A
  1. Quadratus Plantae
  2. Lumbricals
  3. Flexor Hallucis Longus (Tendon)
  4. Flexor Digitorum Longus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The third layer on the sole of the foot contains what muscles? (4)

A
  1. Adductor Hallucis – Oblique Head
  2. Adductor Hallucis – Transverse Head
  3. Flexor Hallucis Brevis
  4. Flexor Digiti Minimi Brevis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The fourth layer on the sole of the foot contains what muscles? (2)

A
  1. Dorsal Interossei

2. Plantar Interosseus Muscles

84
Q

What are the names of the major nerves and arteries in the plantar region of the foot? (4)

A

Medial and Lateral Plantar Nerves

Medial and Lateral Plantar Arteries

85
Q

define: antalgic gait

A

limping due to pain

86
Q

ligament sprained when ankle rolls in FLAT foot

A

CFL: calcaneo-fibular ligament

87
Q

ligament sprained when ankle rolls in plantar flexion

A

ATFL: anterior talo-fibular ligament

88
Q

pes planus

A

flat arch

89
Q

pes cavus

A

high arch

90
Q

lis Franc injury

A

tarsometatarsal injury, or midfoot injury

91
Q

plantar fascitis

A

pain at medial tubercle of calcaneus

degeneration of attachment

92
Q

tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

compression on the posterior tibial nerve

93
Q

spondylolysis

A

pars defect/ stress fracture

94
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

forward displacement of a vertebra, especially the fifth lumbar vertebra, most commonly occurring after a break or fracture

95
Q

cauda equina syndrome

A

serious neurologic condition in which damage/compression to the cauda equina causes acute loss of function of the lumbar plexus

96
Q

radiculopathy

A

nerves are affected and do not work properly

cervical nerve root can cause pain and other symptoms through the arms and hands

97
Q

Fibrous Joints

A

The bones of these joints are connected by fibrous ligaments only
ex) Suture Joints, Syndesmoses

98
Q

Cartilaginous Joints

A

The bones involved in cartilaginous joints are joined by some type of cartilage
joined by either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage
ex) Symphyses, between vertebral segments

99
Q

Synovial Joints

A
  • A joint cavity between the bones
  • A synovial membrane lining
  • Articular cartilage
  • diarthroses (freely moveable)
100
Q

ligament

A

connects bone to bone

101
Q

tendons

A

connect muscles to bones

102
Q

synostosis

A

A joint that has ossified over time

103
Q

Syndesmoses

A

fibrous joint- apposed bones are joined by a fibrous membrane (interosseous membrane) or a ligament.
amphiarthroses (slightly moveable)
borders of the radius and ulna

104
Q

what nerve and artery innervate trapezius

A

spinal accessory nerve

transverse cervical artery

105
Q

what nerve innervates latissimus dorsi

A

thoracodorsal nerve

106
Q

erector spinae muscles (3)

A

lateral to medial:
iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis
“i like spag”

maintain posture
deep/intrinsic muscles of back

107
Q

where are transverse foramen? what do they transmit?

A

cervical vertebrae

vertebral arteries

108
Q

lordotic: define and where is it found

A

curve in C/L vertebrae
sway back
concave posterior

109
Q

kyphotic: define and where is it found

A

curve in T/S
hunch back
concave anteriorly

110
Q

define scoliosis

A

lateral curve

111
Q

what muscles flex/extend head and rotate neck

A

splenius capitus/cervicis (superficial layer)

112
Q

what is a sesamoid bone? where common?

A

bone embedded within a tendon or a muscle
patella, on hands/feet
smooth and nontender
act like pulleys, increase muscular forces

113
Q

what innervates the levator scapulae m., rhomboideus major m., rhomboideus minor m.

A

dorsal scapular artery

muscles help to retract and elevate the scapula

114
Q

Spina prominens

A

the seventh cervical vertebra. It has a long, non-bifid spinous process which is prominent at the nape of the neck

115
Q

what seperates the greater/lesser sciatic foramen

A

sacrospinous ligament and the sacrotuberous ligament.

116
Q

innervation/action of thoracodorsal nerve?

A

thoracodorsal nerve innervates latissimus dorsi, which is an important muscle for adducting, medially rotating, and extending the arm.
area of the posterior axillary fold

117
Q

Ligamentum flavum

A

ligaments of the spine.
connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae, axis to sacrum.
interior of the vertebral canal

118
Q

what does denticulate ligament seperate

A

ventral (motor) roots and dorsal (sensory) roots

119
Q

where to perform a spinal tap

A

L4-L5 in subarchnoid space

120
Q

where spinal cord terminates in adult

A

L1-L2

121
Q

lumbar cistern

A

where LP is done:
enlargement of the subarachnoid space
holds conus medullaris

122
Q

cervical nerves are named for vertebra____ them

A

below

123
Q

T/L nerves are named for vertebra____ them

A

above

*except L4/L5

124
Q

list path for LP (8 layers)

A 
skin-->
fascia
ligamentum flavum
epidural space
dura mater
subdural space
arachnoid matter
subarachnoid space
125
Q

where spinal cord terminates in BABY

A

AT BIRTH, THE END OF THE CORD is located at the IV disk at (L3)
conus medullaris ends at (L4/L5)

126
Q

2 spinal cord enlargements: where and why

A

THE SPINAL CORD WIDENS in 2 regions to form the cervical and lumbar enlargements which are located at the level of origin of nerves that give rise to the brachial plexus for the upper extremity and the lumbosacral plexus for the lower extremity

127
Q

boundaries of subopcipital triangle

A 
rectus capitus posterior major
rectus capitus posterior minor
obliquus capitus superior
obliquus capitus inferior
at C1/C2
128
Q

contained in suboccipital triangle

A

suboccipital nerve and vertebral artery

129
Q

scapular notch: how are things stacked?

A

“air force over navy”

(superficial) suprascapular artery –> transverse scapular ligament –> suprascapular nerve

130
Q

phases of abduction of arm (3 muscles act)

A

1 supraspinatus
2 deltoid
3 trapezius

131
Q

What structure runs in the deltopectoral groove?

A

Cephalic vein

132
Q

What structure maybe injured during a mastectomy? What injury would this cause?

A

Long thoracic nerve

Winged scapula

133
Q

Where are lactiferous ducts found and what function do they perform?

A

Surround the nipple; carry milk from the glands to the nipple

134
Q

Where do most breast cancers originate?

A

Lactiferous ducts

135
Q

In what quadrant do most breast cancers why?

A

Upper outer quadrant; has more area because of the tail of Spence (extra piece of tissue extending into the axilla)

136
Q

What are the two heads of the pec major?

A
  • Sternocostal head

- Clavicular head

137
Q

What blood vessel runs under the pec major?

A

Thoracoacromial artery

138
Q

Describe the origin, location, and destination of the lateral and medial pectoral nerves.

A
  • Origin: lateral comes from lateral cord; medial from medial cord
  • Location: lateral goes around pec minor; medial runs through pec minor
  • Destination: medial innervates both pec minor and major; lateral only innervates pec major
139
Q

What runs under the sternocleidomastoid?

A

Internal jugular vein and carotid artery

140
Q

Name the 3 parts of the sternum, from superior to inferior.

A
  • manubrium
  • gladeolus
  • xiphoid process
141
Q

How many true ribs we have?

A

1-7 (attach to the sternum)

142
Q

How many false ribs do we have?

A

8-10 (attach to cartilage of the upper rib)

143
Q

How many floating ribs do we have?

A

11-12 (don’t attach to anything)

144
Q

Pectus excavatum

A

sterum is pushed inward like a bowl

due to an overgrowth of ribs

145
Q

Pectus carinatum

A

sternum protrudes outward

146
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Gynecomastia is the growth of abnormally large breasts in males. It is due to the excess growth of breast tissue, not excess fat tissue.

147
Q

What muscle separates the subclavian artery and vein?

A

Anterior scalene

- vein is anterior; artery is posterior (same place where brachial plexus runs)

148
Q

Where does the brachial plexus emerge from the neck?

A

Between anterior scalene and middle scalene, along with the subclavian vein and phrenic nerve

149
Q

What are the branches in the 3 sections of the axillary artery?

A

1: Superior thoracic artery
2: Thoracoacromial trunk, Lateral thoracic artery
3: Subscapular artery, Anterior humoral circumflex artery, Posterior humoral circumflex artery

150
Q

What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle?

A
  • sternocleidomastoid (anterior)
  • clavicle (inferior)
  • trapezius (posterior)
151
Q

What is the largest branch of the axillary artery?

A

Subscapular artery

152
Q

What is associated with an ape hand deformity?

A

Medial nerve injury

153
Q

muscles/nerves in anterior compartment of upper arm

A 
Anterior compartment= flexors
		○ Coracobrachialis
		○ Biceps brachii
		○ Brachialis
		○ Muscocutaneous nerve
154
Q

muscles/nerves in posterior compartment of upper arm

A

Posterior compartment= extensors
○ Triceps
○ olecranon process
○ Radial nerve

155
Q

Brachial plexus: branches of posterior cord

A 
STAR:
Subscapular [upper and lower]
Thoracodorsal
Axillary
Radial
156
Q

medial to lateral: name structures in order in the cubital space

A 
Elbow: (MAT)
medial to lateral:
		○ Median nerve
		○ Brachial artery
		○ Biceps tendon
157
Q

3 groups of axillary lymph nodes

A

1) lateral to pectoralis minor muscle
2) behind pect. minor
3) medial to pect. minor

158
Q

bad nodes for breast cancer to spread to

A

parasternal/ internal mammary nodes= cancer has penetrated chest cavity and will spread quickly

159
Q

after piercing the supinator muscle, the deep branch of the radial nerve is renamed…..and provides what muscle action

A

this deep branch of the radial nerve becomes the posterior interosseus nerve
on dorsal hand: extends central digits of hand

160
Q

what is lister’s tubercle

A

bone in forearm on dorsal radius
acts as a post for pulley action by the EPL tendon
used to elevate the thumb
predisposes the tendon for rupture (friction or Fx)

161
Q

most common area of radius to fracture

A

distal radius

162
Q

what lies between the flexor and extensor compartment of the forearm

A

interosseus membrane, radial artery, sharp medial edge of ulna (no nerves)
can do longitudinal surgery incisions here

163
Q

boundaries and contents of snuffbox

A

radial artery and scaphoid bone

164
Q

only flexor muscle in posterior compartment of arm, and its innervation

A

brachioradialis
flexor of elbow
innervated by radial nerve (like other extensors)

165
Q

spread of “synergistic (flesh-eating) infections” in forearm

A

spreads to hand first; posterior and anterior compartments in arm do not communicate
rapid spread if necrosis= surgical emergency

166
Q

most vulnerable position arm can be in for dislocation injury

A

abduction and external rotation

baseball pitcher

167
Q

7 processes of vertebrae

A

(4) articular processes
(2) transverse
(1) spinous

168
Q

prime flexors of MPJs in hand

A

interossei muscles

helped my lumbricals

169
Q

ulnar nerve enters hand through… (? canal)

A

guyon’s canal

170
Q

all interosseous muscles innervated by

A

ulnar nerve

171
Q

what muscles give the hand “pinch function”

A

adductor pollicis and 1st dorsal interosseus muscle

172
Q

what muscles give the hand “power grip”

A

hypothenar muscles on ulnar side of hand

173
Q

what tendons support the transverse arch of the foot

A

fibularis longus and tibialis posterior tendons act as a stirrup uner transverse arch

174
Q

What is the action of the quadriceps?

A

Knee extension

175
Q

What is the course of the pudendal nerve?

A

Out the greater sciatic foramen, then into the lesser sciatic foramen to enter and innervate the perineum

176
Q

How do you place a pudendal nerve block

A

palpate for the internal pudendal artery then inject jsut anterior to th epulsation to block the pudendal nerve block

177
Q

What 3 muscles act together in ambulation, and how are they innervated?

A

gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, tensor fascia lata

- superior gluteal nerve

178
Q

What 3 muscles internally rotate the femur?

A

gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, tensor fascia lata

179
Q

What 3 muscles keep the pelvis level?

A

gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, tensor fascia lata

180
Q

What is the gross evidence of a posterior hip dislocation? When is this seen?

A

the affected leg will appear shortened, and the knee will be kept locked because the hamstrings are pulled

  • trocanter sits laterally
  • common in car accidents if the knee his the dashboard
181
Q

What is the gross evidence of an anterior hip dislocation?

A

Affected extremity is laterally located but not shortened (may even appear longer than normal)

182
Q

What are 3 fractures that can result in aseptic (sterile) necrosis of bone?

A

carpal scaphoid
femoral head (intracapular fracture)
calcaneus

183
Q

What supplies the blood flow to the femoral head?

A

upper 2/3:

184
Q

What are the main muscles used when ascending teh stairs or rising form the sitting position?

A

gluteus max

quadracepts femoris

185
Q

Whar are the 3 “antigravity muscles”?

A 
gluteus maximum (mainly)
quadracepts femoris (mainly)
soleus
186
Q

What is contained in the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Sciatic nerve

the hamstring muscles

187
Q

What innervates the two heads of the biceps femoris?

A

Long head: sciatic nerve

Short hand: common fibular nerve

188
Q

What is at risk with a knee dislocation?

A

Popliteal artery, and all the tissues distal to it

189
Q

An injury that causes an “unhappy triad” disrupts what structures?

A

MCL, ACL, medial meniscus

190
Q

What runs with the deep branch of the fibular nerve?

A

anterior tibial artery
- lacerations to these areas (anterior compartment) would cause hemorrhage and nerve damage (foot drop: can’t extend the toes)

191
Q

What everts the foot?

A

fibularis longus and fibularis brevis in the lateral compartment of the foot

192
Q

What is the only sensory space of the deep fibular nerve?

A

The webspace between the great and 2nd toes

193
Q

What muscles invert the mood

A

Tibilalis anterior and tibilalis posterior

194
Q

Where does inversion/everson occur?

A

subtalar joint

195
Q

Where does flexion/extension occur?

A

ankle joint

196
Q

What is the “spring ligament”?

A

palantar calcaneonavicular ligament

197
Q

What are the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

A
  • lateral head of gastrocnemius
  • medial head of gastrocnemius
  • semimembranosis
  • biceps femoris
198
Q

What is contained in the popliteal fossa?

A
  • tibial nerve
  • common fibulae nerve
  • political artery
  • popliteal vein
  • sural nerve
199
Q

What runs through the Hunter’s canal?

A

Femoral artery and vein

200
Q

What ligament divides the anal triangle and urge it’ll triangle?

A

Superficial transverse perineal ligament

201
Q

What are the boundaries of the urogenital and anal triangles?

A

Urogenital (upper): superficial transverse perineal muscle, ischial tuberosity, Ramos of ischium, public symphysis

Anal triangle (lower): superficial transverse perineal muscle, ischial tuberosity, sacrotuberous ligament, coccyx

202
Q

What is Alcock’s canal?

A

Where the pudendal nerve fiver the sacrotuberous ligament

203
Q

What is the main action and innervation of the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Extension of the knee

Femoral nerve

204
Q

What is the main action and innervation of the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Flexors of the knee

Sciatic nerve

205
Q

What is the main action and innervation of the medial compartment of the thigh?

A

Adductor of the leg

Obturator nerve

206
Q

What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

A
  • Inguinal ligament
  • adductor longus
  • sartorius

MSK Final (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions