Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RRPA Anatomy II > Anatomic/Clinical Correlations Making Anatomy Practical > Flashcards

Anatomic/Clinical Correlations Making Anatomy Practical Flashcards

1
Q

What does SCALP stand for?

A

Skin

Connective Tissue (Dense)

Aponeurotic Layer

Loose connective tissue

Periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Aponeurotic Layer (Galea Aponeurotica)?

A
  • Dense fibrous tissue that goes from the Frontalis m. to the Occipitalis m (Occipitofrontalis)
  • Move scalp, wrinkle forehead, raise eyebrows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Frontalis m innervated by?

A

Temporal branches of the Facial n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Occipitalis m innervated by?

A

Posterior Auricular branches of the Facial n (NOT part of To Zanzibar by Motor Car)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

We learned the mneumonic “To Zanzibar By Motor Car” to remember the branches of the Facial n. What are the branches?

A

Temporal

Zygomatic

Buccal

Mandibular

Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where do infections spread in the scalp?

A

Loose connective tissue (where scalp moves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The first 3 layers of the scalp are tightly held together forming a unit called?

A

Scalp proper (what is “scalped”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The skin and dense connective tissue are very ___, so there is a great deal of bleeding

A

Vascular

(dense CT keeps vessels open)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vascularity to the Scalp is supplied by what arteries?

A
  • Internal Carotid Artery
    • Opthlamic > Supratrochlear & Supraorbital
  • External Carotid Artery
    • Superficial Temporal, Posterior Auricular, Occipital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the dividing line of sensory innervation of the scalp?

A

Ears and Vertex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What nerves are anterior to the dividing sensory line of the scalp?

A

Cranial Nerves

(Trigeminal - Supratrochlear, Supraorbital, Zygomaticotemporal, Auriculotemporal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What nerves are posterior to the dividing sensory line of the scalp?

A

Cervical Nerves

  • C2 “Sleep Area” Greater auricular n, Greater & Lesser Occipital nn
  • C3 - Third Occipital n
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Motor innervation to the scalp is via what nerve?

A

Facial N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Lymphatic System mainly collects fluid lost from where?

A
  • Vascular capillary beds during nutrient exchange processes
  • Drainage of body organs & structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In Small Bowel, certain fats are absorbed and processed by the intestinal epithelium and are formed into ___ that flow into lymphatic drainage of bowel

A

chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lymphatic flow occurs secondary to?

A

Motion of adjacent structures

*lymph drainage areas are specific to certain anatomic locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lymph: Right and Left Jugular trunks (superficial and deep) drain into what structures?

A

Head and Neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lymph: Right and Left Subclavian trunks drain what regions?

A
  • Upper limbs
  • Superficial regions of the throacic & upper abdominal wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lymph: Right and Left Bronchomediastinal trunks drain what structures?

A
  • Lungs
  • Bronchi
  • Mediastinal structures
  • Thoracic wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lymph: The Thoracic duct drains what regions?

A
  • Lower limbs
  • Abd walls & viscera
  • Pelvic walls & viscera
  • Thoracic wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lymph Drainage of Head & Neck: the Jugulodigastric nodes are in the ___ area and the Jugulo-omohyoid nodes are in the ___ area

A

Tonsillar

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many lymph nodes drain the Upper Limb and adjacent trunk, neck, and anterolateral abd wall?

A

23-30 lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What lymph nodes drain all the others in the Upper Limb region?

A

Apical nodes

  • These join the Subclavian trunks that drain into the R Subclavian V on R and Thoracic Duct on L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lymph: Intrathoracic Drainage goes into the ___ duct on the Left and ___ on the Right

A

Thoracic

Subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lymph: What drains the abd viscera, walls, pelvis, perineum, & lower limbs?

A

Cisterna Chyli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lymph: What does the Thoracic duct drain?

A
  • Cisterna Chyli
  • L Jugular Trunk (Head & Neck)
  • L Subclavian Trunk (L Upper Limb)
  • Thoracic wall
  • Posterior mediastinum & diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lymph drainage of the breast is 75% to what nodes?

A

Axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lymph: Deep Pelvic structures drain into?

A

Internal & External Iliac chains

*Deep Perineal drain into Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lymph: Superficial Perineal structures (Penis, Scrotum, Clitoris, Labia majora) drain into the?

A

Superficial Inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lymph: Superficial Perineal structures (Glans penis/clitoris, Labia minora, inferior Vagina) drain into the?

A

Deep inguinal nodes & External Iliac chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The Ovaries, related Uterine structures, and Testes (accompany gonadal arteries) drain into the?

A

Lateral and Pre-Aortic nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lymph: Where do the lower extremities and Perineal structures drain into?

A

Superficial & Deep Inguinal Nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Greater Saphenous V (thigh and medial leg) joins the ___ ___ V

A

Common Femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The Lesser Saphenous V (posterior leg) joins the ___ V

A

Popliteal V (in popliteal fossa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The Lateral Cutaneous V of the thigh joins the ___ ___ V

A

Greater Saphenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the Deep Veins of the Lower Extremity?

A
  • Common Femoral
  • “Superficial” Femoral
  • Profunda Femoris (Deep Femoral)
  • Popliteal
    • Posterior Tibilal - posterior to tibia
    • Anterior Tibial - anterior to tibia
    • Peroneal (Fibular) - posterior to fibula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In Varicose Veins what does normal flow depend on?

A

Competent valves in both the Superficial and Deep systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In Varicose Veins what contributes to venous varicosities in the Superficial Venous system?

A

Valvular incompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In Vericose Veins what can damage valves?

A

Deep venous thrombosis (DVT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What sx can occur with Varicose Veins?

A
  • Brown pigmentation (RBC breakdown)
  • Venous eczema
  • Stasis dermatitis
  • Skin ulceration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad?

A
  1. Endothelial injury
  2. Stasis
  3. Hyper-coagulability
42
Q

Lack of compressability of veins on US should make you think of what Dx?

43
Q

Sensory Innervation of the Outer and Deep Auricle of the ear?

A
  • Outer Auricle - V3 (Auriculotemporal), C2, C3 (Lesser Occipital, Great Auricular)
  • Deep Auricle - Facial VII, Vagus X
44
Q

What nerve supplies the majority sensory innervation to the External Auditory Canal (Meatus)?

A
  • Trigeminal V3 (Auriculotemporal) &
  • Vagus X (Auricular branch - Arnold’s or Alderman’s n)
  • Minor sensory = Facial VII
45
Q

What supplies sensory innervation to the External surface of the skin of the Middle Ear?

A
  • Trigeminal V
  • Facial VII
  • Vagus X
46
Q

The Middle Ear communicates with the ___ ___ ___ and the Nasopharynx (Pharyngotympanic tube)

A

Mastoid Air Cells

47
Q

What is the relationship of the Facial n and Chorda Tympani?

A
  • Medially Tympanic Plexus is part of IX
  • Greater Petrosal n - PS to all glands above the oral fissure (lacrimal, mucous, salivary)
48
Q

Extensive anastomoses create what plexus in the nasal cavity?

A

Kiesselbach’s Plexus (medial wall - Septum)

49
Q

Epistaxis - other arterial supply

A
  • Internal Carotid Artery
    • Posterior, Anterior Ethmoid (branches of Ophthalmic)
  • External Carotid Artery
    • Sphenopalatine
    • Greater Palatine
    • Superior Labial
    • Lateral nasal
50
Q

Epistaxis: Venous supply - ___ ___ are routes of infection intracranially

A

Emissary Veins

51
Q

What is the major artery of epistaxis?

A

Sphenopalatine!

52
Q

“Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students” is to help remember the branches of the External Carotid Artery. What are they?

A

Superior thyroid

Ascending pharyngeal

Lingual

Facial

Occipital

Posterior auricular

Maxillary

Superficial Temporal

53
Q

What are some major indications for a Lumbar Puncture/Spinal Tap?

A

Eval CSF for:

  • Microbiological (infx)
  • Cytological (CA)
  • Biochemical
  • CSF pressure status
    • Meningitis - esp infants’ w/u for fever
    • Inflamm (MS, Guillain-Barre, Sarcoid)
    • Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
    • Epilepsy
    • Leptomeningeal carcinoma
  • Myelography (introduce contrast media)
54
Q

Local and spinal anaesthetics can be injected into what spaces to anaesthetize the lumbar or sacral roots?

A

Extradural or Subarachnoid spaces

*pts are placed erect afterwards

55
Q

What is a “Blood Patch”?

A

A small amount of blood is placed in the epidural area for Spinal Headache 2/2 to Lumbar Puncture

56
Q

Contraindications for a LP/Spinal Tap

A
  • Inc intracranial pressure (may cause herniation of brain stem into Foramen Magnum & death)
  • Coagulopathy
  • Dec Platelets
  • Kyphoscoliosis (technically difficult, need experienced hand)
57
Q

What imaging is used to determine if there is a significant intracranial mass lesion or cerebral edema that could be causing inc CSF pressure?

58
Q

What should you do if an elevated CSF pressure is found (2/2 mass lesions, cerebral edema, infx, tumor infiltration, benign intracranial HTN)?

A

Only the smallest amount of CSF should be drawn off for analysis

*Caveat: do not attempt to reduce CSF pressure by letting out CSF through a spinal tap - sudden downward flow of released fluid pulls brainstem into foramen magnum causing death

59
Q

T/F: A Lumbar Puncture can be used under certain circumstances to relieve increased intracranial pressure

A

True (Benign Intracranial HTN - Pseudotumor cerebri)

60
Q

At what level do you access the Spinal Canal for a LP?

61
Q

What level is the Conus Medullaris in adults?

62
Q

In infants the Conus Medullaris can be much lower than in adults - it can be as low as what level?

63
Q

What structures of the spine does the needle for a LP pass through?

A

Between adjacent vertebral spinous processes through the supraspinatous & interspinous ligaments, then past the Ligamenta flava

64
Q

What key equipment is in a Lumbar Puncture kit?

A

Atraumatic needle and stylus (piece of metal inside needle to make it solid)

65
Q

What position is a patient usually placed in for a Lumbar Puncture?

A

Horizontal decubitus position, body flexed in fetal position, spine horizontal to the floor

66
Q

When performing a LP the needle/stylus should be kept horizontal and directed where?

A

Between the intraspinous spaces (parallel to spinal process - angle upwards NOT straight in)

67
Q

What color is normal CSF?

A

Crystal clear

68
Q

What is the normal pressure of CSF?

A

80-180 mm H2O

*Elevated >220 (tumors, meningitis)

69
Q

LP Considerations: What do Polymorphonuclear leukocytes suggest?

A

Meningitis with bacteria or viral origin or vasculitis

70
Q

LP Considerations: Xanthochromic fluid suggests?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage within the last several days or weeks

71
Q

LP Considerations: High protein in CSF suggests?

A
  • Infx
  • Tumor
  • Demyelinating polyneuropathies
  • Spinal block above the spinal tap
72
Q

LP Considerations: Bright green CSF suggests?

A

Pseudomonal meningitis

73
Q

CSF Glucose levels should be about ___ percent of blood glucose levels

74
Q

What does a low glucose level in CSF suggest?

A
  • Bacterial infx
  • Infiltrative tumors
  • Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis
75
Q

What are complications of a LP?

A
  • Traumatic tap: blood
  • Spinal HA - pulsatile HA exacerbated by standing & valsalva maneuvers, eased by laying down
  • Nerve root trauma
  • CNS infx in immunocompromised pts
  • Subdural Hematomas
  • Discitis, venous air introduction, CN 4 & 6 palsies
76
Q

Central or paracentral Herniated Discs can impinge on the ___ ___ and give a false impression of where the herniation may be

A

Cauda Equina

*ie a L3-4 central disc can encroach on the L4 root

77
Q

A ___ ___ disc at a given disc level will most often encroach on the nerve root emerging at that level

A

Lateral herniated

*ie a L3-4 lateral disc will encroach on the L3 root

78
Q

The nerve roots in the lumbar spine emerge from the spinal canal ___ their pedicle

79
Q

Nerve roots in the Lumbar Canal can be centrally located and encroached upon by what?

A

Herniated Discs

80
Q

Knee Jerk Reflex dermatome

A

L2-4 (Quadriceps)

81
Q

Ankle Jerk Reflex dermatome

A

S1 (Gastrocnemius)

82
Q

Foot Drop dermatome

83
Q

What is the French System for catheter size?

A
  • The higher the number, the thicker the catheter
    • Fr = 3x outside Diameter in mm
  • Used for internal caths, angiographic, and urinary
84
Q

Examples of Angiogram Catheters

A
  1. Flush - aorta or IVS - bolus of fluid
  2. Headhunter - through groin > descending aorta
  3. Sidewinder
85
Q

What is the rule of thumb for Hypodermic Needle guage?

A

The higher the number, the thinner the needle

*21 used for drawing blood, 16/17 blood transfusions, 25-27 immunizations

86
Q

CT evaluation can pick up ___ within cardiac vascular structures that correlate with atherosclerosis

A

calcifications

87
Q

What is a marker for a diseased artery?

88
Q

Often ___ ___ are 2/2 to a degenerative process attributed to ASCVD

A

Aortic Aneurysms

*atherosclerotic changes in the aorta can lead to this

89
Q

PVD: What can occur 2/2 to chronic HTN?

A

Aortic dissection

90
Q

A widened mediastinum on CXR should make you think of what Dx?

A

Aortic dissection

91
Q

An aortic dissection occurs when an intimal tear connects the ___ with the ___ lumen

A

Media

Aortic

92
Q

In an aortic dissection a ___ & ___ lumen are established and there is obstruction of branching vessels and weakening of the aortic wall with rupture

A

True

False

93
Q

What condition usually involves both a curvature and also a rotational component of the spine?

A

Scoliosis and Rotoscoliosis

94
Q

Causes of Scoliosis and Rotoscoliosis

A
  • Idiopathic MC
  • 2/2 neurological, (polio, cerebral palsy) musculodystrophy, or bone and spinal cord tumors/abnormalities
  • Scoliosis at birth (congenital) occurs with other abnormalities of the chest wall, GU tract, and heart
95
Q

Metastatic Prostate CA can involve?

A
  • The Spinal Canal, Spinal Cord, or Nerve Roots
  • Present with neurological signs
96
Q

Prostate CA most commonly metastasizes to?

97
Q

Signs of Child Abuse

A
  • Rib fractures - Battered Child Syndrome
  • Multiple fractures found in children < 5yo, particularly < 1yo
    • In different stages of healing
  • Metaphyseal corner fx in femur, humerus, wrist, ankle
  • Spiral fx < 1yo
  • Rib fx, Skull fx - Occipiral bone fx with abundant callus formation
  • Beware there are other entities that can mimic Battered Child Syndrome
98
Q

Rib fractures in child abuse can be associated with?

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • Hemothorax
  • Other intrathoracic trauma - Pulmonary Contusion
  • Aortic Tears
  • Other soft tissue injury
99
Q

In certain infections, the Intervertebral Disc is infected (TB, Salmonella) and can spread to what muscle?

100
Q

What Dx can sometimes mimic a Psoas abscess?

A

Appendicitis

101
Q

What is a positive Psoas Sign?

A

During movement of flexing the right leg with the knee extended, if the appendix is inflamed, the patient will feel pain/spasm in the psoas muscle/RLQ

102
Q

What is the size of a RBC?

RRPA Anatomy II (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions