Anatomy 2 Flashcards
1
Q
what are the dimples in you back landmarks of
A
posterior superior iliac spines
2
Q
what is the first palpable spinous process
A
t1
70% have C7 palpable
3
Q
what are the extrinsic back muscles
A
attach the back to the pectoral girdle
- levator scapulae
- rhomboids
- trapezius
- latissimus dorsi
4
Q
what mainly innervates the external back muscles
A
anterior rami of the cervical nerves
5
Q
what innervates the trapezius
A
accessory nerve
6
Q
what are the intrinsic back muscles
A
(maintain posture and move spine) erector spinae (superficial) transversospinalis (deep)
7
Q
where are transversospinalis found
A
between the transverse and spinous processes
attach between vertebrae and: rib, skull, another vertebra or the sacrum
8
Q
what is the main role of transversospinalis
A
stability and rotation of the vertebrae
9
Q
what is the nerve supply of the intrinsic back muscles
A
segmental - posterior rami branches (cervical, thoracic and lumbar)
10
Q
what happens when the erector spinae contracts unilaterally
A
lateral flexion
11
Q
what are the curvatures of the vertebral column
A
cervical lordosis
thoracic kyphosis
lumbar lordosis
sacral kyphosis
12
Q
where in vertebra is the spinal cord
A
vertebral foramen
13
Q
what is a facet joint
A
articular processes of adjacent vertebrae
14
Q
what vertebrae is there no intervertebral discs between
A
C1-2
fused sacrum/ coccyx
15
Q
what makes up the intervertaebral discs
A
outer fibrous ring- annulus fibrosus
inner doft pulp- nucleus pulposus
16
Q
what is the ligamentum flavum
A
connects adjacent laminae posterior to the spinal cord
17
Q
what is the posterior longitudinal ligament
A
narrow, weak, prevents overflexion
18
Q
what does the anterior longitudinal ligament do
A
strong, broad, prevents over extension of the spine
19
Q
which way are vertebral disc more likely to herniate
A
posteriorly as posterior longitudinal ligament weaker than anterior
20
Q
what does the supraspinous ligament do
A
connects TIPS of spinous processes
strong
21
Q
what does the interspinous ligament do
A
connects superior and inferior surfaces of adjacent spinous processes
weak
22
Q
what goes through the transverse foramen
A
vertebral arteries (off subclavian)
23
Q
which vertebrae have bifid spinal processes
A
cervical
24
Q
describe the anatomy of C1 (atlas)
A
does not have a body or spinous process (post and ant arch instead)
25
which vertebrae has an ondontoid process
C2- axis
26
what movement at the atlanto-occipital joint
flexion and extension of neck
| a little lateral flexion and rotation
27
what joint type is atlanto axial
synovial
28
what movement at the atlanto-axial joint
rotation mainly
29
where does the spinal cord start and finish
```
foramen magnum (continuous with medulla oblongata)
ends vertebral level (L1/2) at conus medullaris
```
30
what is the cauda equina
spinal nerve roots from L2 to Co1 that descend to the numbered vertebrae
31
where is the epidural space
outside the dura in the spinal chord
32
where is anaesthesia injected in caudal anaesthesia
sacral hiatus
33
where is epidural anaesthesia inserted
subarachnoid space surrounding cauda equina where vertebrae arent fused (l3/4 interface)
34
where does the subarachnoid space end
L2
35
when do you not perform a lumbar puncture
when there is raised ICP
36
what does the needle go through in an epidural
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)
37
what does the needle go through in a lumbar puncture
```
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)
dura mater
arachnoid mater
(reaches subarachnoid space)
```
38
what is a laminectomy
removal or one or more spinous processes and the adjacent lamina
used to access spinal cord/ spinal roots or to relieve spinal cord or nerve roots (tumour, herniated disc, bone hypertrophy)
39
as spinal nerves pass through the intervertebral foramina why is the posterior root enlarged
by the dorsal (posterior) root ganglion
40
what is the conus medullaris
where the spinal cord terminates
41
why is the posterior root enlarged as it leaves the intervetebral foramina
enlarged by dorsal root ganglion
42
what suspends the spinal cord in the canal
denticulate ligament
43
what is in the white matter of the spinal cord
axons, glial cells, blood vessels
44
what is in the grey matter of the spinal cord
soma, cell processes, synapses, glia and blood vessels
45
what is the lateral horn
at levels T1-L2 there is a smaller horn which contains the preganglionic sympathetic neurones
46
what is the blood supply of the spinal cord
```
3 longitudinal arteries (1 ant 2 post) that original from vertebral arteries
segmental arteries
radial arteries (travel along roots)
```
venous has longitudinal and segmental vessels also in epidural space
47
the right side of the cortex represents which side of the body
left
48
where is the primary somatosensory cortex
post central gyrus (poSt = Sensory)
49
describe the dorsal column/ medial lemniscus
ascending tract for fine touch and proprioception
enter dorsal column
sypanse in medulla @ nucleus gracillus- where it crosses to midline
goes to thalamus
the PostCG
50
describe the spinothalamic tract
ascending tract for pain, temp and deep pressure
synapse immediately in posterior horn and ascended on CONTRAlateral side
synapses in thalamus
PostCG
fibres cross Segmentally= Switch Sides Straight away as they enter cord= Spinothalamic
51
what is the primary motor cortex
pre central gyrus
52
describe the corticospinal tract
descending tract for fine precise movement (esp digits)
cortex PreCG
85% of fibres cross at the decussation of the pyramids in the medulla (forming the lateral CST)
other 15% form ventral CST which cross segmentally (at level they leave cord)
53
what are pyramidal tracts
corticospinal tract forms these on the anterior surface of the medulla- 85% of fibres cross here in medulla
54
what is the internal capsule
white matter strip where lots of sensory information (e.g. CST) travels through)
55
what happens if there is a CVS in the internal capsule
lack of descending control of the corticospinal tract which results in a spastic paralysis with hyperflexion of the upper limbs = decorticate posturing.
56
describe the tecto spinal tract
begins in tectum (post. mid brain)
dorsal tegmental decussation
mediates head and neck reflec to visual stimuli
57
decsribe the reticulospinal tract
Network of nuclei in the brainstem that control breathing, cardiac
58
describe the vestibulospinal tract
Fibres originate in the vestibular nuclei of pons and medulla
project down cord ipsilaterally
excite anti gravity extensor muscles
59
in general what motor influence do fibres from the pons and medulla do
Fibres originating in pons facilitate extensor movements and inhibit flexor movements, while those originating in the medulla do the opposite
60
when do you get decerebrate regidity and paraplegia in extension
Lesions of the brainstem at the level of the midbrain can result in a lack of descending cortical control of the vestibulosponal tract. This leads to domination of extensor muscle tone and hyperextended spastic paralysis.
61
how would a lateral hemisection of the cors (brown sequard) affect:
motor
reflexes
sensation
motor- ipsilateral paralysis (CST crosses (85%) at medulla)
reflexes- ipsilateral
sensation:
- ipsilateral loss vibration and proprioception (MLS crosses at medulla)
- contralateral loss pof pain and temp (STT crosses segmentally)
62
how are the cranial nerves numbered
form anterior to posterior and medial to lateral on where they connect with CNS
63
what is in the optic canal
optic nerve and ophthalmic artery
64
what is the path of CN I
```
olfactory mucosa
cribiform plate of ethmoid
anterior cranial fossa
olfactor bulb (synapse)
olfactory tract
cortical areas
```
65
what is the path of CN II
```
retina
optic nerve
optic canal (middle cranial fossa)
around pituitary stalk
optic chiasm
forms optic tract
diencephalon
```
66
how do you test CN I
smell a familiar smell while covering the contralateral nostril
67
how do you test CN II
```
acuity (snellens)
colour (ishihara)
fields
relfexes (pupillary light)
fundoscopy
```
68
what is the path of CN III
```
midbrain (mesencephalon)
lateral wall of cavernous sinus
superior orbital fissure
orbit
(parasympathetics (pupil constriction) synapse in cilliary ganglion)
```
69
how do you test CN III parasympathetics
pupillary constriction
70
what is the path if CN IV
```
midbrain (mesencephalon) (exits via dorsal surface)
lateral wall of the cavernous sinus
superior orbital fissure
orbit
(superior oblique)
```
71
what is the path of CN VI
```
pontomedullary junction
within cavernous sinus
superior orbital fissure
orbit
(lateral rectus muscle)
```
72
what is in the cavernous sinus
internal carotid artery
| CN III, IV, V (V1 and V2) and VI
73
how do you test the SO
look down and IN
74
how do you test IO
look up and in
75
how do you test superior and inferior rectus
SR up and out
| IR down and out
76
what is the path of CN VIII
axons from cochlear and vestibular apparatus
internal accoustic meatus (post cranial fossa)
travels posteromedially to the pontomedullary junction
77
how do you test CN VIII
rinne and weber tests
78
what is the function of CN XI
motor to sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
79
what is the path of CN XI
```
cervical spinal cord
ascends through foramen magnum
jugular foramen in post cranial fossa
SCM (deep surface)
posterior triangle
trapezius and SCM
```
80
how do you test CN XI
shrug shoulders
| flex neck and tern to opposite side
81
what is the path of CN XII
rootlets lateral to the pyramids of the medulla oblongata
hypoglossal canal (posterior cranial fossa)
descends lateral to carotid sheath
at hyoid turns anteriorly towards tongue
82
what does CN XII innervate
all the nerves ending in glossus except palatoglossus (vagus)
83
how do you test CN XII
Ask patient to stick tongue straight out
If both CNXII’s are functioning normally the tongue tip remains in the midline on protrusion
If there is unilateral CN XII pathology the tongue tip will point towards the side of the injured nerve
84
what are the modalities of CN V
V1 sensory
V2 sensory
V3 sensory and motor
85
what is the path of CN V
```
pos
inferior to tentorium cerebelli
cranial foramina:
-V1 SOF
-V2 foramen rotundum
-V3 foramen ovale
```
86
what does CN V1 supply
- The upper eyelid
- The cornea (corneal reflex)
- All the conjunctiva
- Skin of the root/bridge/tip of the nose
deep sensory:
Bones & soft tissues of the orbit (except the orbital floor & lower eyelid)
Upper anterior nasal cavity
Paranasal sinuses (except the maxillary sinus)
Anterior & posterior cranial fossae
87
what does CN V2 supply
- The skin of the lower eyelid
- The skin over the maxilla
- The skin of the ala of the nose
- The skin/mucosa of the upper lip
```
deep sensory:
Lower posterior nasal cavity
Maxilla & maxillary sinus
Floor of the nasal cavity/palate
Maxillary teeth & associated soft tissues (gingivae & mucosae)
```
88
what does CN V3 supply
- Skin over the mandible and temporomandibular joint
(apart from the angle of the mandible – supplied by C2,3 spinal nerves)
```
deep sensory:
Middle cranial fossa
Mandible
Anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Floor of the mouth
Buccal mucosa
Mandibular teeth & associated soft tissues
```
89
what is the great auricular nerve and what does it do
(C2,3) – a sensory branch of the cervical plexus
| Supplies: - The skin over the angle of the mandible & some of the external ear
90
what motor action does CN V3 have
jaw closing- masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
jaw opening- lateral pterygoid
tensor veli palatini
tensor tympani
91
how do you test CN V
sensory
Ask the patient to close their eyes
Gently brush the skin in each dermatome with a fine tip of cotton wool
Ask the patient to tell you when they feel their skin being touched
Compare the 2 sides
motor
Palpate the strength of contraction of the masseter & temporalis by asking patient to clench their teeth
Ask the patient to open their jaw against resistance
92
what is the path of CN VII
pontomedullary junction
internal acoustic meatus (into petrous part of temporal bone)
stylomastoid foramen
parotid gland/ muscles of facial expression
93
what does the chorda tympani do
Taste buds of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Parasympathetic supply to the submandibular & sublingual glands (salivation).
(branch of CN VII)
94
what supplies the stapedius
CN VII
95
what does stapedius do
Reduces stapes movement to protect the internal ear from excessive noise
96
what does CN VII do
sensory, motor, parasymp
motor- muscles of facial expression, stapedius
sensory- taste ant 2/3rds of tongue (c. tympani)
para- sublingual, submandibular, lacrimal and mucous glands
97
how do you test CN VII
raise eyebrows- frontalis
close eyes tightly- orbicularis oculi
smile- elevators of lips
puff out cheeks and hold air- orbicularis oris
98
what is the path of CN IX
medulla oblongata
jugular foramen
descends towards pharynx and mouth
```
To the :
stylopharyngeus muscle
parotid gland
pharyngeal mucosa
carotid body and sinus
posterior 1/3rd of tongue
```
99
what does CN IX do
General sensory to:
The posterior 1/3rd of the tongue
The mucosa of most of the nasopharynx and oropharynx
The mucosa of some of the laryngopharynx (some overlap with CN X territory)
The palatine tonsil
The eustachian tube
The middle ear cavity
Special sensory to:
The vallate papillae (with taste buds) of the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue
Visceral afferent to the carotid sinus baroreceptors & the carotid body chemoreceptors
Somatic motor
(Stylopharyngeus)
Parasympathetic (secretomotor) to the parotid gland (salivary)
100
how can you test CN IX
gag reflex
101
what is the path of the vagus nerve
lateral aspect of medulla oblongata
jugular foramen
supplies between palate and midgut
-runs within carotid sheath
-posterior to and between the common carotid artery and IJV
-gives of recurrent laryngeal branch
-right CN X lies on trachea
-left CN X lies on aortic arch
-both pass posterior to lung root and onto oesophagus
-pass through diaphragm with oesophagus at T10
both pass onto surface of stomach
branches pass to celiac and superior mesenteric ganglia follows GI arteries
102
what is the path of the two recurrent laryngeal nerves
Left recurrent laryngeal nerve curves under arch of the aorta
Right recurrent laryngeal curves under the right subclavian artery
103
how do you test CN X
Ask patient to say ‘ahhhhh’ – also tests CNV3
(MUSCLES OF PALATE)
Motor function
Uvula should lift straight up in midline
Unilateral pathology will pull uvula away from the non-functioning side
swallow water
listen to speech
104
what are the five layers of the scalp
```
SCALP
s= skin
C= connective tissue (contains arteries)
A= aponeurosis
L= loose connective tissue
P= pericranium (periosteum of the skull)
```
105
what do skull sutures do in skull fractures
help prevent fractures spreading
106
what bones make up the pterion
frontal, parietal, temporal, sphenoid
107
what artery courses over the deep aspect of the pterion
the middle meningeal artery
108
what is meningitis
inflammation (usually bacterial or viral infection) of the meninges
109
what supplies the sensory innervation to the dura mater
CN V
110
what meninges enlcoses the dural venous sinuses
dura mater
111
what is the diaphragm sellae
sheet of dura mater that forms a roof over the pituitary fossa
112
what is the tentorium cerebelli
sheet of dura mater that tents over the cerebellum
attaches to the ridges of the petrous temporal bones
has a central gap to allow the brainstem to pass through
113
what is the falx cerebri
dura mater midline structure that attaches to deep aspect of skull:
- from crista galli of the ethmoid bone anteriorly
- internal aspect of the sagittal suture
- to internal occipital protuberance posteriorly
it separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres
blends with tentorium cerebelli
114
what do cerebral veins do
drain venous blood from the brain into the dural venous sinuses
115
where is the confluence of dural venous sinuses
midline at internal occipital protuberance
116
what lines dural venous sinuses
endothelium
117
what is the danger triangle
are if face where there is connection between superficial facial veins and deep facial veins - infection here can spread backwards to cranium
118
what foramen does the vertebral artery go through
transverse foraminae in vertebrae then foramen mangum
119
how does the internal carotid enter the cranial cavity
cranial canal
120
what does the external carotid supply
neck face and scalp
121
what does the right anterior cerebral artery supply
medial aspect of the right cerebral hemisphere
122
what links the anterior cerebral arteries
anterior communicating artery
123
what does the left middle cerebral artery supply
lateral aspect of the left cerebral hemisphere
124
what does the right posterior cerebral artery supply
posterior aspect of the right cerebral hemisphere including the visual cortex
125
what links the posterior cerebral arteries to the middle cerebral arteries
posterior communicating arteries
126
where is the circle of willis
in subarachnoid space
| inferior to midbrain- close to pituitary stalk and optic chiasm
127
how much CSF is made each day and where
400-500mls
choroid plexus of the ventricles
reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations
128
what level does the subarachnoid space end
S2
129
where is the 3rd venticle
midline within the diencephalon
130
where is the 4th ventricle
between the cerebellum and pons
131
how does the CSF get from the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle
foraminae of munro
132
where is CSF in the spinal cord
in subarachnoid space around it ans in central canal
133
what is hydrocephalus
when excessive production, obstruction to flow or inadequate reabsorption causes increased CSF volume
134
what is a ventricular peritonieal shunt
when a shunt catheter is tunnelled beneath the skin of the neck and chest and then sited within the peritoneal cavity to help hydrocephalus
135
where do cerebral arteries go between
brain to dural sinuses
136
where are the middle meningeal arteries
between bone and dura
137
what is an extradural haemorrhage
bleed between brain ans dura (middle meningeal artery- trauma to pterion)
138
what is a subdural haemorrhage
a bleed separates the dura from the arachnoid (cerebral veins- falls in the elderly)
139
what is a subarachnoid haemorrhage
bleed in to the csf of the subarachnoid space (ruptured circle of willis 'berry aneurysm'- congenital)
140
what is an uncal herniation
```
the uncus (medial part) of the temporal
lobe herniates inferior to the tentorium cerebelli
```
141
describe an infratentorial herniation
can be upward, downward or tonsillar:
| -the cerebellar tonsils herniate into the foramen magnum
142
what does compression of the oculomotor nerve by an uncal herniation cause
ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (blown pupil)
143
what is the basic function of the cerebellum and basal ganglia
adjust and coordinate movement
144
what is the flocculonodular lobe
ear like lobe on the cerbellum
145
how is the cerebellum attached to the brainstem
via 3 penduncles- middle, superior and inferior- made of white matter
146
what is the vermis
centre of the cerebellum
147
how does the cerebellum talk to the brainstem and thalamus
via deep cerebellar nuclei (deep grey matter)
148
what are the three layers of the cerebellum
outer- molecular (lots of neurones)
middle- purkinje (output cells- talks to brainstem)
inner- granular (>50% of neurones)
149
what are the afferet projections to the cerebellum (inputs)
```
spinal cord (from somatic proprioceptors and pressure receptors)
cerebral cortex (relayed via the pons)
vetsibular apparatus (via vestibular nuclei)
```
all enter via cerebellar peduncles and project mainly to granular layer
150
what are the efferent projections of the cerebellum (outputs)
(only output is via axons of purkinje cells which synapse at deep cerebellar nuclei and contribute to coordinating the functions of all the motor tracts of brain stem and spinal cord)
- corticospinal
- vestibulospinal
- rubrospinal
151
where do most efferent axons of the deep cerebellar nuclei cross the midline and synapse
in the thalamus- which in turns send fibres to the motor cortex
152
what side if the body do the cerebral hemispheres influence
ipsilateral (lesions will have ipsilateral affects)
153
what will a unilateral hemispheric lesion cause
intention tremor, unsteady gait
| NO weakness or sensory loss
154
what does bilateral cerebellar dysfunction cause
slowed, slurred speech (dysarthia)
bilateral incoordination of arms
staggering, wide based gait (cerebellar ataxia)
155
how does alcohol affect the cerebellar
causes bilateral cerebellar hemisphere dysfunction
156
what will a midline lesion in the cerebellum cause
disturbance of postural control
157
what does the vermis control
automonic information
158
what are the functions of the basal ganglia
facilitate purposeful movement
inhibit unwanted movement
role in posture and muscle tone
159
what are the 5 basal ganglia
1. caudate nucleus
2. putamen
3. globus pallidus
4. subthalamic nucleus
5. substantia nigra
```
1+2 = striatum
1+2+3 = corpus striatum
2+3 = lenticular nucleus
```
160
what are basal ganglia
a number of small masses of grey matter located near the base of each cerebral hemisphere
161
what is the direct pathway of the basal ganglia
Enhances outflow of thalamus, enhancing the desired movement
162
what is the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia
inhibits outflow of thalamus
| prevents movement you don't want
163
what side of body to basal ganglia lesoins affect
in contrast to cerebellar lesions affect the contralateral side of the body
164
what DONT lesions of the basal ganglia cause
paralysis
sensory loss
loss of power
ataxia
165
what DO basal ganglia lesions cause
changes in muscle tone
dyskinesias (abnormal involuntary movements):
-temor (sinusoidal movements)
-chorea (rapid, asymmetrical movements, usually distal limb)
-myoclonus (muscle jerks)
166
where is the pathology in parkinsons
generation of dopaminergic neurones of the substatia nigra (direct pathway affected)
167
what are the signs of parkinsons
akineasia, rigidity and resting tremor
168
where is the pathology in huntingtons disease
autosomal dominant disorder causes progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex (indirect pathway affected- no inhibition of movement)
169
what are the signs of huntingtons
chorea and progressive dementia
170
list the modality, central connection and function of CN I
sensory
olfactory bulb (only CN to not synapse in thalamus before going to cortex)
innervates olfactory epithelium- olfaction
171
list the modality, central connection and function of CN II
sensory
cc=lateral geniculate nucleus, prectal nucleus
f= vision (innervates retina), pupillary light reflex
172
list the modality, central connection and function of CN III
motor and parasympathetics
motor
CC=oculomotor nucleus
f= eye movements (sup., inf,. medial rectus, inf. oblique), elevate eyelid (LPS)
para
cc=EWN
f= pupillary constriction and accommodation (innervates sphincter pupillae + cilliary muscle via ciliary ganglion)
173
list the modality, central connection and function of CN IV
motor
cc-trochlear nucleus
f- moves up (SO- down and out)
(only CN to exit posteriorly)
174
list the modality, central connection and function of CN V
sensory and motor
sensory
cc- trigeminal sensory nucleus
f- somatosensation (discriminative touch, vibration, pain, temp of face, scalp, cornea, nasal and oral cavities and cranial dural mater) via pontine trigeminal nucleus
proprioception of chewing via mesencephalic nucleus
motor
cc- trigeminal motor nucleus
f- opening and closing mouth (muscles of mastication)
tensor tympani
175
list the modality, central connection and function of CN VI
motor
cc- abducens nucleus
f- move eye (LR)
176
list the modality, central connection and function of CN list the modality, central connection and function of CN
sensory, motor, parasympathetics
sensory
cc- nucleus solitarius
f- taste of ant 2/3rds of tongue (via c. tympani)
motor
cc- facial nucleus
f- facial expression muscles, tenses stapedius
para
cc- superior salivatory nucleus
f- salivation and lacrimation (via submandibular and pterygopalatine ganglia)
177
list the modality, central connection and function of CN list the modality, central connection and function of CN
sensory
cc- vestibular nuclei, cochlear nuclei
f- vestibular sensation and hearing
178
list the modality, central connection and function of CN IX
sensory, motor and para
sensory (2)
1. f- general sensation for pharynx, posterior 1/3rd of tongue, eustachian tube, middle ear
cc- trigeminal sensory nucleus
2. f- taste to post 1/3rd of tongue (chemo and baroreception)
cc- nucleus solitarus
motor
cc- nucleus ambiguus
f- stylopharyngeus muslces (swallowing)
para
cc- inferior salivatory nucleus
f- salivation (parotid gland via otic ganglion)
179
list the modality, central connection and function of CN X
sensory motor and para
sensory (2)
1. general sensation for pharynx, larynx, trachea, oesophagus, external ear
cc- trigeminal sensory nucleus
2. visceral sensation, chemo and baro reception for thoracic and abdominal viscera, aortic bodies and aortic arch
cc- nucleus solitarius
motor
cc- nucleus ambiguis
f- speech and swallowing (soft palate, pharynx, larynx, upper oesophagus)
para
f- innervation of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands or cardiovascular system, resp and GI tracts (thoracic and abdo viscera)
cc- dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
180
list the modality, central connection and function of CN XI
motor
cc- cervical spinal cord
f- SCM and trapezius- movement of head and shoulder
181
list the modality, central connection and function of CN XII
motor
cc- hypoglossal nucleus
f- intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue (expect palato)
182
what CN dont exit brainstem anteriorly
IV (posterioly) and VIII (laterally)
183
what is the motor input to CNs
corticobulbar tract (part of pyramidal tract)
184
what is the parasymp input into CNs 1973
hypothalamus
185
what are the functions of the reticular formation
Integrate cranial nerve reflexes.
Participate in conduction and modulation of pain.
Influence voluntary movement.
Regulate autonomic activity.
Integrate some basic functions, like respiration and sleep.
Activate the cerebral cortex
186
what CN in myelinated
CN II (optic)
187
where are the nuclei of the motor CNs
midline of the brainstem
188
what CNs share the solitary nucleus
VII, IX, X
| taste and visceral sensory information
189
what CNs share the superior and inferior salivatory nucleus
CN VII and IX
| parasymp to ganglia of salivary glands and pterygopalatine ganglion
190
what CNs share the nucleus ambiguus
CN IX and X
| motor efferents to muscles of pharynx, larynx and upper oesophagus
191
where is the solitary nucleus
extends in a V shape from upper to lower medulla
192
where is the nucleus ambiguus
lower pons/ upper medulla
193
what is the auditory pathway
1. cochlear nerve (spiral ganglion- carries APs from organ of corti to cochlear nuclei in pons)
2. internal accoustic meatus
3. pontomedullary junction (bilateral now)
4. ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei
5. olivary nucleus (1st synapse- not all synapse here tho for localisation)
6. inferior colliculus (all synapse here)
7. medial geniculate body in thalamus
8. primary auditory cortex
194
why are the suprior olivary and lateral lemniscus nuclei important in the auditory pathway
for locaisation and relays for stapedius and tensor tympani reflexes
195
where is the auditory cortex
temporal superior gyrus
196
what is the vestibular pathway
```
vestibular nerve
vestibular ganglion
vestibular nuclei
thalamus
cerebral cortex (no primary cortex area)
medial longitudinal fasciculus to CN 3,4,6
6. cerebellum
7. spinal cord via vestibulospinal tract
```
197
what is the medial longitunidal fasciculus
white matter tract that allows vestibular nuclei to coordinate eye movements
carries both ascending and descending tracts
198
what is tonotopic organisation in the auditory cortec
Fibres carrying information regarding low frequency sound end in the anterolateral part of the auditory cortex
Fibres carrying information regarding high frequency sound end in the posteromedial part of the auditory cortex.
199
what is aphasia
inability to use language
200
what happens if there is damage to brocas area
difficulty in producing language
201
what happens if there is damage to wernickes area
difficulty comprehending language
202
what is the optic pathway
```
optic nerve
chiasm
optic tract
lateral geniculate nucleus (+superior colliculi)
optic radiation (meyers loop)
visual cortex
```
203
what part of visual cortex does the lower visual field go to
gyrus superior to the calcarine sulcus
204
what part of visual cortex does the upper visual field go to
gyrus inferior to the calcarine sulcus
205
which visual field goes around meyers loop
upper
206
what part of vision responds to visual stimuli (tracking)
visual cortex
207
what part of vision does movements of command (saccadic)
frontal eye fields
208
what is affected in internuclear ophthalmoplegia
medial longitudinal fasciculus
209
what are the steps of the pupillary light reflex
1. light shone in eye
2. APs reach pretectal nuclei (both sides)
3. edinger-westphal nucleus
4. oculomotor nerves
5. ciliary ganglion
6. pupil constriction (pupillary sphincter)
210
why is the accomoationd reflex different from the pupillary light refelx
as accomodation needs input to EWN and occulomotor nucleus from the visual cortex not just direct pathway
211
what are the steps of the accomodation reflex
```
optic nerve
lateral geniculate nucleus
visual cortex
pretectal area
EWN
occulomotor nerve
muscles of accomodation (medial rectus, cilliary muscle, sphincter pupillae)
```
212
for most right handed people where in the brain is dominant for language
left hemisphere
213
what are association fibres
connect cortical sites lying in the same hemisphere
214
what are commisural fibres
connext one hemisphere to the other, usually connecting areas with similar function
215
what are projection fibres
connect hemispheres to deeper structures including thalamus, corpus striatum, brain stem and spinal cord
