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anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of glial cells

A

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells

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2
Q

what are astrocytes

A

support, maintaining the blood brain barrier
maintain homeostasis

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3
Q

what are oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin sheet in CNS
round nucleus

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4
Q

what are microglial

A

phagocytic

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5
Q

what level does the spinal cord become conus medullaris.

A

L2 vertebral level

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6
Q

levels of spinal enlargement

A

cervical enlargement is located proximally, at the C4-T1 level
T11 and L1 is the lumbar enlargement

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7
Q

venous supply in cranial cavity

A

dura mater attached to periosteum of skull bone

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8
Q

venous supply of vertebral canal

A

space exits between dura and bone
epidural space

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9
Q

divisions of trigeminal nerve

A

opthalmic- sensory
maxillary- sensory
mandibular- sensory and motor

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10
Q

sensory innervation of CNV1

A

supplies: upper eyelid, cornea and all the conjunctiva
skin of the root/bridge of nose
deep sensory: bones and soft tissue of the orbit, upper anterior nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, anterior and posterior cranial fossae

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11
Q

sensory innervation of CNV2

A

the skin of lower eyelid
the skin over the maxilla
the skin of the ala of the nose
the skin /mucosa of the upper lip
deep teritory: lower posterior nasal cavity, maxilla and maxillary sinus, floor of nasal cavity/palate, maxillary teeth

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12
Q

sensory innervation of CNV3

A

the skin over the mandible and temporomandibular joint (apart from the angle of the mandible)
deep territory: middle cranial fossa, the mandible, anterior 2/3rd of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, buccal mucosa, mandibular teeth

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13
Q

what is the great auricular nerve

A

C2,3 > sensory branch of cervical plexus
supplies the skin of the angle of the mandible and some of the external ear

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14
Q

motor innervation of trigeminal nerve

A

CNV3 supplies the muscles of mastication
also supplies tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani

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15
Q

what are the muscles of mastication

A

masseter
temporalis
medial pterygoid
lateral pterygoid

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16
Q

what nerve provides pre-synaptic parasympathetic fibres for the pterygopalatine ganglion

A

facial

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17
Q

what does the pterygopalatine ganglion innervate

A

lacrimal, nasal, palatine, and pharyngeal glands

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18
Q

what nerve provides pre-synaptic parasympathetic fibres for the submandibular ganglion

A

facial

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19
Q

what does the submandibular ganglion innervate

A

sublingual and submandibular glands

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20
Q

what nerve innervates taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

lingual nerve
branch of mandibular from V3

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21
Q

anatomical course of the cranial portion of the facial nerve

A

leaves brainstem at the pontomedullary junction and enters the internal acoustic meatus in the posterior cranial fossa

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22
Q

anatomical course of the temporal portion of the facial nerve

A

after the internal acoustic meatus > nerve travels anteriorly within the temporal bone
turns and runs along the medial wall of typanic cavity

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23
Q

modalities of vestibulocochlear nerve

A

both parts are special sensory only

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24
Q

where does the vestibular component of the vestibulocochlear nerve arise

A

vestibular nuclei complex in the pons and medulla

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25
Q

where does the cochlear component of the vestibulocochlear nerve arise

A

from the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei, situated in the inferior cerebellar peduncle

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26
Q

anatomical course of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A

both fibres combine in the pons to form the nerve
nerve exits cranium via the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone
the nerve splits again

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27
Q

sensory modalities of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

oropharynx, carotid body and sinus, posterior 1/3 of the tongue, middle ear cavity and Eustachian tube

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28
Q

special sensory modalities of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

taste sensation to the posterior 3rd of the tongue

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29
Q

parasympathetic modalities of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland

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30
Q

motor modalities of the glossopharyngeal

A

stylopharyngeus muscle of the pharynx

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31
Q

anatomical course of glossophrayngeal

A

leaves CNS at the upper medulla oblongata
exits cranium through jugular foramen
tympanic branch arisis- has mixed sensory and parasympathetic composition
enters the parapharyngeal space and lays on the stylopharygeus muscle to supply somatic motor

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32
Q

somatic sensation modalities of vagus

A

innervates skin external acoustic meatus and the internal surfaces of the laryngopharynx and larynx

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33
Q

somatic motor modalities of vagus nerve

A

palate, pharynx, larynx

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34
Q

somatic motor modalities of vagus nerve

A

palate, pharynx, larynx

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35
Q

special sensory modalities of vagus nerve

A

epiglottis- taste

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36
Q

visceral sensation of vagus nerve

A

thorax/abdomen

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37
Q

where does the vagus nerve orginiate

A

lateral aspect of the medulla

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38
Q

what nerves exit via the jugular foramen

A

CN IX, X, XI
(and internal jugular vein)

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39
Q

anatomical course of vagus nerve in the neck

A

travels in the carotid sheath with the jugular vein and common carotid artery
right and left nerves have differing pathways at base of neck

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40
Q

what muscles are innervated by the spinal accessory nerve

A

sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

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41
Q

modalities of the hypoglossal nerve

A

somatic motor- to all the muscles of the tongue, except palatoglossus (vagus nerve)

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42
Q

where are spinal nerves found

A

intervertebral foramina

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43
Q

definition of dermatome

A

area of skin supplied with sensory innervation from a single spinal nerve

44
Q

dermatome for the nipple

A

T4

45
Q

dermatome of umbillicus

A

T10

46
Q

dermatome of posterior scalp, neck and shoulder

A

C2-4

47
Q

what does the cervical plexus innervate

A

posterior scalp, neck and diaphragm

48
Q

when do sympathetic nerve fibres leave the CNS

A

T1-L2

49
Q

sympathetic innervation of the heart

A

presynaptic axons synapse in T1 or cervical paravertebral ganglia
postsynaptic axons pass in cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves to SA and AV nodes and myocardium

50
Q

when do parasympathetic fibres leave the CNS

A

within 4 cranial nerves (CN III, VII, IX, and X)
sacral spinal- craniosacral outflow

51
Q

extrinsic back muscles

A

levator scapulae
trapezius
rhomboids
latissimus dorsi

52
Q

intrinsic back muscles function

A

maintain posture and move the spine

52
Q

intrinsic back muscles function

A

maintain posture and move the spine

53
Q

two groups of intrinsic back muscles

A

erector spinae (superficial)
transversospinalis (deep)

54
Q

ligamentum flacum

A

connects adjacent laminae posterior to spinal cord

55
Q

posterior longitudinal ligament

A

narrow, weak
less support for disc
prevents over-flexion of spine

56
Q

anterior longitudinal ligament

A

broad, strong
stronger support for disc
prevents over-extension of spine

57
Q

atlanto-axial joints

A

3 articulations- all synovial
- 2 between the inferior articular facets of the atlas and the superior articular facets of the axis
- 1 between the anterior arch of the atlas and odontoid process of the axis
- Main movement is rotation

58
Q

where is it most safe for the needle to be inserted for spinal and epidural anaethesia

A

region where subarachnoid space surrounds the cauda equina, NOT the spinal cord
vertebrae not fused
most commonly L3/4

59
Q

biceps reflex tests what?

A

C5

60
Q

supinator/brachioradialis reflex tests what

A

C6

60
Q

supinator/brachioradialis reflex tests what

A

C6

61
Q

knee reflex tests what

A

L4

62
Q

ankle reflex tests what

A

S1

63
Q

what does SCALP stand for

A

skin
connective tissue
apopneurosis
loose connective tissue
pericranium

64
Q

what forms the pterion

A

frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones

65
Q

what innervates the dura mater

A

CN V

66
Q

what is the daiphragm sellae

A

tough sheet of dura mater forming a roof over the pituitary fossa

67
Q

what is the tentorium cerebelli

A

sheet of dura mater ‘tenting’ over the cerebellum
- attaches to the ridges of the petrous temporal bones
- has a central gap to permit the brainstem to pass through

68
Q

falx cerebri

A

midline structure made of dura mater that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres

69
Q

supratensorial herniation

A

cingulate
central
uncal or transtenrotial- the uncus of the tempral lobe herniates inferior to the tentorium cerebelli
transcalvarial

70
Q

intratentorial herniation

A

upward
downward or tonsillar herniation- cerebellar tonsils herniate into the foramen magnum

71
Q

function of frontal lobe

A

higher intellect, personality, mood, social conduct and language
motor cortex is located within frontal lobe

72
Q

functions of parietal lobe

A

language and calculation on the dominant hemisphere side, and visuospatial function on the non-dominant hemisphere side

73
Q

function of temporal lobe

A

memory and language
includes hearing- contains the primary auditory cortex

74
Q

functions of occipital lobe

A

vision

75
Q

function of insular lobe

A

important role in patients experience of pain

76
Q

clinical signs of dsfunction of the frontal lobe

A
  • Personality dysfunction
  • Paraparesis
  • Paratonia
  • Grasp reflex
  • Frontal gait dysfunction (magnetic gait)
  • Cortical hand
  • Seizures
  • Incontinence
  • Visual field defects (anterior visual pathway including optic chiasms are beneath frontal lobe)
  • Expressive dysphasia (Broca’s area is in the dominant frontal lobe)
  • Anosmia (olfactory pathway is beneath frontal lobes)
77
Q

clinical signs of dysfunction of parietal lobe

A
  • Visual field defect (congruous lower homonymous quadrantanopia)
  • Sensory dysfunction (visual and sensory modalities in particular)
  • Gerstmann’s syndrome (disease of the dominant angular gyrus, part of the inferior parietal lobe): dysgraphia, left-right disorientation, finger agnosia, acalculia
  • Dyspraxia
  • Inattention (non-dominant angular gyrus)
  • Denial
78
Q

clinical signs of dysfunction of temporal lobe

A
  • Memory dysfunction especially episodic memory
  • Agnosia (visual and sensory modalities in particular)
  • Language disorders receptive dysphasia (Wernicke, dominant hemisphere)
  • Visual field defects (congruous upper homonymous quadrantanopia)
  • Auditory dysfunction (Heschel’s gyrus, as hearing is represented bilaterally, deafness is not a cerebral feature)
  • Limbic dysfunction
  • Temporal lobe epilepsy
79
Q

what is the DCML pathway

A

carries sensory modalities of fine touch, conscious proprioception and vibration

80
Q

where does DCML information travel in the brainstem

A

the medial lemniscus

81
Q

what is the first order neurones in the DCML

A

carries sensory information regarding touch, proprioception or vibration from peripheral nerves to medulla oblongata

82
Q

what is the second order neurones in the DCML

A

they begin in the cuneate nucleus or gracilis
the fibres receive the information from the preceedng neurones and deliver to the third order in thalamus

83
Q

where does the DCML fibres decussate

A

medulla oblongata

84
Q

what do the third order neurones in the DCML do

A

transmit sensory signals from the thalamus to the ipsilateral primary sensory cortex of the brian

85
Q

anterior spinothalamic tract

A

carries the sensory modalities of crude touch and pressure

86
Q

lateral spinothalamic tract

A

carries the sensory modalities of pain and temperature

87
Q

first order neurones of the anterolateral system

A

arise from the sensory receptors in the periphery
enter the spinal cord, ascend 1-2 vertebral levels, synapse at the tip of dorsal horn (substantia gelantinose)

88
Q

second order neurones of the anterolateral tract

A

carry information from substantia gelatinosa to the thalamus
- decussate within the spinal cord and form the two distinct tracts

89
Q

third order neurones of the anterolateral spinal tract

A

carry sensory signals from the thalamus to the ipsilateral primary sensory cortex of the brain

90
Q

the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

unconscious proprioceptive information

91
Q

Posterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

Carries proprioceptive information from the lower limbs to the ipsilateral cerebellum

92
Q

Cuneocerebellar tract?

A

Carries proprioceptive information from the upper limbs to the ipsilateral cerebellum

93
Q

Anterior spinocerebellar tract

A

Carries proprioceptive information from the lower limbs. The fibres decussate twice – and so terminate in the ipsilateral cerebellum

94
Q

Rostral spinocerebellar tract

A

Carries proprioceptive information from the upper limbs to the ipsilateral cerebellum

95
Q

pyramidal tracts

A

originate in the cerebral cortex
carry motor fibres to spinal cord and brainstem
responsible for voluntary control of musculature of body and face

96
Q

extrapyramidal tracts

A

originate in the brainstem
carry motor fibres to spinal cord
responsible for involuntary and automatic control of musculature: such as tone, balance, posture and locomotion

97
Q

corticospinal tract

A

is a pyramidal tract
responsible for fine movement
About 85% of fibres cross the caudal medulla at the decussation of the pyramids
- Crossed fibres form the lateral CST
- Uncrossed fibres form the ventral CST, which cross segmentally

98
Q

brown-sequard’s syndrome

A

condition characterised by a lesion in the spinal cord resulting in weakness or paralysis on one side of the body and loss of sensation on the opposite
caused by lateral hemisection of spinal cord

99
Q

3 lobes of the cerebellum

A

anterior lobe, posterior lobe and flocculondoular lobe

100
Q

where does the cerebellum receive its blood supply

A

superior cerebellar artery- branch of basilar artery
anterior inferior cerebellar artery- branch of basilar artery
posterior inferior cerebellar artery

101
Q

Descending corticospinal tracts

A

responsible for voluntary motor control of the body.

102
Q

Descending corticobulbar tracts

A

responsible for voluntary motor control of face, head and neck.

103
Q

Ascending medial lemniscus tracts

A

responsible for fine touch, vibration and proprioception.

104
Q

Ascending spinothalamic tracts

A

responsible for pain and temperature sensation

neuro (20 decks)

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