Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ESSENTIAL > Anatomic Sciences > Flashcards

Anatomic Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Germ layer of parotid gland

A

ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Germ layer of sublingual and submandibular salivary glands derived from

A

endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Developmental defect derviced from first branchial arch

A

mandibulofacial dysostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

A

congenital malformation caused by underdevelopment of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches leading to absence or hypoplasia of the parathyroid glands.

Pts usu. have congenital heart defects and comprised immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hypoplasia

A

underdevelopment of a tissue or organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

first endocrine gland to appear in embryonic dev. and develops from endoerm invaded by mesenchymal cells

A

thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary palate formation or median palatal process:

A

intermaxillary segment arises as a result of fusion of the two medial nasal processes + frontonasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secondary palate formation or lateral palatal process:

A

maxillary process give rise to two palatal shelves.

Give rise to posterior 2/3 of hard palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuroectoderm (Neural Tube) Derivatives

A 
CNS
Astrocytes
Neurophypophysis
Pineal gland
Retina and optic nerve
Oligodendrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neural Crest Cell Derivatives

A 
Meninges
Adrenal medulla
Pigment cells
Pharyngeal arch carilage
ENdocardial cushions
Ganglia
Schwann cells 
Parafollicular C cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ectoderm

A 
Nails
Inner ear
Outer ear
lens of eye
epidermis
adenohypophysis
hair
enamel of teeth
mammary glands
anal canal below pecinate line
parotid gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mesoderm derivatives

A 
Heart
Blood
Dermis
Muscles
Vessels
Adrenal cortex
Dura mater
bone
spleen 
kidney and ureter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Endodermal derivatives

A 
GI tract: foregut, midgut, hindgut
Lung
Liver
Pancreas
Thymus
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Submandibular and sublingual glands
Middle ear 
Auditory tube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Kartagener syndrome

A

Immotile cilia syndrome.

Characterized by recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Golgi apparatus function is two-fold:

A
  1. modification of lipids and proteins–glycoproteins are assembled for extracellular use.
  2. storage and packaging of materials that will be exported from the cell. –“shipping department”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

O-linked glycosylations occur in

A

golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

N-linked glycosylations occur in

A

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lysosomes contain a wide variety of?

A

glycoprotein hydrolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

axoneme

A

core scaffold of euk. cilia and flagella, made from MT.
Serves as the “skeleton”of these organelles.
“9+2” arrangement= 9 pairs of doublet MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cell structures that lack membranes

A

ribosomes
cytoskeleton
nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cell structures resp. for steroid hormones

A

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cell structures playing essential role in formation of ribosomes

A

Nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Kupffer

A

specialized macrophage located in the liver. Line the sinusoids and cunction to remove bacteria and toxins that have entered blood through intestinal capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

osteoclasts

A

specialized macrophage located in the bone; bone reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

microglial

A

specialized macrophages located in the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

fibroblast produces

A

collagen and reticular fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Leydig produces

A

testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sertoli produces

A

testicular fluid, androgen binding proteins (ABPs)and hormones like inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tooth germ (3)

A

enamel organ
dental papilla
dental follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

enamel organ–>_____—> root form

A

Hertwig’s rooth sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

enamel organ—>inner enamel epithelium–>____—>_____

A

ameloblasts—>enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dental papilla—>_____—–>_____

A

undifferentiated mesenchymal cells fibroblasts—>pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

dental follicle —->(3)

A

cementoblasts
fibroblasts—>PDL
osteoblasts–>alveolar bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Protein factories of the cell

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

site of rRNA synthesis

A

nuceolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The cytoplasm of osteoblasts appears to be basophilic via normal H&E stain due to the presence of large amounts of

A

Rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Stained by basic dye (will appear blue or purple) is considered _____. E.g.?

A

basophilic; nuclues and rough ER due to high DNA/RNA content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acidophilic is stained by acidic dye (red or pink) e.g.?

A

mitochondria, lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mitosis:
Requires _1__ division to complete the process.
Occurs in ___2___cells
The daughter cells have the __3__genetic information as the parent cell.
Crossing over btw c___4___occur

A
  1. one
  2. all somatic cells
  3. same (2n to 2n)
  4. does not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Meiosis:
Requires___1___divisions to complete the process
Occurs in ___2__
The daughter cells have ___3__the number of c as the parent cells
The daughter cells are genetically _4__ from the parent cell
Crossing over btw c ___ occur

A
  1. two
  2. germ cells only
  3. half (2n to n)
  4. different
  5. does
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Simple Squamous Epi function? e.g.?

A

Function in gas exchange, lines blood vessels and various membranes
aorta
alveoli in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Simple cuboidal epi function? e.g.?

A

carries on secretion and absorption
Collecting ducts, proximal, distal tubules of the kidneys
thyroid follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Simple columnar epi function?e.g?

A

Protection, secretion and absorption
small and large intestine, gallbladder, stomach
uterine epithelium
salivary gland striated ducts
internal lining of the majority of the tubular GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stratified squamous epi function? e.g.?

A

Protects underlying cells from environmental fluctuations
epidermis of the skin (keratinized)
esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stratified cuboidal epi e.g.?

A

Ducts of the sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Stratified columnar epi e.g.?

can have microvilli

A

large ducts of salivary glands

male urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epi e.g.

can have cilia and microvilli

A

upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

transitional epi function and e.g.?

A

Specialized to undergo distension; helps prevent urinary fluids from diffusing outwards
Bladder
Ureter
Parts of male reproductive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 layers of skin:

A

epidermis-avascular-5 layers

dermis-blood vessels provide nutrients to epidermis. Includes appendages of skin.

hypodermis/subdermis-subcutaneous fatty tissue-artery, vein, sweat gland, pressure receptor. Loose (areolar) CT and adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

5 layers of epidermis outer to inner

A

Stratum corneum-dead cells filled with keratin continuously shed and replaced. e.g. nails
Stratum lucidum-only in thick skin of palms and soles
Stratum granulosum-basophilic keratohyalin granules
Stratum spinosum-Dendritic cell (langerhans cells)
Stratum basale-cuboidal to columnra, site of conintuous cellular reproduction. Melanocytes . Least differentiated cells.
Bad Sprinters Get Leg Cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dermis has what CT? and what else

A

Dense irregular CT

Sensory nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tactile cells/Merkel cells (sense of light touch discrimination of shapes and textures) in what epidermis layer

A

stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dermis 2 layers

A

Papillary- areolar CT-Loose CT-thin and less fibrous

Reticular layer-dense irregular CT-thick and fibrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 types of stratified squamous epi found in oral cavity

A

nonkeratinized > parakeratinized > orthokeratinized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

nonkeratinized

A

selective barrier; acts as a cushion

ass. with lining mucosa (soft palate, buccal and labial mucosa, ventral surface of tongue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

orthokeratinized

A

masticatory mucosa (hard palate, attached gingiva, dorsal surface of tongue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

parakeratinized

A

masticatory mucosa

contain keratin and nuclei (unlike orthokeratinized)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

2 layers of BM

A

basal layer

reticular lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Collagen Type I

A

bONE

Principal fiber of the PDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Collagen Type II

A

carTWOilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Collagen Type III

A

reTHREEicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Collagen Type IV

A

Basement membrane (think floor-four)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

BM 2 layers

A
  1. basal lamina-includes lamina lucida and densa

2. reticular lamina-collagen type III and reticular fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cartilage is composed of cells called___ that are dispersed in a firm, gel-like groud substance called___.

A

chondrocytes (in depressions in the matrix called lacunae); matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cartilage does or does not have blood vessels?

A

No blood vessels; gets its nutrients and blood supply through the perichondrium (exception articular cartilage at the synovial join)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

Hyaline
Fibrocartilage
Elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A

In epiphyseal plates, covers the articular surfaces of synovial joints.
Incapable of repair when fractured.

Collagen type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

Found in disc within joints (e.g. TMJ, intervertebral discs, knee joint) and articular surfaces of the clavicle and mandible.

Collagen Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Elastic cartilage

A

Very flexible and found in auricle of ear, external auditory meatus, auditory tube, epiglottis.

Collagen Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The matrix is mainly composed of proteoglycans, which consist of ?

A

glycosaminoglycans and core protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most common types of glycosaminoglycans are

A

chondroitin sulfate

keratan sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Endochondral ossification- primary ossification responsible for

A

diaphyses of long bones, short bones, irregular bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Endochondral ossification-secondary ossification responsible for

A

epiphyses of long bones and extremities of irregular and flat bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Metaphysis separates

A

diaphyses and epiphyses of long bones until adulthood, when they fuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Heterotopic ossification

A

oformation of bone outside the skeleton.

Disease: myositis ossificans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

occurs in long bones, such as limbs; the bone is formed from cartilage.
Increases bone length by continued intersitital growth of cartilage which is then replaced by bone.
e.g. mandible- condyles are formed by endo oss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

mainly occurs during formation of flat bones of the skull; bone is formed from mesenchyme tissue

e.g. maxilla, frontal bone, clavicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

collagen fibers provide

A

tensiile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ground substance provide

A

compressive strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hyaline cartilage is in fetal skeleton. In adults, remnants are:

A

articular cartilage-in moveable joints
costal cariltage-sternal ends of the ribs
respiratory carilages-movable external nose and septum, larynx, trachea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Aponeuroses

A

are flat fibrous sheets or expanded broad tendons that attach to muscles and serve as the means of origin or insertion of flat muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Fascia secures

A

muscle to a tendon

83
Q

Sharpey fibers

A

when a tendon or ligament is attached to the bone, the attaching fibers are called sharpey fibers.

84
Q

Essential components of CT

A

Ground substance (proteoglycans-with GAGS and protein core)
fibers
cells

85
Q

CT 2 types

A

Loose

Dense-regular and irregular

86
Q

Loose CT (areolar)

A

irregular or loose arrangements and few fibers.

In papillary dermis

87
Q

Dense regular CT

A

regular arrangements, tightly packed, strong, parallel collagen fibers.
e.g. tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, fascia, cornea

88
Q

Dense irregular CT

A

tightly packed, strong collagen fibers arranged in an inconsistent or irregular pattern.

Found in dermis (reticular layer), submucosa of GI tract, organ capsules, periosteum

89
Q

Desmosomes aka anchoring junction

A

fasten cells together into strong sheets and attach muscle cells to each other in a muscle. Leave a space separating the plasma membranes

90
Q

Hemidesmosome

A

involves attachment of a cell to an adjacent noncellular surface.

e.g. gingival epithelium or junctional epithelium

91
Q

Tight junctions aka zonula occludens aka occluding junctions

A

plasma membranes of neighboring cells are tightly pressed against each other, this forms a continuous seal around the seal. Prevents leakage.

92
Q

Gap junctions aka communicating junctions

A

Small channels that form direct intercellular connections through which small molecules and ions can flow. Each gap junction is formed by transmembrane proteins called connexins.

93
Q

Adherens junction aka zonula adherens

A

Provide strong mechanical attachments between adjacent cells. Composed of cadherins (connected to actin filaments). Serve as a bridge connecting actin cytoskeleton of neighboring cells through direct interaction.

94
Q

Cartilage can grow in 2 ways

A
  1. interstitial growth

2. appositional growth

95
Q

interstitial growth

A

growth from deep within the tissue by mitosis of each chondrocyte

96
Q

appositional growth

A

layered growth on the outside of tissue from the outer layer of chondroblasts within perichondrium.

Increases bone girth by apposition of new bone subperiosteally.

97
Q

Meissner corpuscle

A

tactile sensation

98
Q

Ruffini corpuscle

A

tactile senation. e.g. skin stretch

99
Q

pacinian corpuscle

A

around nerve to reduce sensitivity

100
Q

Superior cervical ganglion stretches from

A

C1 to C2/C3

101
Q

Superior cervical ganglion para or sym response

A

sympathetic

102
Q

middle cervical ganglion located level of

A

the cricoid cartilage

103
Q

inferior cervical gangion occurs at the

A

C7 vertebral level.

104
Q

mesencephalic nucleus function

A

proprioception of the face (feeling of position of the muscles)

105
Q

Main sensory nucleus aka chief nucleus aka pontine nucleus

A

discriminative touch of the face

106
Q

Spinal nucleus

A

pain/temperature of the face

107
Q

motor nucleus

A

supplies muscles of the 1st branchial arch

108
Q

2 types of cementum

A

Acellular (primary cementum)

Cellular (secondary cementum)

109
Q

Acellular cementum

A 
formed at slow rate
no embedded cemtocytes
usu. at coronal 2/3
thinnest at CEJ
Sharpey fiber
110
Q

Cellular cementum

A

covers acellular cementum
faster rate
embedded cementoblasts
us. apical 1/3

111
Q

Dental papilla–>

A

dentin by odontoblasts and pulp tissue

112
Q

dental sac –>

A

cementum by cementoblasts

113
Q

mesoderm of tooth–>

A

alveolar bone by osteoclasts

114
Q

Enamel germ layer?

A

ectodermal

115
Q

Enamel organic matrix

A

mainly of protein, which is rich in proline

116
Q

enamel tufts

A

hypocalcified structures of enamel rods from DEJ

117
Q

enamel spindles

A

short dentinal tubules near DEJ.

118
Q

enamel lamellae

A

partially calcified vertical defects

119
Q

gnarled enamel

A

over the cusps of teeth enamel rods appear twisted around each other in complex arrangement.

120
Q

Structure resp. for root development

A

cervical loop

121
Q

Hertwig sheath derived from

A

inner and outer enamel epithelium of the enamel organ.

122
Q

Outer enamel epi

A

forms periphery of enamel organ.

Outlines shape of the future developing enamel organ

123
Q

Inner enamel epithelium

A

Differentiates into ameloblasts that secrete enamel

124
Q

stratum intermedium

A

essential to enamel formation (prepares nutrients for the ameloblasts)

125
Q

Stellate reticulum

A

Star-shaped cells

Contains intercellular fluid

126
Q

the epithelial rests of malassez are remnants of

A

hertwig epithelial root sheath

127
Q

purpose of hertwig epithelial root sheath is to

A

shape the root and induce dentin formation.

128
Q

Hertwig epithelial root sheath is characterized by

A

formation of cell rests (rests of malassez)

absence of stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium

129
Q

Dentin matrix composed of

A

Collagen Type I
DMP
Phosphophoryn

130
Q

transverse temporal gyrus

A

primary auditory cortex

131
Q

cingulate gyrus

A

emotional processing/memory

132
Q

Uncus

A

primary olfactory cortex (smell)

133
Q

Precentral gyrus

A

conscious motor control

134
Q

H zone

A

thick filaments only

135
Q

A zone

A

thick and think filaments overlap

136
Q

I band

A

thin filaments

137
Q

epithalamaus

A

contains pineal gland which secretes melatonin and the choroid plexus which forms CSF

138
Q

thin filaments

A

troponin, tropomyosin, actin

139
Q

thick filaments

A

light and heavy meromyosin

140
Q

temporomandibular ligament

A

runs down and back of oblique direction limiting degree of jaw opening and initiates translation of the condyle down the aritcular eminence.

141
Q

lymph drainage-middle part of the tongue

A

deep cervical chain lymph nodes

142
Q

lymph drainage-posterior part of the tongue

A

retropharyngeal lymph node

143
Q

Cervical plexus

A

C1-C4
Provides cutaneous innervation to skin of neck, shoulder, upper anterior chest wall.
Have 3 nerve branches-anasa cervicalis, phrinic nerve, great auricular nerve

144
Q

Ansa cervicalis

A

C1-C3

Supplies infrahyoid muscles except thyrohoid which is supplied by by C1 fibers which run with CN XII

145
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

C3-C5

supplies the diaphragm

146
Q

Great auricular nerve

A

C2 and C3

Provides sensory innervation for skin over parotid gland and mastoid process, and both surfaces of outer ear.

147
Q

Brachial plexus

A

C5-C8 and T1
formed in posteror triangle of neck
Has 3 cords: posterior, lateral, medial

148
Q

Lumbar plexus

A

L1-L4
formed in psoas major muscle, the lumbar plexus supplies lower abdomen and parts of the lower limb.
Main branches are femoral and obturator nerves

149
Q

Sacral plexus

A

L4-L5 and S1-S4
Supplies lower back, pelvis, parts of thigh, leg and food.
Main branch is sciatic.

150
Q

Sensory nerve fibers in dental pulp, smallest to largest dameter

A

C-fibers, A-delta, A-beta fibers

151
Q

A-delta fibers

A

myelinated
“first pain signal”
pain to temperature
small diameter

152
Q

C-(nerve)fibers

A 
unmyelinated
"second pain"
pain, temperature, itch
polynodal because respond to several stimuli such as muchanical, chemical or thermal stimulation to pulp.
small diameter
153
Q

Parietal lobe ass. with processing

A

tacile sensory information such as pressure, touch, pain

intelligence
language
reading
sensation

154
Q

Frontal lob ass. with

A 
thinking
behaviour
intelligence
memory 
movement
155
Q

Temporal lobe ass with

A

behaviour
hearing speech
vision
memory

156
Q

Occipital lobe ass. with

A

vision

157
Q

Dendrites send an impulse where?

A

toward the cell body

158
Q

Axons send the impulse where?

A

away from cell body

159
Q

diencephalon includes what 2 structures

A

thalamus

hypothalamus

160
Q

gray matter

A

unmyelinated nerve cell bodies

161
Q

white matter

A

myelinated nerve fibers

162
Q

ventricles

A

spaces filled with CSF

163
Q

Astrocyte

A

provide structural supposrt

164
Q

PNS cell types

A

satellite cells-support cell bodies

Schwann cells-form myelin

165
Q

Celiac trunk branches into

A

splenic
L gastic
common hepatic

166
Q

Pernicious anemia due to

A

body can’t absorb Vitamin B12 due to weakened stomach lining or autoimmune disease.

167
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Damage to bone marrow, can’t make enough new blood cells.

168
Q

Hemolytic anemia

A

due to hemolysis, abnormal breakdown of RBC>

169
Q

In adrenergic receptors, most postganglionic sympathic synapses have what as NT?

A

NE

Everything else Ach

170
Q

The esophagus _____ the diaphragm, while the aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct _____to it.

A

passes through; pass posterior

171
Q

External intercostal muscles and subcostal muscles

A

raise the ribs during inspiration.

172
Q

Internal intercostal muscles

A

depress the ribs during expiration.

Mainly active during forced respiration.

173
Q

Above superior pharyngeal constrictor

A

auditory tube
levator palatini muscle
ascending palatine artery

174
Q

Between superior and middle constrictors

A

stylopharyngeus muscle
glossopharyngeal nerve
stylohyoid ligament
SS9

175
Q

Between middle and inferior constrictors

A

Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

superior laryngeal artery

176
Q

Below inferior constrictor

A

reccurent laryngeal nerve

inferior laryngeal artery

177
Q

Right lateral excursive movements involves what muscle as prime mover?

A

left lateral pterygoid

178
Q

With condylar neck fracture, muscle contractions might result in displacement of the injured condyle into the

A

infratemporal fossa

179
Q

Filiform

A 
Most numerous 
"V" shapedparalleling sulcus terminalis on ant. 2/3
absence of taste buds 
increased keratinization
Serve to grip food.

Trick: I ain’t got no taste for phili

180
Q

Fungiform

A

mushroom/knob-shaped
tip and sides of tongue
CN VII

181
Q

Circumvallate

A

Largest but fest in number (7-12)
inversited V shape
ass. with ducts of Von Ebner glands
CN IX

182
Q

Foliate

A

lateral margins as 2-3 vertical folds
Inn. by CN 7 and 9

Trick: exfoliate sides of body

183
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

esophageal webs, glossitis, iron deficiency anemia.

Usu. in postmenopausal women.

184
Q

Intramembranous grows by

A

appositional growth only
In flat bones of skill, mx, clavicles.
does not require the existence of a cartilage bone model

185
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

began as hyaline cartilage before it ossifies.
Bones at base of the skill, condyles, mn, short and long bones
both appositional and intersitital growth.

186
Q

Osteoblasts derived from

A

fibroblastarthros

187
Q

Osteoclast derived from

A

monocytes and mactophages

188
Q

Osteoid vs. bone

A

Osteoid does not have mineralized matrix and has more water content.

189
Q

diarthroses

A

freely (synoval joint)

e.g. tmj

190
Q

synathrosis

A

immovable joint (fibrous joint)

ex. gomphosis-bind teeth to bony sockets, sutures of the skull, syndesmoses (btw radius and ulna).

191
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable (cartilaginous joint)

e.g. pubic symphysis
synchondrosis-united by hyaline and permit no movement but growth in length of bone=epiphyseal cartilage eplate. sternum
symphyses-joined by plated of fibrocarilage and slighly movable-pubic symphysis and intervertebral disc.

192
Q

Nodding yes using what joint

A

atlanto-occipital joint

193
Q

Nodding no using what joint

A

atlantoaxial joint

194
Q

2 types of muscle fibers

A

extrafusal fibers

intrafusal fibers

195
Q

2 types of intrafusal fibers

A

Nuclear bag fibers: detect fast dynamic changes, innervated by group la afferents, larger than nuclear chain, nuclei in a central “bag” region

Nuclear chain fibers-detet static changes, innervated by slower group II afferents, smaller and more numerous than bag fibers and have nuclei arranged in rows.

196
Q

trachea histology

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium and mucus-secreting goblet cells.

197
Q

Type I pneumocytes

A

gas exchange in alveoli

198
Q

Type II pneumocytes

A

production and section of surfactant

199
Q

alveolar macrphages

A

or dust cells, type of macrophags found in pulmonary alveolus.

200
Q

plicae circulares aka valves of Kerckring found in

A

jejunum

201
Q

Foregut

A

anything above proximal duodemun and includes spleen
arterial supply:celiac trunk
para inn: vagus
venous drainage: hepatic portal system

202
Q

Midgut

A

all small intestine, some of colon
arterial supply: superior mesenteric artery
venous drainage: hepatic portal system
para inn: vagus

203
Q

Hindgut

A

colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
arterial supply: inferior mesenteric artery
venous drainage: hepatic portal system
para inn: S2-S4

ESSENTIAL (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions