anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

what does the pre-op care depend on

A

Patient co-morbidities & medication
- Type of surgery : minor/intermediate/ complex (including
haemorrhage risk)
- Setting: elective OR emergency

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2
Q

what are the different ASA levels

A

ASA 1: Healthy patient
• ASA 2: Mild systemic disease. No functional
limitation ie exercise tolerance - no problem climbing 2flights
• ASA 3: Moderate systemic disease. Have
functional limitation
• ASA 4: Severe systemic disease that is a constant
threat to life
• ASA 5: Moribund patient. Unlikely to survive 24
hours, with or without treatment
• Postscript E indicates emergency surgery

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3
Q

summarise POSSUM

A

o Based on physiological parameters at time, whether emergency or not, operative variables
o Number produced has been validated
o Risk discussion with pt – risk benefit ratio in favour – and if not what does that mean
 In peri-op have more invasive monitoring
 Post-op if mortality >5% - ITU or high dependency unit (HDU)
 If surgeon quotes 1% mortality risk for pt – high risk but for HDU guidelines its 5%

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4
Q

what is important when considering comorbidities

A

optimisation and peri-operative control

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5
Q

control for dm

A

look at HbA1c and see how well controlled

think when to use insulin sliding scales

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6
Q

control for HTN

A

optimisation - when to treat (>160/80)
control - maintain within 20% of normal BP in primary care settings, not in hospital – often high when come in for surgery.
= reduced morbidity and mortality. If 1 hypotensive episode = morbidity and mortality

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7
Q

IHD control

A

optimisation - Symptomatic (or major
procedure) /ECG anomaly
BP & HR control. Consider post
operative HDU

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8
Q

asthmatic and COPD control

A

optimisation: Symptomatic? Signs?

Medication – BTS Guideline

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9
Q

anti-coagulants control

A

optimisation - why are they on them, can we stop them or not
INR/APTR <1.5
Anti-platelets/LMWH
resumption?

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10
Q

sickle cell control

A

haematology review

good care - warm, hydrated, analgesia, infection free

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11
Q

considerations for day surgery

A

social - Patient consent, carer, home setup, can they manage at home
medical - Fitness, stable chronic, obesity not
preclude, comorbidities
surgical - Complication risks, controllable post op
symptoms, mobile, how major the surgery is

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12
Q

when should you consider further investigations

A

dependant on pt and background state
Bloods test anomalies : anaemia, renal dysfunction
Lung function tests : Baseline ABG’s, FEV1<40% (predictor for
postoperative ventilation)
cardiac:
ECG - ischemia, arrhythmia, dm - multisystem disease, HTN
echo - poor functional status (LV function and valves) and reasonable size op/GA
stress echo - gives low/intermediate/high risk index of ischemia - used to quantify ischemia

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13
Q

things to ask in an anaesthetics Hx

A
o	Whether had anaesthetic before and problems 
o	FH of problems 
o	Malignant hyperpyrexia 
o	Suxamethonium apnoea 
o	Both genetically based and run in fam 
o	Drug rn/longer to recover, or awareness, or not take long to recover 
comorbidities, Ex tolerance 
medication/allergies 
smoking/Etoh/recreational drugs
teeth - dental work 
airway - mallampati, neck movement 
NBM
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14
Q

mallampati socre

A

 1 - Should be able to see all soft pallet and uvula
 2 – still uvula, not all of soft pallet
 3 – some uvula and not all, ie just base
 4 – complete obliteration – no uvula or soft pallet
 Ask open mouth and stick tongue out

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15
Q

why do you ask about neck extension

A

makes a difference for intubation

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16
Q

why starve before surgery

A

reduce aspiration risk – if when put to sleep have food in stomach/acid that comes up into mouth – airway reflex don’t work – go into lungs – high mortality attached to it – strict about NBM

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17
Q

how long do you starve for

A

food 6hr
Water 2hrs
caveat if reflux, obese, slow gastric transit eg trauma = reduced transit time – different times

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18
Q

how do you prescribe opioids

A

o Make sure on form – dose, strength, formulation, total quantity – dosage in words and figures and quantity need supplied for that period of time
o Length and duration time required for
handwritten

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19
Q

summarise oropharyngeal airway

A

called guedel airway
 3 4 5 size - from angle of mandible to side of mouth
 Airway adjuncts (not airway in own right) - used with bag mask ventilation
 Slits in behind the tongue – allow passage to continue and makes ventilation easier

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20
Q

summarise bag-mask-valve airway

A

 For pt apnoeic/resp failure
 One way valve – drive against the lungs
 Cant breathe against
 So doesn’t work with spontaneous ventilation
 Reservoir opens up more ox to be drawn in
 FiO2 60-90% – fraction of inspired oxygen

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21
Q

endotracheal tube

A

o Connector on R hand side
o Labelled with internal diameter
o Markings along tell you how long at teetc
o Pilot balloon – where but air in – connected to balloon at end of tube
o Black marker should be at cords
o Balloon sit below
o This is a definitive airway – cuffed tube in trachea sealing it off (ET, tracheolaryngeal tube)

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22
Q

supraglotic airway

A
o	Igel – sits above the vocal cords 
o	LMA 
o	At bottom- gastric port - traverse in parallel to main ox conduit 
o	Different size 3 4 5 
o	Paed smaller 1 2 
o	Single use
o	Latex 
not definitive airway
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23
Q

benefits and features of Igel

A

15mm connector - reliable connection to any standard catheter mount or connection
clearly displayed product info- quick easy reference, confirmation of size and weight preference
position guide - adult size only - confirmation of optimum insertion depth
non-inflatable cuff - made from soft gel-like material allowing ease of insertion and reduced trauma
gastric channel - enhance safety - allows for suctioning, passing of NG tube and venting
integral bite block - reduces possibility of airway channel occlusion
buccal cavity stabiliser - aids insertion and elimates potential for rotation
epiglottic rest - reduces possibility of epiglottis down folding and airway obstruction

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24
Q

what is the need for the 5 steps to safer surgery

A

o Safety checklist by WHO in developed and non-developed countries – benefits 30-40% improvement in mortality
o Allows a rolling team – communicate with everybody from different teams

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25
Q

steps in the 5 steps to safer surgery

A

team brief - go through list and introduce yourself, go through order
when pt comes - sign in in the anaesthetics room - check no major allergies, all monitoring in place, have blood if needed, site marked, difficult airway/anaesthetic risk
time out before incision - pts name, allergy, metal work, make sure surgeon know operating on the correct side, equipment sterile, count correct, anaestetics set up, special requirements and concerns, ASA, essential imaging/tests available, duration of op, expected blood loss, any special equipment needed, hair removal, AB, pt warming, glycaemic control, VTE prophylaxis undertaken
sign out - comfirm procedure done and everything accounted for
sign out before pt leaves theatre - has throat pack been removed, swab insturment and needle/sharp count correct, any equipment issues, correct procedure performed and recorded, specimens labelled, post op - analgesia,AB, VTE prophylaxis, fluid management inc blood, care iof drain/NG
debrief - end of day

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26
Q

what do you need to consider for VTE prophylaxis

A
mobility
RF
bleeding risk
o	No different from Virchow’s triad – stasis, OCP, cancer, preg, bleeding risk – pt and type of sugery – high bleeding risk – don’t want VTE prophylaxis.  Thrombophilia – more prone to DVT and PE – give longer period and involve haematologist 
o	Drug chart prompt you for it
27
Q

summarise the WHO pain ladder

A

step 1 - non-opioid eg aspirin, paracetamol or NSAID +- adjuvant
step 2 - weak opioid - for mild to moderate pain eg codeine/tramadol +-non-opioid +- adjuvant
step 3 - strong opioid - for mod to sever pain eg morphine/oxycodone +-non-opioid +- adjuvant

28
Q

what anti-emetics are best to use

A

cyclizine/ondansetron - have best number needed to treat (NNT)
these and dexamethosone NNT are in single figures - very effective
whereas Metoclopramide and Prochlorperazine NNT are in teens
so use these 2nd line

29
Q

ondansetron mechanism, SE and dose/route

A
5HT3R-antagonist
Bradycardia
Long QT syndrome
CI in pregnancy
4-8mg TDS
PO/IV
30
Q

cyclizine mechanism, SE and dose/route

A
H1 R antagonist 
Tachycardia
Anti-cholinergic
can cause delerium 
make young women high 
50mg TDS
PO/slow IV/IM
31
Q

dexamethasone mechanism, SE and dose/route

A
corticosteroid 
Hyperglycaemia 
Perineal
‘burning’(transient)
4-8mg BD /IV
32
Q

metoclopramide mechanism, SE and dose/route

A
Central DA2 R
antagonist
Extrapyramidal SE’s
acute dystonic reactions involving facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises
10mg TDS
PO/IV
33
Q

prochlorperazine mechanism, SE and dose/route

A

DA antagonist
Extrapyramidal SE’s
Long QT syndrome
12.5mg BD / IM

34
Q

why do you need temperature control in surgery

A

o Normal homeostasis disrupted under GA
 Wake up better
Better outcomes
 Enzymes operate in certain temp – other wise denature, tight temp boundaries – clotting prolonged if temp low
 If pt bleeding considerably and not keeping them warm, not coag and temp not helping

35
Q

ways to keep pt warm

A

keep temp >36 degrees
o procedure >30mins = Bair hugger
o longer procedure = Warm up fluids
o Specific heat capacity of water – in winter changes more slowly temp
o Warm fluid more effective in warming pt than convection heating through Bair hugger

36
Q

resp emergency - asthma outside of theatre

A

ABC
O2 -Start high flow oxygen and gain IV access
Salbutamol nebulised 2.5-5mg
Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV 6 hourly or prednisolone orally
40–50 mg/day.
Ipatropium nebulised 0.5 mg (4–6 hrly
salbutamol IV if
not responding (250 mcg slow bolus then 5–20
mcg/min).
Theophylline/Aminophylline
Magnesium 2g IV over 20 minutes
In extremis (decreasing conscious level or exhaustion)
adrenaline may be used: nebuliser 5 ml of 1 in 1,000;
Senior clinician only: IV 10 mcg (0.1 ml 1 : 10,000) increasing to
100 mcg (1 ml 1 : 10,000) depending on response

37
Q

caution with aminophylline

A

tight therapeutic index – be careful with

38
Q

periop management of asthma

A

B2 agonist - salbutamol/terbutaline/salmeterol - convert to nebulised form - high dose may reduce K, causes tachycardia and tremor
anticholinergic drug - ipratropium - nebulised
inhaled steroids - beclomethasone/budesnoide/fluticasone - if on >1500mcg/day of beclomethasone, adrenal suppression may be present
oral steroid - prednisolone - continue as IV hydrocortisone until taking orally (1mg pred = 5mg hydrocortisone) if >10mg/day - adrenal suppression likely
leukotriene inhibitor (anti-inflammatory effect) - montelukast/zarfirlukast - restart when taking oral med
mast cell stabaliser - disodium cromoglycate - inhaler
phosphodiesterise inhibitor - aminophylline - continue where possible - effectiveness in asthma debated, in severe asthma consider converting to an infusion periop (checking levels 12hrly)

39
Q

identifying a tension pneumothorax

A

has no lung markings, deviated trachea and mediastinal shift = tension

40
Q

treatment of tension pneumothorax

A

o Treat with large bore 16G (grey) catheter or orange 14G – 2nd ICS MCL – needle aspiration – decompress as temporary measure before drain – byes time

41
Q

triggers of anaphylaxis

A
stings 
nuts 
food 
AB
anaesthetics
drugs 
contrast media 
latex
hair dye
hydatid
42
Q

anaphylaxis recognition - airway

A

Airway swelling, e.g., throat and tongue swelling (pharyngeal/laryngeal oedema). The patient
has difficulty in breathing and swallowing and feels that the throat is closing up.
• Hoarse voice.
• Stridor – this is a high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by upper airway obstruction.
rest.

43
Q

recognising anaphylaxis - breathing problems

A
• Shortness of breath – increased respiratory rate.
tripod position
• Wheeze
• Patient becoming tired.
• Confusion caused by hypoxia.
• Cyanosis (appears blue) – this is usually a late sign.
spo2 <92%
• Respiratory arrest
44
Q

recognising anaphylaxis - circulation problems

A

Signs of shock – pale, clammy.
• Increased pulse rate (tachycardia).
• Low blood pressure (hypotension) – feeling faint (dizziness), collapse.
• Decreased conscious level or loss of consciousness.
• Anaphylaxis can cause myocardial ischaemia and ECG changes even in individuals
with normal coronary arteries -> Cardiac arrest.

45
Q

treatment of anaphylaxis

A

ABC
adrenaline IM when confirmed diagnosis
chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone IM or slow IV
fluid as supportive measure
HDU or ITU depending on how well recover
if pt fit and healthy - will be fine body just pushed to extreme
of old with heart disease already = MI, stroke, renal failure – hard to predict how they would be afterwards

46
Q

what do you monitor in anaphylaxis

A

pulse oximetry
ECG
BP

47
Q

when should you transfuse blood

A

o 70Hb – unless IHD or neuro disease or severe sepsis – give blood to keep Hb >90
o Depend on how stable – ongoing losses and quick – make judgement call

48
Q

what is NEWS

A

based on simple scoring system in
which a score is allocated to physiological measurements already
undertaken when patients present to, or are being monitored in hospital.

49
Q

what physiological parameters form the basis of NEWS

A
RR
sats 
temperature 
SBP 
pulse rate 
level of consciousness
50
Q

how does NEWS work

A

score allocated to each measure
magnitude of score reflecting how extreme the parameter varies from the norm
score is then aggregated - uplifted if on ox
parameters are already routinely measured in hospitals and recorded on clinical chart

51
Q

signs that pt is deteriorating

A

portsmouth sign - HR is higher than SBP

happens over period of time, RR up, sats down

52
Q

what is the most sensitive parameter

A

• RR v sensitive – geared around met state of human – if met state not good ie acidotic – RR driven up

53
Q

interpretation and response to NEWS scores

A

1-4 = low = monitor min 12hrly - monitor NEWS with every set of obs
5-6 or individual parameter 3 = medium = monitor hourly, nurse inform med team, urgent assessment by clinician, clinical care in env with monitoring fascilities
7 or more - high - continuous monitoring of vital signs - nurse immediately inform the med team at SpR, emergency assessment by clinical team with critical care competencies and someone with advanced airway skills, consider transfer to HDU, or ITU

54
Q

what is SIRS

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome
day 1-2 after surgery – all changes of sepsis w/o infective focus
temp >38 or <36
HR >90
RR >20 or PaCO2 <32mmHg
WBC >12000/mm3 or <4000/mm3 or >10% immature bands

55
Q

what is sepsis

A

SERS and infection

56
Q

management of sepsis

A

Early recognition and early broad spectrum AB important, fluid to resus – supportive measurement
within 3hrs
- measure lactate level
- obtain blood cultures prior to admin of AB
- admin broad spectrum AB
- Administer 30 ml/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4mmol/L “Time of presentation”
is defined as the time of triage in the emergency department
within 6hr
- Apply vasopressors in ITU/anaesthetics (for hypotension that does not respond to initial fluid
resuscitation) ; maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mm Hg
- In the event of persistent hypotension after initial fluid administration (MAP < 65
mm Hg) or if initial lactate was ≥4 mmol/L, re-assess volume status and tissue
perfusion.
- Re-measure lactate if initial lactate elevated - give idea of how utilised ox is by the tissues

57
Q

indictation for anti-emetics

A

previous post-anaesthesia illness bowel surgery – because moving it around a lot – more likely to get ill
Young women tend to get ill more

58
Q

what is given in VTE prophylaxis

A

compression stockings

LMWH or heparin

59
Q

SE of hyoscine/atropine

A
anticholinergic =
tachycardia
urinary retention
glaucoma 
sedation - esp in elderly
60
Q

SE of opioids

A
resp depression 
reduced cough reflex 
N and V 
constipation
urinary retention 
hypotn 
sedation
61
Q

SE of thiopental (induction agent)

A

laryngospasm

62
Q

SE of propofol (induction agent)

A

resp/cardiac depression

pain on injection

63
Q

SE of volatile agents eg isoflurane

A

N and V
cardiac/resp depression
vasodilation
hepatotoxicity