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Neurology > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 components of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

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2
Q

What are neurons made up of?

A

Neuronal body
Soma
Dendrites
Axon

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3
Q

What is the role of dendrites?

A

To bring information towards the cell body.

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4
Q

What is the role of the soma?

A

To carry information away from the cell body in the form of an action potential.

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5
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Act as support cells of the nervous system.

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6
Q

What are the 4 types of glial cell?

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

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7
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath of the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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8
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath of the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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9
Q

What are the gaps in the myelin sheath which APs jump between called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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10
Q

What is found in grey matter?

A

Neuronal cell bodies

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11
Q

What is found in white matter?

A

Axons

Acts as a communicating region.

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12
Q

In the CNS, where is grey matter found?

A

Grey matter is found towards the outside (white matter is towards the inside).

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13
Q

In the spinal cord, where is grey matter found?

A

Grey matter is found centralling in the shape of an ‘H’ (surrounded by white matter).

Swaps position from that seen in the CNS.

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14
Q

How do you differentiate between the anterior and posterior horns of grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

The posterior horns isolate the posterior column of white matter to the rest of the white matter.

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15
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

An area of grey matter deep within the brain. It has an internal capsule.

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16
Q

What is the corpus pallosum?

A

A ‘highway’ of white matter connecting both hemispheres of the brain.

Found immediately superior to the lateral ventricles.

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17
Q

What is the interthalamic adhesion?

A

A point of contact between the thalamus and the hypothalamus.

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18
Q

What are the lobes of the brain called?

A 
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe
Insular lobe
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19
Q

What are the 2 blood supplies of the brain called?

A

Internal carotid system (anterior)

Vertebro-basilar system (posterior)

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20
Q

Where do the 2 blood supplies of the brain meet?

A

The circle of Willis (forms the basilar artery).

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21
Q

What happens at the jugular foramen?

A

The dural venous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein.

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22
Q

A collection of nerve cell bodies WITHIN the CNS is called?

A

Nucleus

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23
Q

A collection of nerve cell bodies WITHIN the PNS is called?

A

Ganglion

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24
Q

What is the benefit of many dendrites?

A

The increased surface area, allows maximum coverage of nerves.

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25
Q

What form of neurons are most common?

A

Multipolar neurons

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26
Q

What do multipolar neurons provide?

A

Motor function

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27
Q

What do unipolar neurons provide?

A

Sensory function

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28
Q

Are multipolar neurons afferent?

A

No, they are efferent, as they supply motor innervation to the body wall.

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29
Q

Are unipolar neurons afferent?

A

Yes, as they carry sensory impulses towards the brain.

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30
Q

What are the 6 nerve modalities?

A 
Somatic motor
Somatic sensory
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
Visceral afferent
Special sensory
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31
Q

Can tracts have more than one modality?

A

No, only nerves can have multiple modalities.

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32
Q

Are spinal nerves part of the CNS or PNS?

A

They are a PNS structure.

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33
Q

What foraminae do spinal nerves pass through?

A

Intervertebral foraminae

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34
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves exist?

A

31 pairs

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35
Q

What is the route taken by sensory axons to reach the CNS?

A

Spinal nerve > Posterior root > Posterior rootlets > Posterior horn of the spinal cord

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36
Q

What is the route taken by motor axons to reach the effector organs?

A

Anterior horn of the spinal cord > Anterior rootlets > Anterior root > Spinal nerve

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37
Q

Spinal nerves and their subsequent rami are of which modality?

A

Mixed modality

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38
Q

What modality is the posterior root?

A

Sensory only.

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39
Q

What modality is the anterior root?

A

Motor only.

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40
Q

Do the dermatomes and myotomes of a spinal nerve always lie directly deep to each other?

A

No

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41
Q

Which dermatome segment is the nipple at?

A

T4

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42
Q

Which dermatome segment is the umbilicus at?

A

T10

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43
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves

A 
Olfactory (CNI)
Optic (CNII)
Oculomotor (CNIII)
Trochlear (CNIV)
Trigeminal (CNV)
Abducens (CNVI)
Facial (CNVII)
Vestibulocochlear (CNVIII)
Glossopharyngeal (CNIX)
Vagus (CNX)
Spinal accessory (CNXI)
Hypoglossal (CNXII)
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44
Q

Which part of the brain controls the ANS?

A

Hypothalamus

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45
Q

Which part of the ANS is described as thoracolumbar outflow?

A

Sympathetic

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46
Q

Which part of the ANS is described as craniosacral outflow?

A

Parasympathetic

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47
Q

What is the role of the spinal cord?

A

To allow the brain to communicate with the areas of the body outwith the range of the cranial nerves.

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48
Q

What is the only part of the nervous system outwith the skull that does not interact with the spinal cord?

A

Vagus nerve

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49
Q

Where are the 2 enlargements of the spinal cord seen?

A

Cervical region

Lumbar region

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50
Q

At what point does the spinal cord usually end?

A

Vertebral level L1/L2

The area below this is where the spinal taps are carried out.

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51
Q

Where are the motor roots found?

A

To the anterior.

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52
Q

Where are the motor roots found?

A

To the anterior.

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53
Q

Are the spinal meninges continuous with the cranial meninges?

A

Yes

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54
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?

A

The postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.

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55
Q

How is the arrangement of the PSC described?

A

Somatotopic

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56
Q

What are the axons carried in the spinothalamic tract responsible for?

A

Pain, temperature and deep pressure.

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57
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex located?

A

The precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

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58
Q

What lies between the PMC and the PSC?

A

The central sulcus.

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59
Q

Is the corticospinal tract ascending or descending?

A

Descending

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60
Q

Is the spinothalamic tract ascending or descending?

A

Ascending

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61
Q

Is the DCML ascending or descending?

A

Ascending

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62
Q

Where does decussation occur in the corticospinal tract?

A

Directly after the medulla.

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63
Q

A spinal cord lesion that displays the crossover of motor and sensory fibres results in a condition called what?

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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64
Q

What is the primary function of the cerebellum?

A

To co-ordinate movement.

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65
Q

What is a common symptom of a cerebellar lesion?

A

Postural instability

Limb coordination will remain intact.

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66
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

To facilitate purposeful movement, inhibit unwanted movements and have a role in posture and muscle tone.

67
Q

Where are the basal ganglia located?

A

The base of each cerebral hemisphere.

68
Q

What are the 4 curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

Cervical lordosis
Thoracic kyphosis
Lumbar lordosis
Sacral kyphosis

69
Q

What is the gap in the vertebral body in which the spinal cord lies called?

A

The vertebral foramen.

70
Q

What muscle is responsible for lower back pain in most cases?

A

Strain of the erector spinae muscles.

71
Q

At which vertebral levels are no intervertebral discs found?

A

C1
C2
Sacrum (all fused)
Coccyx (all fused)

72
Q

What is the function of intervertebral discs?

A

To maintain structural strength, allowing for effective weight-bearing.

73
Q

Which vertebra is called the atlas?

A

C1

74
Q

Which vertebra is called the axis?

A

C2

75
Q

Where are intervertebral discs found?

A

The gaps between vertebral bodies.

76
Q

Through which opening does the cauda equina pass through?

A

Sacral canal

77
Q

What is the end of the spinal cord - prior to the cauda equina - called?

A

Conus medullaris

78
Q

What are the purpose of the 2 spinal cord enlargements?

A

To innervate the limbs.

79
Q

What surrounds the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?

A

3 meningeal layers

Epidural fat pad

80
Q

Where should any needle be inserted into the spinal column?

A

Below the L2 level.

81
Q

Should lumbar puncture be performed in cases of raised ICP?

A

No

82
Q

Injury to the epidural fat pad can cause the development of what?

A

An epidural haematoma.

83
Q

What function(s) do the spinal nerves carry out?

A

Somatic general sensory
Somatic motor
Sympathetic motor
Reflex

84
Q

What symptoms are linked to somatic general sensory issues?

A 
Pain
Paraesthesia
Numbness
Sensitivity
Temperature
85
Q

What symptoms are linked to somatic motor issues?

A

Cramp
Stiffness
Reduced power

86
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

A segment of skin supplied by a single pair of spinal nerves.

87
Q

Do posterior rami supply a larger area than anterior rami?

A

No, they are smaller, therefore supply a smaller area.

88
Q

What is a myotome?

A

A group of muscles supplied by a single spinal nerve.

89
Q

What is a reflex?

A

An involuntary response to a stimulus.

90
Q

What does an UMN lesion present with?

A

Spasticity

91
Q

What does a LMN lesion present with?

A

Flaccidity

92
Q

What is paralysis?

A

When a muscle is without a functioning motor nerve, meaning it cannot contract.

Upon examination, the muscle will have reduced tone.

93
Q

In spasticity. is the issue with the motor nerve?

A

No, the motor nerve is fine, the issue is with the descending controls.

The result is increased tone.

94
Q

What 3 cranial nerves are found at the ponto-medullary junction?

A

CNVI
CNVII
CNVIII

95
Q

What cranial nerves supply the ocular muscles?

A

LR6 SO4 AO3

96
Q

What are the roles carried out by CNV?

A

Somatosensation of the face
Proprioception of chewing
Motor control of the masticatory muscles

97
Q

What supplies parasympathetic innervation above the colic flexure?

A

Vagus nerve

98
Q

What supplies parasympathetic innervation below the colic flexure?

A

Sacral spinal nerves

99
Q

What might a medial brainstem lesion at the reticular formation (just above the pons) produce?

A

Irreversible coma

100
Q

In what order are cranial nerves numbered?

A

From anterior to posterior.

101
Q

Which foraminae does CNI pass through?

A

The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.

102
Q

Which foraminae does CNII pass through?

A

Optic canal

103
Q

Which foraminae does CNII, CNIV, CNV1 and CNVI pass through?

A

Superior orbital fissure

104
Q

Which foraminae does CNV2 pass through?

A

Foramen rotundum

105
Q

Which foraminae does CNV3 pass through?

A

Foramen ovale

106
Q

Which foraminae does CNVII and CNVIII pass through?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

107
Q

Which foraminae does CNIX, CNX and CNXI pass through?

A

Jugular foramen

108
Q

Which foraminae does CNXII pass through?

A

Hypoglossal canal

109
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve called, and what is their modality?

A

CNV1 > Ophthalmic > Sensory
CNV2 > Maxillary > Sensory
CNV3 > Mandibular > Sensory and motor

110
Q

What is the only cranial nerve that attaches to the pons?

A

The trigeminal nerve.

111
Q

What area of the face is innervated by CNV1?

A

Upper 1/3rd of the face.

Includes the root and tip of the nose.

112
Q

What area of the face is innervated by CNV2?

A

Middle 1/3rd of the face.

Includes the ala of the nose and the upper lip.

113
Q

What area of the face is innervated by CNV3?

A

Lower 1/3rd of the face.

114
Q

The temporal nerve supplies 3 pairs of ‘jaw-closing’ muscles, what are these?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid

115
Q

What is the ‘jaw-opening’ muscle and which nerve supplies it?

A

Lateral pterygoid

CNV3

116
Q

Other than lateral pterygoid, what muscles are supplied by CNV3?

A

Tensor veli palatini

Tensor tympani

117
Q

Does the facial nerve supply the parotid gland?

A

No, it only passes through here on the way to the geniculate ganglion.

118
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve?

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buckle
Mandibular
Cervical

Remember ‘To Zanzibar By Motor Car’.

119
Q

What 2 foramen does the facial canal connect?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

Stylomastoid foramen

120
Q

At which level does the vagus nerve pass through the diaphragm?

A

T10

121
Q

Unilateral deviation of the uvula suggests what?

A

One-sided pathology of the vagus nerve.

122
Q

Unilateral deviation of the tongue suggests what?

A

Unilateral pathology of the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII).

123
Q

What are the 3 auditory ossicles found in the middle ear?

A

Malleolus
Incus
Stapes

124
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex?

A

Directly below the lateral fissure.

They are bilateral structures, receiving from both ears.

125
Q

Damage to which 2 areas can lead to aphasia?

A

Wernicke’s area

Broca’s area

126
Q

What is involved in balance and co-ordination?

A

CNVIII
3 Semicircular canals
Vestibular nerve
Cochlear nerve

127
Q

Which gyrus is the lower visual field projected to?

A

That found superior to the calcarine sulcus.

128
Q

Which gyrus is the upper visual field projected to?

A

That found inferior to the calcarine sulcus.

129
Q

What is different about tracking movements to those of command?

A

Tracking movements are smooth, whilst movements of command are saccadic (jumpy).

130
Q

What do association fibres do?

A

Connect cortical layers of the same hemisphere.

131
Q

What are the 5 layers of the scalp?

A 
Skin
Connective tissue
Aponeurosis
Loose connective tissue
Pericranium

Remember ‘SCALP’.

132
Q

In which layer are the arteries of the scalp found?

A

Connective tissue layer.

133
Q

What type of joint are the sutures of the skull?

A

Fibrous

134
Q

What is the pterion?

A

An ‘H’ shaped suture, joining together 4 bones.

135
Q

Which 4 bones are joined at the pterion?

A

Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Sphenoid

136
Q

Which artery lies deep to the pterion?

A

The middle meningeal artery.

137
Q

At which point does the falx cerebri attach to the ethmoid bone?

A

The crista galli.

138
Q

What passes through the cribriform plate?

A

The olfactory nerves en route to the nasal cavity.

139
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dura mater called?

A

Periosteal layer

Meningeal layer

140
Q

Are both layers of the dura mater found surrounding the spinal cord?

A

No, only the meningeal layer lines the spinal cord.

141
Q

Which nerve innervates the dura mater?

A

The trigeminal nerve (CNV).

142
Q

The tentorium cerebelli is an area of dura mater that lies above which part of the brain?

A

The cerebellum.

143
Q

The diaphragm sellae is an area of dura mater that lies above which structure?

A

The pituitary gland.

144
Q

What does the falx cerebri separate?

A

The 2 hemispheres of the brain.

It is a midline structure.

145
Q

Through which vessels does venous blood leave the brain?

A

The dural venous sinuses.

146
Q

Where is the danger triangle of the face found?

A

From the nose root to the upper lip.

147
Q

Why is the danger triangle of the face clinically significant?

A

The veins connecting this area are linked to the dural venous sinuses, meaning it provides a route for any potential infection to reach the brain.

148
Q

What are the 3 branches of the ICA?

A

Ophthalmic artery
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery

149
Q

When the volume of CSF within the cranial cavity increases, what results?

A

Hydrocephalus

150
Q

In which 2 ways can hydrocephalus present?

A

If the rate of CSF production is too much

If there is blockage of CSF drainage

151
Q

Is hydrocephalus an example of a SOL?

A

Yes

152
Q

How would hydrocephalus be diagnosed in adults?

A

MRI will show an increased size of ventricles.

153
Q

How does hydrocephalus present in kids?

A

There will be expansion of the head.

This is possible due to fusion of the bones of the skull not yet occurring.

154
Q

How would you treat hydrocephalus?

A

A ventriculo-peritoneal shunt.

This shifts fluid out of the skull and into the peritoneum (where it can be reabsorbed).

155
Q

Is bleeding within the cranial cavity classed as a SOL?

A

Yes

156
Q

What types of haemorrhage can occur within the brain?

A

Extradural
Subdural
Subarachnoid

157
Q

What is the 2 main groups of herniation?

A

Supratentorial
Infratentorial

Relates to the tentorium cerebelli.

158
Q

What are the different forms of supratentorial herniation?

A

Cingulate/subfalcine
Central
Uncal
Transcalvarial

159
Q

What is a sign of supratentorial herniation?

A

A fixed ipsilateral dilated pupil.

Results from compression of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII).

160
Q

What foramen may be involved in an infratentorial herniation?

A

The foramen magnum.

161
Q

What is the function of the extrinsic back muscles?

A

They move the upper limb.

162
Q

What are the 2 groups of intrinsic back muscles?

A

Erector spinae

Transversospinalis

163
Q

What is most commonly the first palpable vertebra?

A

C7

164
Q

Rupture of the circle of Willis will lead to?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Neurology (22 decks)

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